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  • Linq to SQL not inserting data onto the DB

    - by Jesus Rodriguez
    Hello! I have a little / weird behaviour here and Im looking over internet and SO and I didn't find a response. I have to admit that this is my first time using databases, I know how to use them with SQL but never used it actually. Anyway, I have a problem with my app inserting data, I just created a very simple project for testing that and no solution yet. I have an example database with Sql Server Id - int (identity primary key) Name - nchar(10) (not null) The table is called "Person", simple as pie. I have this: static void Main(string[] args) { var db = new ExampleDBDataContext {Log = Console.Out}; var jesus = new Person {Name = "Jesus"}; db.Persons.InsertOnSubmit(jesus); db.SubmitChanges(); var query = from person in db.Persons select person; foreach (var p in query) { Console.WriteLine(p.Name); } } As you can see, nothing extrange. It show Jesus in the console. But if you see the table data, there is no data, just empty. I comment the object creation and insertion and the foreach doesn't print a thing (normal, there is no data in the database) The weird thing is that I created a row in the database manually and the Id was 2 and no 1 (Was the linq really playing with the database but it didn't create the row?) There is the log: INSERT INTO [dbo].Person VALUES (@p0) SELECT CONVERT(Int,SCOPE_IDENTITY()) AS [value] -- @p0: Input NChar (Size = 10; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [Jesus] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2005) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.4926 SELECT [t0].[Id], [t0].[Name] FROM [dbo].[Person] AS [t0] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2005) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.4926 I am really confused, All the blogs / books use this kind of snippet to insert an element to a database. Thank you for helping.

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  • Why can't I send SOAP requests to Ebay finding API with this php?

    - by Jay
    This is my code: <?php error_reporting(E_ALL); //new instance of soapClient pointing to Ebay finding api $client = new SoapClient("http://developer.ebay.com/webservices/finding/latest/FindingService.wsdl"); //attach required parameters to soap message header $header_arr = array(); $header_arr[] = new SoapHeader("X-EBAY-SOA-MESSAGE-PROTOCOL", "SOAP11"); $header_arr[] = new SoapHeader("X-EBAY-SOA-SERVICE-NAME", "FindingService"); $header_arr[] = new SoapHeader("X-EBAY-SOA-OPERATION-NAME", "findItemsByKeywords"); $header_arr[] = new SoapHeader("X-EBAY-SOA-SERVICE-VERSION", "1.0.0"); $header_arr[] = new SoapHeader("X-EBAY-SOA-GLOBAL-ID", "EBAY-GB"); $header_arr[] = new SoapHeader("X-EBAY-SOA-SECURITY-APPNAME", "REMOVED"); $header_arr[] = new SoapHeader("X-EBAY-SOA-REQUEST-DATA-FORMAT", "XML"); $header_arr[] = new SoapHeader("X-EBAY-SOA-MESSAGE-PROTOCOL", "XML"); $test = $client->__setSoapHeaders($header_arr); $client->__setLocation("http://svcs.ebay.com/services/search/FindingService/v1");//endpoint $FindItemsByKeywordsRequest = array( "keywords" => "potter" ); $result = $client->__soapCall("findItemsByKeywords", $FindItemsByKeywordsRequest); //print_r($client->__getFunctions()); //print_r($client->__getTypes()); //print_r($result); ? And this is the error I receive: Fatal error: Uncaught SoapFault exception: [axis2ns2:Server] Missing SOA operation name header in C:\xampplite\htdocs\OOP\newfile.php:25 Stack trace: #0 C:\xampplite\htdocs\OOP\newfile.php(25): SoapClient-__soapCall('findItemsByKeyw...', Array) #1 {main} thrown in C:\xampplite\htdocs\OOP\newfile.php on line 25 It doesnt make sense, I have already set the operation name in the header of the request... Does anyone know what is wrong here?

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  • WiX: Installing Service as LocalService

    - by Tom the Junglist
    Hey there, I am trying to get my application an installer via WiX 3.0. The exact code is: <File Id="ServiceComponentMain" Name="$(var.myProgramService.TargetFileName)" Source="$(var.myProgramService.TargetPath)" DiskId="1" Vital="yes"/> <!-- service will need to be installed under Local Service --> <ServiceInstall Id="MyProgramServiceInstaller" Type="ownProcess" Vital="yes" Name="MyProgramAddon" DisplayName="[removed]" Description="[removed]" Start="auto" Account="LocalService" ErrorControl="ignore" Interactive="no"/> <ServiceControl Id="StartDDService" Name="MyProgramServiceInstaller" Start="install" Wait="no" /> <ServiceControl Id="StopDDService" Name="MyProgramServiceInstaller" Stop="both" Wait="yes" Remove="uninstall" /> Thing is, for some reason LocalService fails on the "Installing services" step, and if I change it to "LocalSystem" then the installer times out while trying to start the service. The service starts fine manually and at system startup, and for all intents and purposes works great. I've heard there are issues getting services to work right under LocalService, but Google isnt really helping as everyone's responses have been "got it to work kthx". Just looking to get this service set up and started during installation, that's all. Any help? Thanks!

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  • How do I test OpenCL on GPU when logged in remotely on Mac?

    - by Christopher Bruns
    My OpenCL program can find the GPU device when I am logged in at the console, but not when I am logged in remotely with ssh. Further, if I run the program as root in the ssh session, the program can find the GPU. The computer is a Snow Leopard Mac with a GeForce 9400 GPU. If I run the program (see below) from the console or as root, the output is as follows (notice the "GeForce 9400" line): 2 devices found Device #0 name = GeForce 9400 Device #1 name = Intel(R) Core(TM)2 Duo CPU P8700 @ 2.53GHz but if it is just me, over ssh, there is no GeForce 9400 entry: 1 devices found Device #0 name = Intel(R) Core(TM)2 Duo CPU P8700 @ 2.53GHz I would like to test my code on the GPU without having to be root. Is that possible? Simplified GPU finding program below: #include <stdio.h> #include <OpenCL/opencl.h> int main(int argc, char** argv) { char dname[500]; size_t namesize; cl_device_id devices[10]; cl_uint num_devices; int d; clGetDeviceIDs(0, CL_DEVICE_TYPE_ALL, 10, devices, &num_devices); printf("%d devices found\n", num_devices); for (d = 0; d < num_devices; ++d) { clGetDeviceInfo(devices[d], CL_DEVICE_NAME, 500, dname, &namesize); printf("Device #%d name = %s\n", d, dname); } return 0; } EDIT: I found essentially the same question being asked on nvidia's forums. Unfortunately, the only answer was of the form "this is the wrong forum".

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  • Manditory read-only fields in django

    - by jamida
    I'm writing a test "grade book" application. The models.py file is shown below. class Student(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=50) parent = models.CharField(max_length=50) def __unicode__(self): return self.name class Grade(models.Model): studentId = models.ForeignKey(Student) finalGrade = models.CharField(max_length=3) I'd like to be able to change the final grade for several students in a modelformset but for now I'm just trying one student at a time. I'm also trying to create a form for it that shows the student name as a field that can not be changed, the only thing that can be changed here is the finalGrade. So I used this trick to make the studentId read-only. class GradeROForm(ModelForm): studentId = forms.ModelChoiceField(queryset=Student.objects.all()) def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): super(GradeROForm,self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) instance = getattr(self, 'instance', None) if instance and instance.id: self.fields['studentId'].widget.attrs['disabled']='disabled' def clean_studentId(self): instance = getattr(self,'instance',None) if instance: return instance.studentId else: return self.cleaned_data.get('studentId',None) class Meta: model=Grade And here is my view: def modifyGrade(request,student): student = Student.objects.get(name=student) mygrade = Grade.objects.get(studentId=student) if request.method == "POST": myform = GradeROForm(data=request.POST, instance=mygrade) if myform.is_valid(): grade = myform.save() info = "successfully updated %s" % grade.studentId else: myform=GradeROForm(instance=mygrade) return render_to_response('grades/modifyGrade.html',locals()) This displays the form like I expect, but when I hit "submit" I get a form validation error for the student field telling me this field is required. I'm guessing that, since the field is "disabled", the value is not being reported in the POST and for reasons unknown to me the instance isn't being used in its place. I'm a new Django/Python programmer, but quite experienced in other languages. I can't believe I've stumbled upon such a difficult to solve problem in my first significant django app. I figure I must be missing something. Any ideas?

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  • Convert text files to excel files using python

    - by Rahim Jaafar
    I am working on INFORMIX 4GL programs. That programs produce output text files.This is an example of the output: Lot No|Purchaser name|Billing|Payment|Deposit|Balance| J1006|JAUHARI BIN HAMIDI|5285.05|4923.25|0.00|361.80| J1007|LEE, CHIA-JUI AKA LEE, ANDREW J. R.|5366.15|5313.70|0.00|52.45| J1008|NAZRIN ANEEZA BINTI NAZARUDDIN|5669.55|5365.30|0.00|304.25| J1009|YAZID LUTFI BIN AHMAD LUTFI|3180.05|3022.30|0.00|157.75| This text files can manually convert to excel files.But, I wanna ask, is there any script that I can use to convert .txt files to .xls files ? Hi all,now I'm already can convert text files to excell file by python using script that was given from user named Rami Helmy.A big thanks for him.But now,That script will produce more than one excell files depends on the number of '|' from the text files.Beside that,That script also can only convert one text files.I a going to convert all text files without state the name of text files.Therefore,I am looking such a way on how to this script going to: output only one excell file convert all .txt files from the directory that was given from user. output excell's file name are automaticly copied from the file name of text files. I am new in python,hopefully someone can help me to solve my problems.Thank You.. done all the task,but there was something that I'm confused.. that output excell files contains an "square" symbol like this: then, how can I ensure that there is no square symbol like that after I convert from text files to excell? thank you...

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  • How to map IDictionary<string, object> in Fluent NHibernate?

    - by user298221
    I am looking to persist user preferences into a collection of name value pairs, where the value may be an int, bool, or string. There are a few ways to skin this cat, but the most convenient method I can think of is something like this: public class User { public virtual IDictionary<string, object> Preferences { get; set; } } with its usage as: user.Preferences["preference1"] = "some value"; user.Preferences["preference2"] = 10; user.Preferences["preference3"] = true; var pref = (int)user.Preferences["preference2"]; I'm not sure how to map this in Fluent NHibernate, though I do think it is possible. Generally, you would map a simpler Dictionary<string, string> as: HasMany(x => x.Preferences) .Table("Preferences") .AsMap("preferenceName") .Element("preferenceValue"); But with a type of 'object', NHibernate doesn't know how to deal with it. I imagine a custom UserType could be created that breaks an 'object' down to a string representing its Type and a string representing the value. We would have a table that looks kind of like this: Table Preferences userId (int) preferenceName (varchar) preferenceValue (varchar) preferenceValueType (varchar) and the hibernate mapping would like this: <map name="Preferences" table="Preferences"> <key column="userId"></key> <index column="preferenceName" type="String" /> <element type="ObjectAsStringUserType, Assembly"> <column name="preferenceValue" /> <column name="preferenceValueType"/> </element> </map> I'm not sure how you would map this in Fluent NHibernate. Maybe there's a better way to do this, or maybe I should just suck it up and use IDictionary<string, string>. Any ideas?

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  • emacs tramp performance

    - by Oleg Pavliv
    Is there a way to improve emacs tramp performance? For me it's faster to open an external ftp client (filezilla), transfer files to the local disk and open them in an external editor (notepad) than open them with emacs. I use emacs23.1 under windows xp. I tried different tramp-default-method (telnet, pscp, ftp), all of them have the same performance. Profiling results with elp-instrument-package are the following (I opened 3 remote files of 1.5 MB each one) tramp-file-name-handler 1461 350.41599999 0.2398466803 tramp-sh-file-name-handler 1461 350.02699999 0.2395804243 tramp-send-command 227 179.63400000 0.7913392070 tramp-send-command-and-check 205 177.77600000 0.8672000000 tramp-wait-for-regexp 227 176.47800000 0.7774361233 tramp-wait-for-output 226 176.40000000 0.7805309734 tramp-barf-unless-okay 18 133.46699999 7.4148333333 tramp-handle-insert-file-contents 3 132.046 44.015333333 tramp-handle-file-local-copy 3 131.281 43.760333333 tramp-accept-process-output 2375 112.95100000 0.0475583157 So, actual file transfer takes 132 sec, about 1/3 of total time. Why does it spend so much time in tramp-sh-file-name-handler? I tried to advice a function tramp-sh-file-name-handler to store and return cached results but it does not work, probably this function has some side effects. Any ideas how to improve tramp performance? (I use emacs 23.1 under WindowsXP)

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  • jQuery - dynamic variables?

    - by user331884
    Newbie question. Given the following html. <div id="mycontainer1" class="container"> <input type="text" class="name"/> <input type="text" class="age"/> </div> <div id="mycontainer2" class="container"> <input type="text" class="name"/> <input type="text" class="age"/> <input type="text" class="address"/> </div> I'm trying to create a function where I can pass an element id and an array that contains the classes of the input values I want to get. So for example, var inputClasses = ['name','age']; getInputValue('#myContainer1', inputClasses); function getInputValue(elem, arr) { var temp = {}; $(elem).each(function() { // need a way to map items in array to variables // but how do I do this dynamically? var nameValue = $(this).find('.name').val(); var ageValue = $(this).find('.age').val(); });

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  • Post a form from asp to asp.Net

    - by Atomiton
    I have a classic asp application. I want to post a contest form from that page to an Asp.Net form. The reason is that I want to use a lot of logic i have built into an Asp.Net page for validation before entering into the database and I don't know asp very well. Not to mention asp.Net being more secure. What's the best way to accomplish this goal? My thoughts are as follows: My asp Page: <html> <body> <form action="/Contests/entry.aspx" method="post"> Name: <input type="text" name="fname" size="20" /> Last Name: <input type="text" name="lname" size="20" /> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> </body> </html> aspx page is running in a Virtual Directory and would handle anything posted to it. Is this possible, or does aspx prevent this kind of thing? I ( preferably ) don't want to create the form in aspx as my colleague wants to have control of the page and build the html himself and I don't want the hassle of constantly changing it. Are there caveats I need to consider? What roadblocks will I run into? How do I access the Posted Form Values? Request.Form?

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  • Android HTTPClient not working inspite of giving permissions in manifest file.

    - by primal
    Hi, I was trying http-cleint tutorials from svn.apache.org. While running the application I am getting the following error in console. [2010-04-30 09:26:36 - HalloAndroid] ActivityManager: java.lang.SecurityException: Permission Denial: starting Intent { act=android.intent.action.MAIN cat=[android.intent.category.LAUNCHER] flg=0x10000000 cmp=com.org.example/.HalloAndroid } from null (pid=-1, uid=-1) requires android.permission.INTERNET I have added android.permission.INTERNET in AndroidManifest.xml. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <manifest xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" package="com.org.example" android:versionCode="1" android:versionName="1.0"> <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/app_name"> <activity android:name=".HalloAndroid" android:label="@string/app_name" android:permission="android.permission.INTERNET"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> </application> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET"></uses-permission> </manifest> The java code in HalloAndroid.java is as follows HttpClient httpclient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpGet httpget2 = new HttpGet("http://google.com/"); HttpResponse response2 = null; try { response2 = httpclient.execute(httpget2); } catch (ClientProtocolException e1) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e1.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e1) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e1.printStackTrace(); } HttpEntity entity = response2.getEntity(); if (entity != null) { long len = entity.getContentLength(); if (len != -1 && len < 2048) { try { Log.d(TAG, EntityUtils.toString(entity)); } catch (ParseException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } else { // Stream content out } Any help is much appreciated.

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  • Tracking Down a Stack Overflow in My Linq Query

    - by Lazarus
    I've written the following Linq query: IQueryable<ISOCountry> entries = (from e in competitorRepository.Competitors join c in countries on e.countryID equals c.isoCountryCode where !e.Deleted orderby c.isoCountryCode select new ISOCountry() { isoCountryCode = e.countryID, Name = c.Name }).Distinct(); The objective is to retrieve a list of the countries represented by the competitors found in the system. 'countries' is an array of ISOCountry objects explicitly created and returned as an IQueryable (ISOCountry is an object of just two strings, isoCountryCode and Name). Competitors is an IQueryable which is bound to a database table through Linq2SQL though I created the objects from scratch and used the Linq data mapping decorators. For some reason this query causes a stack overflow when the system tries to execute it. I've no idea why, I've tried trimming the Distinct, returning an anonymous type of the two strings, using 'select c', all result in the overflow. The e.CountryID value is populated from a dropdown that was in itself populated from the IQueryable so I know the values are appropriate but even if not I wouldn't expect a stack overflow. Can anyone explain why the overflow is occurring or give good speculation as to why it might be happening? EDIT As requested, code for ISOCountry: public class ISOCountry { public string isoCountryCode { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } }

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  • How can I tell the Data Annotations validator to also validate complex child properties?

    - by GWB
    Can I automatically validate complex child objects when validating a parent object and include the results in the populated ICollection<ValidationResult>? If I run the following code: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { public class Person { [Required] public string Name { get; set; } public Address Address { get; set; } } public class Address { [Required] public string Street { get; set; } [Required] public string City { get; set; } [Required] public string State { get; set; } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Person person = new Person { Name = null, Address = new Address { Street = "123 Any St", City = "New York", State = null } }; var validationContext = new ValidationContext(person, null, null); var validationResults = new List<ValidationResult>(); var isValid = Validator.TryValidateObject(person, validationContext, validationResults); Console.WriteLine(isValid); validationResults.ForEach(r => Console.WriteLine(r.ErrorMessage)); Console.ReadKey(true); } } } I get the following output: False The Name field is required. But I was expecting something similar to: False The Name field is required. The State field is required.

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  • IIS error hosting WCF Data Service on shared web host

    - by jkohlhepp
    My client has a website hosted on a shared web server. I don't have access to IIS. I am trying to deploy a WCF Data Service onto his site. I am getting this error: IIS specified authentication schemes 'IntegratedWindowsAuthentication, Anonymous', but the binding only supports specification of exactly one authentication scheme. Valid authentication schemes are Digest, Negotiate, NTLM, Basic, or Anonymous. Change the IIS settings so that only a single authentication scheme is used. I have searched SO and other sites quite a bit but can't seem to find someone with my exact situation. I cannot change the IIS settings because this is a third party's server and it is a shared web server. So my only option is to change things in code or in the service config. My service config looks like this: <system.serviceModel xdt:Transform="Insert"> <serviceHostingEnvironment> <baseAddressPrefixFilters> <add prefix="http://www.somewebsite.com"/> </baseAddressPrefixFilters> </serviceHostingEnvironment> <bindings> <webHttpBinding> <binding name="{Binding Name}" > <security mode="None" /> </binding> </webHttpBinding> </bindings> <services> <service name="{Namespace to Service}"> <endpoint address="" binding="webHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="{Binding Name}" contract="System.Data.Services.IRequestHandler"> </endpoint> </service> </services> </system.serviceModel> As you can see I tried to set the security mode to "None" but that didn't seem to help. What should I change to resolve this error?

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  • OCS presence in SharePoint AJAX-based web part

    - by Maksym Ozerov
    I'm currently implementing AJAX-based web part which displays search result. This search result has user names and opposite to each name I'm rendering the OCS presence indicator. This indicator works fine in IE6 but I can't get it to work in IE7/8. Basically the problem in IE7/8 is that OCS is rendered but when you mouse over it nothing is shown. If you try to scroll page down then mouse over the OCS icon you will see the OCS actions menu in the bottom of the page instead of seeing it on the opposite to the user name. My AJAX-based web part uses jQuery post method to make a request to the server and receives json which is then rendered to the div. My HTML for the user name looks like this: <nobr> <span> <a target='_blank' href='/ViewExpert.aspx?uid=4'>Some Expert</a> <img height='1' width='3' border='0' alt='' src='/_layouts/images/blank.gif'><a class='ms-imnlink' onclick='IMNImageOnClick();return false;' href='javascript:'> <img height='12' width='12' border='0' id='3' ShowOfflinePawn='1' type='smtp' sip='[email protected]' src='/_layouts/images/blank.gif' valign='middle' name='imnmark' alt='No presence information' title=''> </a> </span> </nobr> After the HTML above is rendered on the page I call the following two lines of code: //have to reset this value, otherwise ProcessImn() fails after next AJAX request imnCount = 0; ProcessImn(); Any ideas why it doesn't work in IE7/8?

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  • Does a silverlight video player always need source address in URL format?

    - by Manish
    I have seen on many sites the silverlight video player. I noticed that all of them took a URL as the source of the video file. Can a silverlight player play a video file kept locally? I mean a simple HTML file kept in a folder with the xap (say VideoPlayer.xap) and the video (say ABC.avi) file. The html file would contain an object tag. For example: <object height="240" width="500" type="application/x-silverlight-2" data="data:application/x-silverlight,"> <param value="VideoPlayer.xap" name="source"> <param value="onSilverlightError" name="onerror"> <param value="white" name="background"> <param value="cc=true,markers=true,markerpath=markers_movie21.xml,m=ABC.avi" name="initParams"> <a style="text-decoration: none;" href="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkID=115261"> <img style="border-style: none;" alt="Get Microsoft Silverlight" src="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=108181"> </a> </object>

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  • Spring-hibernate mapping problem

    - by James
    I have a spring-hibernate application which is failing to map an object properly: basically I have 2 domain objects, a Post and a User. The semantics are that every Post has 1 corresponding User. The Post domain object looks roughly as follows: class Post { private int pId; private String attribute; ... private User user; //getters and setters here } As you can see, Post contains a reference to User. When I load a Post object, I want to corresponding User object to be loaded (lazily - only when its needed). My mapping looks as follows: <class name="com...Post" table="post"> <id name="pId" column="PostId" /> <property name="attribute" column="Attribute" type="java.lang.String" /> <one-to-one name="User" fetch="join" class="com...User"></one-to-one> </class> And of course I have a basic mapping for User set up. As far as my table schema is concerned, I have a table called post with a foreign UserId which links to the user table. I thought this setup should work, BUT when I load a page that forces the lazy loading of the User object, I notice the following Hiberate query being generated: Select ... from post this_ left outer join user user2_ on this.PostId=user2_.UserId ... Obviously this is wrong: it should be joining UserId from post with UserId from user, but instead its incorrectly joining PostId from post (its primary key) with UserId from user. Any ideas? Thanks!

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  • Select the Initial Text in a Silverlight TextBox

    - by Dan Auclair
    I am trying to figure out the best way to select all the text in a TextBox the first time the control is loaded. I am using the MVVM pattern, so I am using two-way binding for the Text property of the TextBox to a string on my ViewModel. I am using this TextBox to "rename" something that already has a name, so I would like to select the old name when the control loads so it can easily be deleted and renamed. The initial text (old name) is populated by setting it in my ViewModel, and it is then reflected in the TextBox after the data binding completes. What I would really like to do is something like this: <TextBox x:Name="NameTextBox" Text="{Binding NameViewModelProperty, Mode=TwoWay}" SelectedText="{Binding NameViewModelProperty, Mode=OneTime}" /> Basically just use the entire text as the SelectedText with OneTime binding. However, that does not work since the SelectedText is not a DependencyProperty. I am not completely against adding the selection code in the code-behind of my view, but my problem in that case is determining when the initial text binding has completed. The TextBox always starts empty, so it can not be done in the constructor. The TextChanged event only seems to fire when a user enters new text, not when the text is changed from the initial binding of the ViewModel. Any ideas are greatly appreciated!

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  • jquery - radio button not checked on page load, but checked on same function call later

    - by Bill Zimmerman
    Hi, I'm having a strange problem with jquery. When my page loads, I dynamically create some simple radio buttons in a special i've created. However, the default radio button is not checked. It is checked however when the change() event is triggered later, but is never checked the first time. Can someone help? I am certain that the change() event is triggered on the page load, because the rest of the HTML is added dynamically and I can see it. The basic idea is when the page loads, I bind an event handler, and then immediately call it to make sure that the default options are loaded. $(document).ready(function() { $(".options select[name=App]").change(onAppChange); //trigger the change function in the dropdown to populate default options $(".options select[name=App]").change() } Here is the simple onAppChange() function: function onAppChange() { var val = $(this).val(); var app_options = $(this).closest(".options").find(".app_options"); //clear the app_options app_options.empty(); var newOptions = ''; switch(val) { case 'testapp': newOptions='\ <fieldset>\ <legend>TestApp</legend>\ Option 1:\ <label>\ <input type="radio" name="option1" value="value1" checked>\ Value1\ </label>\ \ <label>\ <input type="radio" name="option1" value="value2">\ value2\ </label>\ \ </fieldset>'; break; case 'todo': //for testing newOptions='FOO'; break; } app_options.append(newOptions); } Yes, I am aware that I could use javascript to automatically select a radio button again, but I asked this question because I wanted to understand why this is happening. When using and , there doesn't seem to be any problem. Only with radio buttons. Why does the behavior differ when the same change() event is triggered? What is going on behind the scenes?

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  • Different users get the same value in .ASPXANONYMOUS

    - by Malcolm Frexner
    My site allows anonymous users. I saw that under heavy load user get sometimes profile values from other users. This happens for anonymous users. I logged the access to profile data: /// <summary> /// /// </summary> /// <param name="controller"></param> /// <returns></returns> public static string ProfileID(this Controller controller ) { if (ApplicationConfiguration.LogProfileAccess) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); (from header in controller.Request.Headers.ToPairs() select string.Concat(header.Key, ":", header.Value, ";")).ToList().ForEach(x => sb.Append(x)); string log = string.Format("ip:{0} url:{1} IsAuthenticated:{2} Name:{3} AnonId:{4} header:{5}", controller.Request.UserHostAddress, controller.Request.Url.ToString(), controller.Request.IsAuthenticated, controller.User.Identity.Name, controller.Request.AnonymousID, sb); _log.Debug(log); } return controller.Request.IsAuthenticated ? controller.User.Identity.Name : controller.Request.AnonymousID; } I can see in the log that user realy get the same cookievalue for .ASPXANONYMOUS even if they have different IP. Just to be safe I removed dependency injection for the FormsAuthentication. I dont use OutputCaching. My web.config has this setting for authentication: <anonymousIdentification enabled="true" cookieless="UseCookies" cookieName=".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookieTimeout="30" cookiePath="/" cookieRequireSSL="false" cookieSlidingExpiration="true" /> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/de/Account/Login" /> </authentication> Does anybody have an idea what else I could log or what I should have a look at?

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  • SQL Joining on a one-to-many relationship

    - by Harley
    Ok, here was my original question; Table one contains ID|Name 1 Mary 2 John Table two contains ID|Color 1 Red 1 Blue 2 Blue 2 Green 2 Black I want to end up with is ID|Name|Red|Blue|Green|Black 1 Mary Y Y 2 John Y Y Y It seems that because there are 11 unique values for color and 1000's upon 1000's of records in table one that there is no 'good' way to do this. So, two other questions. Is there an efficient way to query to get this result? I can then create a crosstab in my application to get the desired result. ID|Name|Color 1 Mary Red 1 Mary Blue 2 John Blue 2 John Green 2 John Black If I wanted to limit the number of records returned how could I do a query to do something like this? Where ((color='blue') AND (color<>'red' OR color<>'green')) So using the above example I would then get back ID|Name|Color 1 Mary Blue 2 John Blue 2 John Black I connect to Visual FoxPro tables via ADODB to use SQL. Thanks!

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  • How to retain XML string as a string field during XML deserialization

    - by detale
    I got an XML input string and want to deserialize it to an object which partially retain the raw XML. <SetProfile> <sessionId>A81D83BC-09A0-4E32-B440-0000033D7AAD</sessionId> <profileDataXml> <ArrayOfProfileItem> <ProfileItem> <Name>Pulse</Name> <Value>80</Value> </ProfileItem> <ProfileItem> <Name>BloodPresure</Name> <Value>120</Value> </ProfileItem> </ArrayOfProfileItem> </profileDataXml> </SetProfile> The class definition: public class SetProfile { public Guid sessionId; public string profileDataXml; } I hope the deserialization syntax looks like string inputXML = "..."; // the above XML XmlSerializer xs = new XmlSerializer(typeof(SetProfile)); using (TextReader reader = new StringReader(inputXML)) { SetProfile obj = (SetProfile)xs.Deserialize(reader); // use obj .... } but XMLSerializer will throw an exception and won't output < profileDataXml 's descendants to "profileDataXml" field in raw XML string. Is there any way to implement the deserialization like that?

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  • Draw a column graph with no space between columns

    - by Andrew Shepherd
    I am using the WPF toolkit, and am trying to render a graph that looks like a histogram. In particular, I want each column to be right up against each other column. There should be no gaps between columns. There are a number of components that you apply when creating a column graph. (See example XAML below). Does anybody know if there is a property you can set on one of the elements which refers to the width of the white space between columns? <charting:Chart Height="600" Width="Auto" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" Name="MyChart" Title="Column Graph" LegendTitle="Legend"> <charting:ColumnSeries Name="theColumnSeries" Title="Series A" IndependentValueBinding="{Binding Path=Name}" DependentValueBinding="{Binding Path=Population}" Margin="0" > </charting:ColumnSeries> <charting:Chart.Axes> <charting:LinearAxis Orientation="Y" Minimum="200000" Maximum="2500000" ShowGridLines="True" /> <charting:CategoryAxis Name="chartCategoryAxis" /> </charting:Chart.Axes> </charting:Chart>

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  • N-Tier Architecture - Structure with multiple projects in VB.NET

    - by focus.nz
    I would like some advice on the best approach to use in the following situation... I will have a Windows Application and a Web Application (presentation layers), these will both access a common business layer. The business layer will look at a configuration file to find the name of the dll (data layer) which it will create a reference to at runtime (is this the best approach?). The reason for creating the reference at runtime to the data access layer is because the application will interface with a different 3rd party accounting system depending on what the client is using. So I would have a separate data access layer to support each accounting system. These could be separate setup projects, each client would use one or the other, they wouldn't need to switch between the two. Projects: MyCompany.Common.dll - Contains interfaces, all other projects have a reference to this one. MyCompany.Windows.dll - Windows Forms Project, references MyCompany.Business.dll MyCompany.Web.dll - Website project, references MyCompany.Business.dll MyCompany.Busniess.dll - Business Layer, references MyCompany.Data.* (at runtime) MyCompany.Data.AccountingSys1.dll - Data layer for accounting system 1 MyCompany.Data.AccountingSys2.dll - Data layer for accounting system 2 The project MyCompany.Common.dll would contain all the interfaces, each other project would have a reference to this one. Public Interface ICompany ReadOnly Property Id() as Integer Property Name() as String Sub Save() End Interface Public Interface ICompanyFactory Function CreateCompany() as ICompany End Interface The project MyCompany.Data.AccountingSys1.dll and MyCompany.Data.AccountingSys2.dll would contain the classes like the following: Public Class Company Implements ICompany Protected _id As Integer Protected _name As String Public ReadOnly Property Id As Integer Implements MyCompany.Common.ICompany.Id Get Return _id End Get End Property Public Property Name As String Implements MyCompany.Common.ICompany.Name Get Return _name End Get Set(ByVal value as String) _name = value End Set End Property Public Sub Save() Implements MyCompany.Common.ICompany.Save Throw New NotImplementedException() End Sub End Class Public Class CompanyFactory Implements ICompanyFactory Public Function CreateCompany() As ICompany Implements MyCompany.Common.ICompanyFactory.CreateCompany Return New Company() End Function End Class The project MyCompany.Business.dll would provide the business rules and retrieve data form the data layer: Public Class Companies Public Shared Function CreateCompany() As ICompany Dim factory as New MyCompany.Data.CompanyFactory Return factory.CreateCompany() End Function End Class Any opinions/suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

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  • WebFaultException http status code is not passed

    - by Mike Bantegui
    I have the following service method: <OperationContract()> <WebGet([ResponseFormat]:=WebMessageFormat.Json)> Function ShouldThrowException() As Boolean It's implementation does only one thing, which is to throw a WebFaultException. Public Function ShouldThrowException() As Boolean Implements IRestService.ShouldThrowException Throw New WebFaultException(Of String)("This should fail", HttpStatusCode.BadRequest) End Function My web.config reads as: <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="WebEndpointBehavior"> <webHttp /> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> .. snip .. <webHttpBinding> <binding name="WebBinding" crossDomainScriptAccessEnabled="true"> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </webHttpBinding> .. snip .. <service name="RestService"> <endpoint address="" binding="webHttpBinding" behaviorConfiguration="WebEndpointBehavior" bindingConfiguration="WebBinding" contract="IRestService" name="RestService"> </endpoint> </service> When I call ShouldThrowException via my browser, I only get the following: "This should fail" I was expecting to get a 400 Bad Request error on the page. If I inspect the page using FireBug, I see that the HTTP status code that was returned is a 200 OK. According to this blog post, I should be seeing this exception. Except I'm not. What am I doing wrong here?

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