Search Results

Search found 32731 results on 1310 pages for 'method hiding'.

Page 502/1310 | < Previous Page | 498 499 500 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509  | Next Page >

  • Google App Engine error Object Manager has been closed

    - by newbie
    I had following error from Google App Engine when I was trying to iterate list in JSP page with EL. Object Manager has been closed I solved problem with following coe, but I don't think that it is very good solution to this problem: public List<Item> getItems() { PersistenceManager pm = getPersistenceManager(); Query query = pm.newQuery("select from " + Item.class.getName()); List<Item> items = (List<Items>) query.execute(); List<Item> items2 = new ArrayList<Item>(); // This line solved my problem Collections.copy(items, items2); // and this also pm.close(); return (List<Item>) items; } When I tried to use pm.detachCopyAll(items) it gave same error. I understood that detachCopyAll() method should do same what I did, but that method should be part of data nucelus, so it should be used instead of my owm methods. So why dosen't detachCopyAll() work at all?

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't the spring @Autowire work with java generics

    - by testing123
    Inspired by spring data awesomeness I wanted to create a abstract RESTController that I could extend for a lot of my controllers. I created the following class: @Controller public abstract class RESTController<E, PK extends Serializable, R extends PagingAndSortingRepository<E, PK>> { @Autowired private R repository; @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET, params={"id"}) @ResponseBody public E getEntity(@RequestParam PK id) { return repository.findOne(id); } ... } I was hoping that the generics would allow me to @Autowire in the repository but I get the following error: SEVERE: Allocate exception for servlet appServlet org.springframework.beans.factory.NoSuchBeanDefinitionException: No unique bean of type [org.springframework.data.repository.PagingAndSortingRepository] is defined: expected single matching bean but found 3: [groupRepository, externalCourseRepository, managedCourseRepository] at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory.doResolveDependency(DefaultListableBeanFactory.java:800) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory.resolveDependency(DefaultListableBeanFactory.java:707) at org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor$AutowiredFieldElement.inject(AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor.java:478) at org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.InjectionMetadata.inject(InjectionMetadata.java:87) at org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor.postProcessPropertyValues(AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor.java:284) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.populateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:1106) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.doCreateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:517) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.createBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:456) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory$1.getObject(AbstractBeanFactory.java:294) I understand what the error is telling me, there is more than one match for the @Autowire. I am confused because I thought by creating the following controller it would work: @Controller @RequestMapping(value="/managedCourse") public class ManagedCourseController extends RESTController<ManagedCourse, Long, ManagedCourseRepository> { ... } This is easy enough to work around by doing having a method like this in the RESTController: protected abstract R getRepository(); and then doing this in your implementing class: @Autowired private ManagedCourseRepository repository; @Override protected ManagedCourseRepository getRepository() { return repository; } I was just wondering if someone had any thoughts of how I could get this to work.

    Read the article

  • Strange Access Denied warning when running the simplest C++ program.

    - by DaveJohnston
    I am just starting to learn C++ (coming from a Java background) and I have come across something that I can't explain. I am working through the C++ Primer book and doing the exercises. Every time I get to a new exercise I create a new .cpp file and set it up with the main method (and any includes I think I will need) e.g.: #include <list> #include <vector> int main(int argc, char **args) { } and just to make sure I go to the command prompt and compile and run: g++ whatever.cpp a.exe Normally this works just fine and I start working on the exercise, but I just did it and got a strange error. It compiles fine, but when I run it it says Access Denied and AVG pops up telling me that a threat has been detected 'Trojan Horse Generic 17.CKZT'. I tried compiling again using the Microsoft Compiler (cl.exe) and it runs fines. So I went back, and added: #include <iostream> compiled using g++ and ran. This time it worked fine. So can anyone tell me why AVG would report an empty main method as a trojan horse but if the iostream header is included it doesn't?

    Read the article

  • What's the correct place to share application logic in CakePHP?

    - by Pichan
    I guess simple answer to the question would be a component. Although I agree, I feel weird having to write a component for something so specific. For example, let's say I have a table of users. When a user is created, it should form a chain reaction of events, initiating different kinds of data related to the user all around the database. I figured it would be best to avoid directly manipulating the database from different controllers and instead pack all that neatly in a method. However since some logic needs to be accesed separately, I really can't have the whole package in a single method. Instead I thought it would be logical to break it up to smaller pieces(like $userModelOrController->createNew() and $candyStorageModelOrController->createNew()) that only interact with their respective database table. Now, if the logic is put to the model, it works great until I need to use other models. Of course it's possible, but when compared to loading models in a controller, it's not that simple. It's like a Cake developer telling me "Sure, it's possible if you want to do it that way but that's not how I would do it". Then, if the logic is put to the controller, I can access other models really easy through $this->loadModel(), but that brings me back to the previously explained situation since I need to be able to continue the chain reaction indefinitely. Accessing other controllers from a controller is possible, but again there doesn't seem to be any direct way of doing so, so I'm guessing I'm still not doing it right. By using a component this problem could be solved easily, since components are available to every controller I want. But like I wrote at the beginning, it feels awkward to create a component specifically for this one task. To me, components seem more like packages of extra functionality(like the core components) and not something to share controller-specific logic. Since I'm new to this whole MVC thing, I could've completely misunderstood the concept. Once again, I would be thankful if someone pointed me to the right direction :)

    Read the article

  • Should a C++ constructor do real work?

    - by Wade Williams
    I'm strugging with some advice I have in the back of my mind but for which I can't remember the reasoning. I seem to remember at some point reading some advice (can't remember the source) that C++ constructors should not do real work. Rather, they should initialize variables only. The advice when on to explain that real work should be done in some sort of init() method, to be called separately after the instance was created. The situation is I have a class that represents a hardware device. It makes logical sense to me for the constructor to call the routines that query the device in order to build up the instance variables that describe the device. In other words, once new instantiates the object, the developer receives an object which is ready to be used, no separate call to object-init() required. Is there a good reason why constructors shouldn't do real work? Obviously it could slow allocation time, but that wouldn't be any different if calling a separate method immediately after allocation. Just trying to figure out what gotchas I not currently considering that might have lead to such advice.

    Read the article

  • Why does VS2005 skip execution of lines when debugging managed C++ without optimizations?

    - by Sakin
    I ran into a rather odd behavior that I don't even know how to start describing. I wrote a piece of managed C++ code that makes calls to native methods. A (very) simplified version of the code would look like this (I know it looks like a full native function, just assume there is managed stuff being done all over the place): int somefunction(ptrHolder x) { // the accessptr method returns a native pointer if (x.accessptr() != nullptr) // I tried this with nullptr, NULL, 0) { try { x->doSomeNativeVeryImportantStuff(); // or whatever, doesn't matter } catch (SomeCustomExceptionClass &) { return 0; } } SomeOtherNativeClass::doStaticMagic(); return 1; } I compiled this code without optimizations using the /clr flag (VS.NET 2005, SP2) and when running it in the debugger I get to the if statement, since the pointer is actually null, I don't enter the if, but surprisingly, the cursor jumps directly to the return 1 statement, ignoring the doStaticMagic() method completely!!! When looking at the assembly code, I see that it really jumps directly to that line. If I force the debugger to enter the if block, I also jump to the return 1 statement after I press F10. Any ideas why this is happening? Thanks, Ariel

    Read the article

  • Design by contracts and constructors

    - by devoured elysium
    I am implementing my own ArrayList for school purposes, but to spice up things a bit I'm trying to use C# 4.0 Code Contracts. All was fine until I needed to add Contracts to the constructors. Should I add Contract.Ensures() in the empty parameter constructor? public ArrayList(int capacity) { Contract.Requires(capacity > 0); Contract.Ensures(Size == capacity); _array = new T[capacity]; } public ArrayList() : this(32) { Contract.Ensures(Size == 32); } I'd say yes, each method should have a well defined contract. On the other hand, why put it if it's just delegating work to the "main" constructor? Logicwise, I wouldn't need to. The only point I see where it'd be useful to explicitly define the contract in both constructors is if in the future we have Intelisense support for contracts. Would that happen, it'd be useful to be explicit about which contracts each method has, as that'd appear in Intelisense. Also, are there any books around that go a bit deeper on the principles and usage of Design by Contracts? One thing is having knowledge of the syntax of how to use Contracts in a language (C#, in this case), other is knowing how and when to use it. I read several tutorials and Jon Skeet's C# in Depth article about it, but I'd like to go a bit deeper if possible. Thanks

    Read the article

  • OOP/MVC advice on where to place a global helper function

    - by franko75
    Hi, I have a couple of controllers on my site which are handling form data. The forms use AJAX and I have quite a few methods across different controllers which are having to do some specific processing to return errors in a JSON encoded format - see code below. Obviously this isn't DRY and I need to move this code into a single helper function which I can use globally, but I'm wondering where this should actually go! Should I create a static helper class which contains this function (e.g Validation::build_ajax_errors()), or as this code is producing a format which is application specific and tied into the jQuery validation plugin I'm using, should it be a static method stored in, for example, my main Website controller which the form handling controllers extend from? //if ajax request, output errors if (request::is_ajax()) { //need to build errors into array form for javascript validation - move this into a helper method accessible globally $errors = $post->errors('form_data/form_error_messages'); $i = 0; $new_errors = array(); foreach ($errors as $key => $value) { $new_errors[$i][0] = '#' . $key; $new_errors[$i][1] = $value; $new_errors[$i][2] = "error"; $i++; } echo '{"jsonValidateReturn":' . json_encode($new_errors) . '}'; return; }

    Read the article

  • Android: Problems downloading images and converting to bitmaps

    - by Mike
    Hi all, I am working on an application that downloads images from a url. The problem is that only some images are being correctly downloaded and others are not. First off, here is the problem code: public Bitmap downloadImage(String url) { HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpResponse response = null; try { response = client.execute(new HttpGet(url)); } catch (ClientProtocolException cpe) { Log.i(LOG_FILE, "client protocol exception"); return null; } catch (IOException ioe) { Log.i(LOG_FILE, "IOE downloading image"); return null; } catch (Exception e) { Log.i(LOG_FILE, "Other exception downloading image"); return null; } // Convert images from stream to bitmap object try { Bitmap image = BitmapFactory.decodeStream(response.getEntity().getContent()); if(image==null) Log.i(LOG_FILE, "image conversion failed"); return image; } catch (Exception e) { Log.i(LOG_FILE, "Other exception while converting image"); return null; } } So what I have is a method that takes the url as a string argument and then downloads the image, converts the HttpResponse stream to a bitmap by means of the BitmapFactory.decodeStream method, and returns it. The problem is that when I am on a slow network connection (almost always 3G rather than Wi-Fi) some images are converted to null--not all of them, only some of them. Using a Wi-Fi connection works perfectly; all the images are downloaded and converted properly. Does anyone know why this is happening? Or better, how can I fix this? How would I even go about testing to determine the problem? Any help is awesome; thank you!

    Read the article

  • Searching For A Record After A LINQ query

    - by Justin
    I'm confused to why this is happening. I'm new to LINQ so I'm clearly missing something here, that is probably pretty easy. I've looked up help on the topic, but I don't really know what to ask so I haven't found any answers that really address my question. This doesn't work It throws an EntityCommandExecutionException when the FirstOrDefault method is executed. var query = from band in context.BandsEntitySet where band.ID == 12345 select band; string venueName = "Willis Park"; foreach (var item in query) { var venue = context.VenueEntitySet.FirstOrDefault(r => r.Venue.Equals(venueName)); } This works var query = from band in context.BandsEntitySet where band.ID == 12345 select band; var bandList = query.toList(); string venueName = "Willis Park"; foreach (var item in bandList) { var venue = context.VenueEntitySet.FirstOrDefault(r => r.Venue.Equals(venueName)); } My question is simple: Why is the exception being thrown? And why does creating a list from the query allow me to use the FirstOrDefault method? Exception Message: A first chance exception of type 'System.Data.EntityCommandExecutionException' occurred in System.Data.Entity.dll I guess I am wrong in my assumption that query is a list? Then what is it exactly? I'm confused because this doesn't throw an exception: foreach (var item in query) { var area = item.VenueArea; } I'd appreciate any help on this issue. thanks, Justin

    Read the article

  • Shaping EF LINQ Query Results Using Multi-Table Includes

    - by sisdog
    I have a simple LINQ EF query below using the method syntax. I'm using my Include statement to join four tables: Event and Doc are the two main tables, EventDoc is a many-to-many link table, and DocUsage is a lookup table. My challenge is that I'd like to shape my results by only selecting specific columns from each of the four tables. But, the compiler is giving a compiler is giving me the following error: 'System.Data.Objects.DataClasses.EntityCollection does not contain a definition for "Doc' and no extension method 'Doc' accepting a first argument of type 'System.Data.Objects.DataClasses.EntityCollection' could be found. I'm sure this is something easy but I'm not figuring it out. I haven't been able to find an example of someone using the multi-table include but also shaping the projection. Thx,Mark var qry= context.Event .Include("EventDoc.Doc.DocUsage") .Select(n => new { n.EventDate, n.EventDoc.Doc.Filename, //<=COMPILER ERROR HERE n.EventDoc.Doc.DocUsage.Usage }) .ToList(); EventDoc ed; Doc d = ed.Doc; //<=NO COMPILER ERROR SO I KNOW MY MODEL'S CORRECT DocUsage du = d.DocUsage;

    Read the article

  • Flex + PHP + ValueObjects

    - by Tempname
    I have a php/flex value object that I am using to transmit data to/from in my application. Everything works great php-flex, but I am having an issue with flex-php. In my MergeTemplateService.php service I have the following code. This is the method that flex hits directly: function updateTemplate($valueObject){ $object = DAOFactory::getMergeTemplateDAO()->update($valueObject); return $object; } I am passing a value object that from flex looks like this: (com.rottmanj.vo::MergeTemplateVO)#0 communityID = 0 creationDate = (null) enterpriseID = 0 lastModifyDate = (null) templateID = 2 templateName = "My New Test Template" userID = 0 The issue I am having is that my updateTemplate method sees the value object as an array and not an object. In my amfphp globals.php I have set my voPath as: $voPath = "services/class/dto/"; Any help with this is greatly appreciated Here are my two value objects: AS3 VO: package com.rottmanj.vo { [RemoteClass(alias="MergeTemplate")] public class MergeTemplateVO { public var templateID:int; public var templateName:String; public var communityID:int; public var enterpriseID:int; public var userID:int; public var creationDate:String; public var lastModifyDate:String public function MergeTemplateVO(data:Object = null):void { if(data != null) { templateID = data.templateID; templateName = data.templateName; communityID = data.communityID; enterpriseID = data.enterpriseID; userID = data.userID; creationDate = data.creationDate; lastModifyDate = data.lastModifyDate; } } } } PHPVO: <?php class MergeTemplate{ var $templateID; var $templateName; var $communityID; var $enterpriseID; var $userID; var $creationDate; var $lastModifyDate; var $_explictType = 'MergeTemplate'; } ?>

    Read the article

  • Unit Testing the Use of TransactionScope

    - by Randolpho
    The preamble: I have designed a strongly interfaced and fully mockable data layer class that expects the business layer to create a TransactionScope when multiple calls should be included in a single transaction. The problem: I would like to unit test that my business layer makes use of a TransactionScope object when I expect it to. Unfortunately, the standard pattern for using TransactionScope is a follows: using(var scope = new TransactionScope()) { // transactional methods datalayer.InsertFoo(); datalayer.InsertBar(); scope.Complete(); } While this is a really great pattern in terms of usability for the programmer, testing that it's done seems... unpossible to me. I cannot detect that a transient object has been instantiated, let alone mock it to determine that a method was called on it. Yet my goal for coverage implies that I must. The Question: How can I go about building unit tests that ensure TransactionScope is used appropriately according to the standard pattern? Final Thoughts: I've considered a solution that would certainly provide the coverage I need, but have rejected it as overly complex and not conforming to the standard TransactionScope pattern. It involves adding a CreateTransactionScope method on my data layer object that returns an instance of TransactionScope. But because TransactionScope contains constructor logic and non-virtual methods and is therefore difficult if not impossible to mock, CreateTransactionScope would return an instance of DataLayerTransactionScope which would be a mockable facade into TransactionScope. While this might do the job it's complex and I would prefer to use the standard pattern. Is there a better way?

    Read the article

  • access properties of current model in has_many declaration

    - by seth.vargo
    Hello, I didn't exactly know how to pose this question other than through example... I have a class we will call Foo. Foo :has_many Bar. Foo has a boolean attribute called randomize that determines the order of the the Bars in the :has_many relationship: class CreateFoo < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :foos do |t| t.string :name t.boolean :randomize, :default => false end end end   class CreateBar < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :bars do |t| t.string :name t.references :foo end end end   class Bar < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :foo end   class Foo < ActiveRecord::Base # this is the line that doesn't work has_many :bars, :order => self.randomize ? 'RAND()' : 'id' end How do I access properties of self in the has_many declaration? Things I've tried and failed: creating a method of Foo that returns the correct string creating a lambda function crying Is this possible? UPDATE The problem seems to be that the class in :has_many ISN'T of type Foo: undefined method `randomize' for #<Class:0x1076fbf78> is one of the errors I get. Note that its a general Class, not a Foo object... Why??

    Read the article

  • C#: Need one of my classes to trigger an event in another class to update a text box

    - by Matt
    Total n00b to C# and events although I have been programming for a while. I have a class containing a text box. This class creates an instance of a communication manager class that is receiving frames from the Serial Port. I have this all working fine. Every time a frame is received and its data extracted, I want a method to run in my class with the text box in order to append this frame data to the text box. So, without posting all of my code I have my form class... public partial class Form1 : Form { CommManager comm; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); comm = new CommManager(); } private void updateTextBox() { //get new values and update textbox } . . . and I have my CommManager class class CommManager { //here we manage the comms, recieve the data and parse the frame } SO... essentially, when I parse that frame, I need the updateTextBox method from the form class to run. I'm guessing this is possible with events but I can't seem to get it to work. I tried adding an event handler in the form class after creating the instance of CommManager as below... comm = new CommManager(); comm.framePopulated += new EventHandler(updateTextBox); ...but I must be doing this wrong as the compiler doesn't like it... Any ideas?!

    Read the article

  • Determine if a Range contains a value

    - by Brad Dwyer
    I'm trying to figure out a way to determine if a value falls within a Range in Swift. Basically what I'm trying to do is adapt one of the examples switch statement examples to do something like this: let point = (1, -1) switch point { case let (x, y) where (0..5).contains(x): println("(\(x), \(y)) has an x val between 0 and 5.") default: println("This point has an x val outside 0 and 5.") } As far as I can tell, there isn't any built in way to do what my imaginary .contains method above does. So I tried to extend the Range class. I ended up running into issues with generics though. I can't extend Range<Int> so I had to try to extend Range itself. The closest I got was this but it doesn't work since >= and <= aren't defined for ForwardIndex extension Range { func contains(val:ForwardIndex) -> Bool { return val >= self.startIndex && val <= self.endIndex } } How would I go about adding a .contains method to Range? Or is there a better way to determine whether a value falls within a range? Edit2: This seems to work to extend Range extension Range { func contains(val:T) -> Bool { for x in self { if(x == val) { return true } } return false } } var a = 0..5 a.contains(3) // true a.contains(6) // false a.contains(-5) // false I am very interested in the ~= operator mentioned below though; looking into that now.

    Read the article

  • A member variable's hashCode() value is different

    - by Jacques René Mesrine
    There's a piece of code that looks like this. The problem is that during bootup, 2 initialization takes place. (1) Some method does a reflection on ForumRepository & performs a newInstance() purely to invoke #setCacheEngine. (2) Another method following that invokes #start(). I am noticing that the hashCode of the #cache member variable is different sometimes in some weird scenarios. Since only 1 piece of code invokes #setCacheEngine, how can the hashCode change during runtime (I am assuming that a different instance will have a different hashCode). Is there a bug here somewhere ? public class ForumRepository implements Cacheable { private static CacheEngine cache; private static ForumRepository instance; public void setCacheEngine(CacheEngine engine) { cache = engine; } public synchronized static void start() { instance = new ForumRepository(); } public synchronized static void addForum( ... ) { cache.add( .. ); System.out.println( cache.hashCode() ); // snipped } public synchronized static void getForum( ... ) { ... cache.get( .. ); System.out.println( cache.hashCode() ); // snipped } }

    Read the article

  • How to Implement Backbone Java Logic Code into Android

    - by lord_sneed
    I wrote a program to work from the console in Eclipse and the terminal window in Linux. I am now transforming it into an Android app and I have the basic functionality of the Android UI done up until the point where it needs to use the logic from the Java file of the program I wrote. All of my inputs from the Java file are currently from the keyboard (from Scanners). My question is: how do I transform this to get it work with the user interaction of the app? The only input would be from the built in NumberPicker. Should I copy and paste the code from the Java program to the activity file in the onCreate method and change all of the input methods (Scanners) to work with the Android input? Or do I create variables in the activity file and pass them to the Java program (in the separate class)? (If so, how would I do that? the Java file starts from the main method: public static void main(String[] args) {) Also, will the print statements I have, System.out.println(...);, translate directly into the Android UI and print on the screen or do I have to modify those?

    Read the article

  • Do vs. Run vs. Execute vs. Perform verbs

    - by coffeeaddict
    Before anyone starts to go nuts and red flag this post saying this is "Subjective" which drives me absolutely nuts because everyone has their own intent why they are posting something others feel are subjective. Subjective is subjective to each person, how about that! So with that let me tell you a couple things so that this post does not get flagged by flag happy moderators: 1) There are community guidlines on specific keywords recommended by certain organizations or people (e.g. Microsoft, Lance Hunt, etc.) 2) I want to know what others are using the most and why. Why they feel this verb reads better than others 3) Books even talk about this verb issue (Uncle Bob, etc.), so it's not subjective Now to my actual question: a) What list of verbs are you using for method names? What's your personal or team standard? b) I debate whether to use Do vs. Run vs. Execute vs. Perform and am wondering if any of these are no longer recommended or some that people just don't really use and I should just scratch them. Basically any one of those verbs mean the same thing...to invoke some process (method call). This is outside of CRUDs. For example: ExecutePayPalWorkflow(); that could be also any one of these names instead: DoPayPalWorkflow(); RunPayPalWorkflow(); PerformPayPalWorkflow(); or does it not really matter...because any of those verbs pretty much are understandable as to "what" shows your intent by the other words that follow it "PayPalWorkflow" This discussion can go for any language. I just put the two main tags C# and Java here which is good enough for me to get some solid answers or experiences.

    Read the article

  • Sanitize input before executing at server in php

    - by Interfaith
    I want to let user input two variable, Name and Password in a form. I want to disable any XSS or script insert in the input values. I have the following code in the form method: <form name="form1" method="post" action="checkpw.php"> Your Name: <table> <tr><td><input class="text" name="name" onBlur="capitalize(this);" maxlength=12 type="text" /></td></tr> </table> Password: <table> <tr><td><input class="text" name="passwd" maxlength=8 type="password" /></td></tr> <tr><td align="center"><br/> <input class="text" type="submit" name="submitbt" value="Login" /> </td></tr> </table> and the following checkpw.php: <?php // Clean up the input values $post = filter_input_array(INPUT_POST, array( 'name' => FILTER_SANITIZE_STRING, 'pw' => FILTER_SANITIZE_STRING, )); if (is_null($post) || in_array(null, $post)) { header("location:login.php"); return; // missing fields (or failed filter) } // pw is the password sent from the form $pw=$_POST['passwd']; $name=$_POST['name']; if($pw == 'testpass'){ header("location:index.php"); } else { header("location:wrong.php"); } ?> Is this a secure way to ensure the form is sent to the server and executed ONLY after the input values have been sanitized? Also, the $name value i want to pass it to index.php file. I insert a code in the index.php as follow: <?php echo $name ?> But it's empty. Any idea how to resolve it?

    Read the article

  • .net mvc2 custom HtmlHelper extension unit testing

    - by alex
    My goal is to be able to unit test some custom HtmlHelper extensions - which use RenderPartial internally. http://ox.no/posts/mocking-htmlhelper-in-asp-net-mvc-2-and-3-using-moq I've tried using the method above to mock the HtmlHelper. However, I'm running into Null value exceptions. "Parameter name: view" Anyone have any idea?? Thanks. Below are the ideas of the code: [TestMethod] public void TestMethod1() { var helper = CreateHtmlHelper(new ViewDataDictionary()); helper.RenderPartial("Test"); // supposingly this line is within a method to be tested Assert.AreEqual("test", helper.ViewContext.Writer.ToString()); } public static HtmlHelper CreateHtmlHelper(ViewDataDictionary vd) { Mock<ViewContext> mockViewContext = new Mock<ViewContext>( new ControllerContext( new Mock<HttpContextBase>().Object, new RouteData(), new Mock<ControllerBase>().Object), new Mock<IView>().Object, vd, new TempDataDictionary(), new StringWriter()); var mockViewDataContainer = new Mock<IViewDataContainer>(); mockViewDataContainer.Setup(v => v.ViewData) .Returns(vd); return new HtmlHelper(mockViewContext.Object, mockViewDataContainer.Object); }

    Read the article

  • Facebook dialog appears but always says "An error has occurred"

    - by Conor James
    <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:fb="http://www.facebook.com/2008/fbml"> ... <head> ... <script src="http://connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js#xfbml=1"></script> </head> <body> <div id="fb-root"></div> <fb:like id="fb-like" href="http://www.example.com" layout="button_count" show_faces="false" width="100"></fb:like> ... myscript.js: FB.ui( { method: 'stream.publish', message: 'getting educated about Facebook Connect', attachment: { name: 'Connect', caption: 'The Facebook Connect JavaScript SDK', description: ( 'A small JavaScript library that allows you to harness ' + 'the power of Facebook, bringing the user\'s identity, ' + 'social graph and distribution power to your site.' ), href: 'http://github.com/facebook/connect-js' }, action_links: [ { text: 'Code', href: 'http://github.com/facebook/connect-js' } ], user_message_prompt: 'Share your thoughts about Connect' }, function(response) { if (response && response.post_id) { alert('Post was published.'); } else { alert('Post was not published.'); } } ); I have Facebook like button on my page which works fine. But when I call the FB.ui method above from my JavaScript source, the Facebook dialog pops up but displays this error message: **An error occurred. Please try again later.** This has happened repeatedly for two days since I started trying to implement it. Not a very helpful error message. Any idea what might cause it or how to narrow down the problem?

    Read the article

  • Questions on Juval Lowy's IDesign C# Coding Standard

    - by Jan
    We are trying to use the IDesign C# Coding standard. Unfortunately, I found no comprehensive document to explain all the rules that it gives, and also his book does not always help. Here are the open questions that remain for me (from chapter 2, Coding Practices): No. 26: Avoid providing explicit values for enums unless they are integer powers of 2 No. 34: Always explicitly initialize an array of reference types using a for loop No. 50: Avoid events as interface members No. 52: Expose interfaces on class hierarchies No. 73: Do not define method-specific constraints in interfaces No. 74: Do not define constraints in delegates Here's what I think about those: I thought that providing explicit values would be especially useful when adding new enum members at a later point in time. If these members are added between other already existing members, I would provide explicit values to make sure the integer representation of existing members does not change. No idea why I would want to do this. I'd say this totally depends on the logic of my program. I see that there is alternative option of providing "Sink interfaces" (simply providing already all "OnXxxHappened" methods), but what is the reason to prefer one over the other? Unsure what he means here: Could this mean "When implementing an interface explicitly in a non-sealed class, consider providing the implementation in a protected virtual method that can be overridden"? (see Programming .NET Components 2nd Edition, end of chapter “Interfaces and Class Hierarchies”). I suppose this is about providing a "where" clause when using generics, but why is this bad on an interface? I suppose this is about providing a "where" clause when using generics, but why is this bad on a delegate?

    Read the article

  • Ensure that my C# desktop application is making requests to my ASP .NET MVC action?

    - by Mathias Lykkegaard Lorenzen
    I've seen questions that are almost identical to this one, except minor but important differences that I would like to get detailed. Let's say that I have a controller and an action method in MVC which therefore accepts requests on the following URL: http://example.com/api/myapimethod?data=some-data-here. This URL is then being called regularly by 1000 clients or more spread out in the public. The reason for this is crowdsourcing. The clients around the globe help feed a global cache on my server, which makes it faster for the rest of the clients to fetch the data. Now, if I'm sneaky (and I am), I can go into Fiddler, Ethereal, Wireshark or any other packet sniffing tool and figure out which requests the program is making. By figuring that out, I can also replicate them, and fill the service with false corrupted data. What is the best approach to ensuring that the data received in my ASP .NET MVC action method is actually from the desktop client application, and not some falsely generated data that the user invented? Since it is all based on crowdsourcing, would it be a good idea for my users to be able to "vote" if some data is falsified, and then let an automatic cleanup commence if there are enough votes? I do not have access to a tool like SmartAssembly, so unfortunately my .NET program is fully decompilable. I realize this might be impossible to accomplish in an error-proof manner, but I would like to know where my best chances are.

    Read the article

  • calling same function on different buttons not loaded yet

    - by Jordan Faust
    I can not get this to work for every button and I cannot find anything explaining why. I guessing it is something small that I am missing $(document).ready(function() { // delete the selected row from the database $(document).on('click', '#business-area-delete-button', { model: "BusinessArea" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#business-type-delete-button', { model: "BusinessType" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#client-delete-button', { model: "Client" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#client-type-delete-button', { model: "ClientType" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#communication-channel-type', { model: "CommunicationChannelType" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#parameter-type-delete-button', { model: "ParameterType" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#validation-method-delete-button', { model: "ValidationMethod" }, deleteRow); } the event function deleteRow(event){ $.ajax( { type:'POST', data: { id: $(".delete-row").attr("id") }, url:"/mysite/admin/delete" + event.data.model, success:function(data,textStatus){ $('#main-content').html(data); }, error:function(XMLHttpRequest,textStatus,errorThrown){ jQuery('#alerts').html(XMLHttpRequest.responseText); }, complete:function(XMLHttpRequest,textStatus){ placeAlerts() } } ); return false }; This works only for a the button with id validation-method-delete-button. I use document and not the button its self because the button is contained in a template that is loaded later via ajax. I have this working for a similar function that is selecting a row in a table however I am not attempting to pass data in that scenario.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 498 499 500 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509  | Next Page >