Search Results

Search found 14745 results on 590 pages for 'setting'.

Page 502/590 | < Previous Page | 498 499 500 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509  | Next Page >

  • vs2008, opencv2.1,compile error in cxcore.hpp

    - by Long Gu
    Hi, gurus: I installed opencv2.1, made a new project (proj_A) using vs2008, used it for my computer vision tasks, it works fine. I copied an old project (proj_B, also made using vs2008) from other PC, compile it with ".h" and ".lib" files copied from opencv1.0 (which I did not install onto my PC), it compiles fine. I re-directed ".h" and ".lib" files in proj_B to opencv2.1 folders instead, compiled the proj_B, and then I got these errors from cxcore.hpp: class CV_EXPORTS RNG { public: enum { A=4164903690U, UNIFORM=0, NORMAL=1 }; // errors here, line 936 errors are: 5c:\opencv2.1\include\opencv\cxcore.hpp(936) : error C2143: syntax error : missing '}' before 'constant' 5c:\opencv2.1\include\opencv\cxcore.hpp(936) : error C2059: syntax error : 'constant' 5c:\opencv2.1\include\opencv\cxcore.hpp(936) : error C2143: syntax error : missing ';' before '}' 5c:\opencv2.1\include\opencv\cxcore.hpp(936) : error C2238: unexpected token(s) preceding ';' (400+ similar errors, but I believe the answer should be the same, so only list 1 set here) I compared setting for proj_A and proj_B, made them identical, and find no improvement. proj_A works well, proj_B refuse to compile. May I know what's wrong? Urgent, need to get it solved ASAP! Thanks a lot!

    Read the article

  • Is there really such a thing as "being good at math"?

    - by thezhaba
    Aside from gifted individuals able to perform complex calculations in their head, I'm wondering if proficiency in mathematics, namely calculus and algebra, has really got to do with one's natural inclination towards sciences, if you can put it that way. A number of students in my calculus course pick up material in seemingly no time whereas I, personally, have to spend time thinking about and understanding most concepts. Even then, if a question that requires a bit more 'imagination' comes up I don't always recognize the concepts behind it, as is the case with calculus proofs, for instance. Nevertheless, I refuse to believe that I'm simply not made for it. I do very well in programming and software engineering courses where a lot of students struggle. At first I could not grasp what they found to be so difficult, but eventually I realized that having previous programming experience is a great asset -- once I've seen and made practical use of the programming concepts learning about them in depth in an academic setting became much easier as I have then already seen their use "in the wild". I suppose I'm hoping that something similar happens with mathematics -- perhaps once the practical idea behind a concept (which authors of textbooks sure do a great job of concealing..) is evident, understanding the seemingly dry and symbolic ideas and proofs would be more obvious? I'm really not sure. All I'm sure of is I'd like to get better at calculus, but I don't yet understand why some of us pick it up easily while others have to spend considerable amounts of time on it and still not have complete understanding if an unusual problem is given.

    Read the article

  • Access VBA question: Change the query being referenced by a function, depending on context

    - by Tara Amatista
    I have a custom function in Access2007 that hinges on grabbing data out of a specific query. It opens Outlook, creates a new email and populates the fields with specific addresses and data taken from the query ("DecisionEmail"). Now I want to make a different query ("RequestEmail") and have it populate the email with that data. So all I have to do is change this line: Set MailList = db.OpenRecordset("DecisionEmail") and that's where I get stumped. This is my desired result: If the user is on Form_Decision and clicks the button "Send email", "DecisionEmail" will get plugged into the function and that data will appear in the email. If the user on Form_SendRequest and clicks the button "Send email", "RequestEmail" will instead get plugged in. The reason that these are different queries is because they contain very different information that is smudged about in different ways. However, since it's just one little thing that needs to change in the function code, I don't think a brand new function is a good idea. My last resort would be to make a brand new function and use the Conditions field in the Macro interface to choose between them, but I have a feeling there's a more elegant solution possible. I have a vague notion of setting the query names as variables and using an If statement but I just don't have the mental vocabulary for thinking through this.

    Read the article

  • genStrAsCharArray optimisation benefits

    - by Rich
    Hi I am looking into the options available to me for optimising the performance of JBoss 5.1.0. One of the options I am looking at is setting genStrAsCharArray to true in <JBOSS_HOME>/server/<PROFILE>/deployers/jbossweb.deployer/web.xml. This affects the generation of .java code from .JSPs. The comment describes this flag as: Should text strings be generated as char arrays, to improve performance in some cases? I have a few questions about this. Is this the generation of Strings in the dynamic parts of the JSP page (ie each time the page is called) or is it the generation of Strings in the static parts (ie when the .java is built from the JSP)? "in some cases" - which cases are these? What are the situations where the performance is worse? Does this speed up the generation of the .java, the compilation of the .class or the execution of the .class? At a more technical level (and the answer to this will probably depend on the answer to part 1), why can the use of char arrays improve performance? Thanks in advance Rich

    Read the article

  • NoClassDefFoundError when trying to reference external jar files

    - by opike
    I have some 3rd party jar files that I want to reference in my tomcat web application. I added this line to catalina.properties: shared.loader=/home/ollie/dev/java/googleapi_samples/gdata/java/lib/*.jar but I'm still getting this error: org.apache.jasper.JasperException: javax.servlet.ServletException: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: com/google/gdata/util/ServiceException org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper.handleJspException(JspServletWrapper.java:491) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper.service(JspServletWrapper.java:401) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.serviceJspFile(JspServlet.java:313) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.service(JspServlet.java:260) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) I verified that the com.google.gdata.util.ServiceException is in the gdata-core-1.0.jar file which is in the directory: /home/ollie/dev/java/googleapi_samples/gdata/java/lib I did bounce tomcat after I modified catalina.properties. Update 1: I tried copying the gdata-core-1.0.jar file into /var/lib/tomcat6/webapp/examples/WEB-INF/lib as a test but that didn't fix the problem either. Update 2: It actually does work when I copy the jar file directly into the WEB-INF/lib directory. There was a permissions issue that I had to resolve. But it's still not working when I use the shared.loader setting. I reconfirmed that the path is correct.

    Read the article

  • send post data in jsf

    - by milostrivun
    I just cannot figure this out, it looks really simple but I'm relatively new at jsf. Here is the old stuff: Plain old html form tag like this: <form name="someForm" action="somewhere" method="post"> <input name="param1"/> <input name="param2" /> </form That is sending data by post to a location specified in the action attribute of the form. The new stuff: <h:form id="paymentForm"> <h:panelGroup> <h:inputText id="param1" value="#{facesView.param1}" ></h:inputText> <h:inputText id="param1" value="#{facesView.param2}" ></h:inputText> <h:panelGroup> <h:commandLink>Submit</h:commandLink> </h:panelGroup> </h:form> This other new stuff doesn't work. 1.How do I specify to this h:form where to go(like setting action in old html) because I need it to go to a totally new url. 2.how to pass params with POST? Any help is appreciated. Milos

    Read the article

  • asp.net MVC ActionMethod causing null exception on parameter

    - by David Liddle
    I am trying to add filter functionality that sends a GET request to the same page to filter records in my table. The problem I am having is that the textbox complains about null object reference when a parameter is not passed. For example, when the person first views the page the url is '/mycontroller/myaction/'. Then when they apply a filter and submit the form it should be something like 'mycontroller/myaction?name=...' Obviously the problem stems from when the name value has not been passed (null) it is still trying to be bound to the 'name' textbox. Any suggestions on what I should do regarding this problem? UPDATE I have tried setting the DefaultValue attribute but I am assuming this is only for route values and not query string values ActionResult MyAction([DefaultValue("")] string name) //Action - /mycontroler/myaction ActionResult MyAction(string name) { ...do stuff } //View <div id="filter"> <% Html.BeginForm("myaction", "mycontroller", FormMethod.Get); %> Name: <%= Html.TextBox("name") %> .... </div> <table>...my list of filtered data

    Read the article

  • Class Generics break completely seperate method

    - by TheLQ
    I found a strange problem when I used class Generics Today: Setting some broke a completely separate method. Here's a small example class that illustrates the problem. This code works just fine public class Sandbox { public interface ListenerManagerTest { public Set<Listener> getListeners(); } public void setListenerManager(ListenerManagerTest listenerManager) { for (Listener curListener : listenerManager.getListeners()) return; } } Now as soon as I use class Generics, the getListeners() method returns Set<Object> instead of Set<Listener> public class Sandbox { public interface ListenerManagerTest<E extends Object> { public Set<Listener> getListeners(); } public void setListenerManager(ListenerManagerTest listenerManager) { for (Listener curListener : listenerManager.getListeners()) //Expected Listener, not Object return; } } What would cause this error? The ##java channel on Freenode said it was because of compile time candy and that I was using a raw type. But how would an raw class type break all generics in the class? And how would of worked before?

    Read the article

  • Linking Apache to Tomcat with multiple domains.

    - by Royce Thigpen
    Okay, so I've been working for a while on this, and have been searching, but so far I have not found any answers that actually answer what I want to know. I'm a little bit at the end of my rope with this one, but I'm hoping I can figure this out sometime soon. So I have Apache 2 installed and serving up standard webpages, but I also have that linked to a Tomcat instance for one of my domains currently supported. However, I want to add another domain to the server via Apache that points to a separate code base from the one I already have. I have been coming at this from several different angles, and I have determined that I just don't know enough about setting up these servers to really do what I want to do. Little information on my server: Currently running a single Tomcat5.5 instance with Apache 2, using mod_jk to connect them together. I have a worker in workers.properties that points it's "host" field to "localhost" with the correct port my Tomcat instance, so that all works. In my Tomcat server.xml file, I have a host defined as "localhost" that points at my webapp that I am currently serving up, with that host set as the defaultHost as well. One thought I had was that I could add a new worker with a different host than "localhost" (i.e. host2) and then define a new host in my server.xml file called "host2" to match it, but after reading around some on the internet, It seems the "host" of the worker must point to a server, and not a hostname in the Tomcat instance, is this correct? Again, a simple rundown of what I want: Setup in apache/tomcat combo such that www.domain1.com points at "webapp1" and www.domain2.com points at "webapp2".

    Read the article

  • Compromising design & code quality to integrate with existing modules

    - by filip-fku
    Greetings! I inherited a C#.NET application I have been extending and improving for a while now. Overall it was obviously a rush-job (or whoever wrote it was seemingly less competent than myself). The app pulls some data from an embedded device & displays and manipulates it. At the core is a communications thread in the main application form which executes a 600+ lines of code method which calls functions all over the place, implementing a state machine - lots of if-state-then-do type code. Interaction with the device is done by setting the state/mode globally and letting the thread do it's thing. (This is just one example of the badness of the code - overall it is not very OO-like, it reminds of the style of embedded C code the device firmware is written in). My problem is that this piece of code is central to the application. The software, communications protocol or device firmware are not documented at all. Obviously to carry on with my work I have to interact with this code. What I would like some guidance on, is whether it is worth scrapping this code & trying to piece together something more reasonable from the information I can reverse engineer? I can't decide! The reason I don't want to refactor is because the code already works, and changing it will surely be a long, laborious and unpleasant task. On the flip side, not refactoring means I have to sometimes compromise the design of other modules so that I may call my code from this state machine! I've heard of "If it ain't broke don't fix it!", so I am wondering if it should apply when "it" is influencing the design of future code! Any advice would be appreciated! Thanks!

    Read the article

  • AutoMapper : Site wide usage of IValueFormatter for given types

    - by CRice
    It is my understanding I can configure AutoMapper in the following way and during mapping it should format all source model dates to the rules defined in the IValueFormatter and set the result to the mapped model. ForSourceType<DateTime>().AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>(); ForSourceType<DateTime?>().AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>(); I get no effect for my mapped class with this. It only works when I do the following: Mapper.CreateMap<Member, MemberForm>().ForMember(x => x.DateOfBirth, y => y.AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>()); I am mapping DateTime? Member.DateOfBirth to string MemberForm.DateOfBirth. The formatter basically creates a short date string from the date. Is there something I am missing when setting the default formatter for a given type? Thanks public class StandardDateFormatter : IValueFormatter { public string FormatValue(ResolutionContext context) { if (context.SourceValue == null) return null; if (!(context.SourceValue is DateTime)) return context.SourceValue.ToNullSafeString(); return ((DateTime)context.SourceValue).ToShortDateString(); } }

    Read the article

  • Is the C++ compiler optimizer allowed to break my destructor ability to be called multiple times?

    - by sharptooth
    We once had an interview with a very experienced C++ developer who couldn't answer the following question: is it necessary to call the base class destructor from the derived class destructor in C++? Obviously the answer is no, C++ will call the base class destructor automagically anyway. But what if we attempt to do the call? As I see it the result will depend on whether the base class destructor can be called twice without invoking erroneous behavior. For example in this case: class BaseSafe { public: ~BaseSafe() { } private: int data; }; class DerivedSafe { public: ~DerivedSafe() { BaseSafe::~BaseSafe(); } }; everything will be fine - the BaseSafe destructor can be called twice safely and the program will run allright. But in this case: class BaseUnsafe { public: BaseUnsafe() { buffer = new char[100]; } ~BaseUnsafe () { delete[] buffer; } private: char* buffer; }; class DerivedUnsafe { public: ~DerivedUnsafe () { BaseUnsafe::~BaseUnsafe(); } }; the explicic call will run fine, but then the implicit (automagic) call to the destructor will trigger double-delete and undefined behavior. Looks like it is easy to avoid the UB in the second case. Just set buffer to null pointer after delete[]. But will this help? I mean the destructor is expected to only be run once on a fully constructed object, so the optimizer could decide that setting buffer to null pointer makes no sense and eliminate that code exposing the program to double-delete. Is the compiler allowed to do that?

    Read the article

  • Nhibernate + Gridview + TargetInvocationException

    - by Scott
    For our grid views, we're setting the data sources as a list of results from an Nhibernate query. We're using lazy loading, so the objects are actually proxied... most of the time. In some instances the list will consist of types of Student and Composition_Aop_Proxy_jklasjdkl31231, which implements the same members as the Student class. We've still got the session open, so the lazy loading would resolve fine, if GridView didn't throw an error about the different types in the gridview. Our current workaround is to clone the object, which results in fetching all of the data that can be lazily loaded, even though most of it won't be accessed.. ever. This, however, converts the proxy into an actual object and the grid view is happy. The performance implications kind of scare me as we're getting closer to rolling the code out as is. I've tried evicting the object after a save, which should ensure that everything is a proxy, but this doesn't seem like a good idea either. Does anyone have any suggestions/workarounds?

    Read the article

  • Mocking non-virtual methods in C++ without editing production code?

    - by wk1989
    Hello, I am a fairly new software developer currently working adding unit tests to an existing C++ project that started years ago. Due to a non-technical reason, I'm not allowed to modify any existing code. The base class of all my modules has a bunch of methods for Setting/Getting data and communicating with other modules. Since I just want to unit testing each individual module, I want to be able to use canned values for all my inter-module communication methods. I.e. for a method Ping() which checks if another module is active, I want to have it return true or false based on what kind of test I'm doing. I've been looking into Google Test and Google Mock, and it does support mocking non-virtual methods. However the approach described (http://code.google.com/p/googlemock/wiki/CookBook#Mocking_Nonvirtual_Methods) requires me to "templatize" the original methods to take in either real or mock objects. I can't go and templatize my methods in the base class due to the requirement mentioned earlier, so I need some other way of mocking these virtual methods Basically, the methods I want to mock are in some base class, the modules I want to unit test and create mocks of are derived classes of that base class. There are intermediate modules in between my base Module class and the modules that I want to test. I would appreciate any advise! Thanks, JW EDIT: A more concrete examples My base class is lets say rootModule, the module I want to test is leafModule. There is an intermediate module which inherits from rootModule, leafModule inherits from this intermediate module. In my leafModule, I want to test the doStuff() method, which calls the non virtual GetStatus(moduleName) defined in the rootModule class. I need to somehow make GetStatus() to return a chosen canned value. Mocking is new to me, so is using mock objects even the right approach?

    Read the article

  • How can I add an additional site to my VPS server?

    - by user482594
    I have a VPS hosting service. First of all, I installed bind9 and everything that my main website works just fine. Now, I bought another domain and set its nameserver address&ip to my website ones. I added a configuration file of that site like '/etc/apache2/sites-available/www.example.com' and I did 'a2ensite www.example.com' to enable the website to apache2. After one, when I reloaded my server, I see '000default' and 'www.example.com' in my '/etc/apache2/sites-enabled/' directory. I have thought I am done with settings, but I still cannot connect to the domain example.com. I think I have read it somewhere that I have to set up 'zone' thing which I did when I was setting dns. For example, zone "example.com" IN { type master; file "example.zone"; allow-update { none; }; }; Is this correct? If so, what are the things that I need to do afteron?

    Read the article

  • Automatically restarting Erlang applications

    - by Nick
    I recently ran into a bug where an entire Erlang application died, yielding a log message that looked like this: =INFO REPORT==== 11-Jun-2010::11:07:25 === application: myapp exited: shutdown type: temporary I have no idea what triggered this shutdown, but the real problem I have is that it didn't restart itself. Instead, the now-empty Erlang VM just sat there doing nothing. Now, from the research I've done, it looks like there are other "start types" you can give an application: 'transient' and 'permanent'. If I start a Supervisor within an application, I can tell it to make a particular process transient or permanent, and it will automatically restart it for me. However, according to the documentation, if I make an application transient or permanent, it doesn't restart it when it dies, but rather it kills all the other applications as well. What I really want to do is somehow tell the Erlang VM that a particular application should always be running, and if it goes down, restart it. Is this possible to do? (I'm not talking about implementing a supervisor on top of my application, because then it's a catch 22: what if my supervisor process crashes? I'm looking for some sort of API or setting that I can use to have Erlang monitor and restart my application for me.) Thanks!

    Read the article

  • setup Qt and PyQt on mac osx so my app can also deployable on windows

    - by hk_programmer
    Hi, I've been coding with Python and C++ and now need to work on building a gui for data visualization purposes. I work on Mac Snow Leopard (intel), python 3.1 using gcc 4.2.1 (from Xcode 3.1) I wanted to first install Qt and then PyQt. And my goals are to be able to: - quickly prototype GUI and the accompanied logic that drives the GUI using PyQt and python - if I decided I need the speed, or if it's fairly easy to translate my GUI into C++ using the Qt tools, I have the options to translate my app into C++ - Be able to deploy my application onto Windows (both the python and c++ version of my app) Give the goals above, what are the correct steps I should take and what issues i should be aware of when setting up Qt and PyQt. Which other deployment tools do I need? From my readings so far, here's what I have: download the Qt source for mac and configure it with -platform macx-g++42 -arch x86_64 -no-framework (i've read somewhere that building as framework causes some trouble in deployment and/or debugging, can't find the article anymore) download latest SIP source and build download latest PyQt and build from source (any special options I should pay attention to?) For deployment, I've read that I would need to use py2exe/cx_freeze for windows, p2app for mac: http://arstechnica.com/open-source/guides/2009/03/how-to-deploying-pyqt-applications-on-windows-and-mac-os-x.ars but seems like what the article describe is deploying an app you build on windows on the windows platform and vice versa. How do you deploy to windows (is it even possible?) if you are writing your Qt app on a mac ? Really appreciate the help

    Read the article

  • MySQL 5.5.8 Gets Periodic Lag

    - by CYREX
    Am using MySQL 5.5.8 on an Ubuntu system and every X amount of time it creates a huge lag that lasts a couple of seconds. Then all goes back to normal until the next lag. The time period varies but it looks like it happen periodically. Am using InnoDB. It is like hiccups in the MySQL. What could be creating this sort of periodic problem. Do not have any cron jobs or process running every time the X period happens. The X period could be between 30 minutes to 2 hours. So for example it could happen every 30 minutes for the next 12 hours or it could happen every 2 hours for the next 8 hours. key_buffer_size = 256M max_allowed_packet = 1M table_cache = 1024 table_open_cache = 1024 sort_buffer_size = 2M read_buffer_size = 2M read_rnd_buffer_size = 4M myisam_sort_buffer_size = 32M thread_cache_size = 128 query_cache_size= 128M log-slow-queries = slow.log long_query_time = 5 log-queries-not-using-indexes # Try number of CPU's*2 for thread_concurrency thread_concurrency = 4 max_connections=512 #innodb_data_file_path = ibdata1:10M:autoextend #innodb_log_group_home_dir = /usr/local/mysql/data # You can set .._buffer_pool_size up to 50 - 80 % # of RAM but beware of setting memory usage too high innodb_buffer_pool_size = 1G #innodb_additional_mem_pool_size = 20M # Set .._log_file_size to 25 % of buffer pool size #innodb_log_file_size = 64M #innodb_log_buffer_size = 8M #innodb_flush_log_at_trx_commit = 0 #innodb_lock_wait_timeout = 50 [mysqldump] quick max_allowed_packet = 16M [myisamchk] key_buffer_size = 64M sort_buffer_size = 64M read_buffer = 2M write_buffer = 2M There are about 200+ tables divided in 3 databases. The most written too is in InnoDB. The other ones are more read. Several of the tables in the InnoDB have more than 2 million records. The other databases top at about 400 thousand records and do not change so often. The PC is a Core 2 Duo 8400 with 4GB RAM, 32Bit Ubuntu.

    Read the article

  • Can no longer debug ActiveX controls in Visual Studio 2008

    - by Phenglei Kai
    For a long time I would throw up a DebugBreak() or ASSERT(false) in the startup code of my ActiveX control, load up IE, go to a localhost page hosting my control, wait for the dialog to show up, then debug my application. I could also launch it under the debugger by setting IE as the container. I tried again for the first time in 2 months and now this no longer works. If I use the ASSERT(false) method, when I get the Visual C++ Debug dialog and click "retry", IE simply closes without any debugger activity. When I try launching from VS2008 and hoping the DebugBreak() will kick in after I load the page, VS2008 does break, but it says either the "RPC Server is Unavailable" or the "RPC Client Call failed." I am never allowed to have my application in the debugger and it doesn't show up in the modules list of VS. The stack trace in VS2008 only contains Microsoft DLLs and modules and not a hint of my code. I assume it's something I've picked up through Windows Update that broke this. Has anyone else ever seen this issue and know how to make it go away? As it stands, I'm now completely unable to debug my ActiveX control.

    Read the article

  • UIImagePickerController crashes on rapid scrolling, slower than photos app

    - by vvanhee
    Most of the time, my image picker works perfectly (iOS 4.2.1). However, if I scroll very rapidly up and down about 4-6 times through my camera roll of about 300 photos, I get a crash. This never happens with the "photos" app on the same iPhone 3Gs. Also, I'm noticing that the stock "photos" app scrolls much more smoothly than my image picker. Has anyone else noticed this behavior? I'd be interested if others could attempt this in their own apps and see if they crash. I don't think it's related to other objects hogging memory on my iPhone because it's a simple app, and this happens right after I start the app. It also doesn't seem to be related to messages sent to other released objects or overreleasing of other objects in viewdidunload, based on my crash logs and the fact that the simulator responds well to simulated memory warnings. I think it might be a bug in the internal implementation of the UIImagePickerController... This is how I start the picker. I've done this multiple ways (including setting a retain property for the UIImagePickerController in my header and releasing on dealloc). This seems to be the best way (crashes least): UIImagePickerController *picker = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; picker.delegate = self; picker.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeSavedPhotosAlbum; picker.allowsEditing = YES; [self presentModalViewController:picker animated:YES]; [picker release]; This is the crashed thread (I get various exception types): Exception Type: SIGSEGV Exception Codes: SEGV_ACCERR at 0xfffffffff4faafa4 Crashed Thread: 8 ... Thread 8 Crashed: 0 CoreFoundation 0x000494ea -[__NSArrayM replaceObjectAtIndex:withObject:] + 98 1 PhotoLibrary 0x00008e0f -[PLImageTable _segmentAtIndex:] + 527 2 PhotoLibrary 0x00008a21 -[PLImageTable _mappedImageDataAtIndex:] + 221 3 PhotoLibrary 0x0000893f -[PLImageTable dataForEntryAtIndex:] + 15 4 PhotoLibrary 0x000087e7 PLThumbnailManagerImageDataAtIndex + 35 5 PhotoLibrary 0x00008413 -[PLThumbnailManager _dataForPhoto:format:width:height:bytesPerRow:dataWidth:dataHeight:imageDataOffset:imageDataFormat:preheat:] + 299 6 PhotoLibrary 0x000b6c13 __-[PLThumbnailManager preheatImageDataForImages:withFormat:]_block_invoke_1 + 159 7 libSystem.B.dylib 0x000d6680 _dispatch_call_block_and_release + 20 8 libSystem.B.dylib 0x000d6ba0 _dispatch_worker_thread2 + 128 9 libSystem.B.dylib 0x0007b251 _pthread_wqthread + 265

    Read the article

  • Validating parameters according to a fixed reference

    - by James P.
    The following method is for setting the transfer type of an FTP connection. Basically, I'd like to validate the character input (see comments). Is this going overboard? Is there a more elegant approach? How do you approach parameter validation in general? Any comments are welcome. public void setTransferType(Character typeCharacter, Character optionalSecondCharacter) throws NumberFormatException, IOException { // http://www.nsftools.com/tips/RawFTP.htm#TYPE // Syntax: TYPE type-character [second-type-character] // // Sets the type of file to be transferred. type-character can be any // of: // // * A - ASCII text // * E - EBCDIC text // * I - image (binary data) // * L - local format // // For A and E, the second-type-character specifies how the text should // be interpreted. It can be: // // * N - Non-print (not destined for printing). This is the default if // second-type-character is omitted. // * T - Telnet format control (<CR>, <FF>, etc.) // * C - ASA Carriage Control // // For L, the second-type-character specifies the number of bits per // byte on the local system, and may not be omitted. final Set<Character> acceptedTypeCharacters = new HashSet<Character>(Arrays.asList( new Character[] {'A','E','I','L'} )); final Set<Character> acceptedOptionalSecondCharacters = new HashSet<Character>(Arrays.asList( new Character[] {'N','T','C'} )); if( acceptedTypeCharacters.contains(typeCharacter) ) { if( new Character('A').equals( typeCharacter ) || new Character('E').equals( typeCharacter ) ){ if( acceptedOptionalSecondCharacters.contains(optionalSecondCharacter) ) { executeCommand("TYPE " + typeCharacter + " " + optionalSecondCharacter ); } } else { executeCommand("TYPE " + typeCharacter ); } } }

    Read the article

  • PHP - dynamic page via subdomain

    - by Phil Jackson
    Hi, im creating profile pages based on a subdomains using the wildcard DNS setting. Problem being, if the subdomain is incorrect, I want it to redirect to the same page but without the subdomain infront ie; if ( preg_match('/^(www\.)?([^.]+)\.domainname\.co.uk$/', $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'], $match)) { $DISPLAY_NAME = $match[2]; $query = "SELECT * FROM `" . ACCOUNT_TABLE . "` WHERE DISPLAY_NAME = '$DISPLAY_NAME' AND ACCOUNT_TYPE = 'premium_account'"; $q = mysql_query( $query, $CON ) or die( "_error_" . mysql_error() ); if( mysql_num_rows( $q ) != 0 ) { }else{ mysql_close( $CON ); header("location: http://www.domainname.co.uk"); exit; } } I get a browser error: Firefox has detected that the server is redirecting the request for this address in a way that will never complete. I think its because when using header("location: http://www.domainname.co.uk"); it still puts the sub domain infront i.e. ; header("location: http://www.sub.domainname.co.uk"); Does anyone know how to sort this and/or what is the problem. Regards, Phil

    Read the article

  • Should I be using Expression Blend to design really dynamic UIs?

    - by Robert Rossney
    My company's product is, at its core, a framework for developing metadata-driven UIs. I don't know how to characterize it less succinctly than that, and hope I won't need to for purposes of this question, but we'll see. I've been trying to come up to speed on WPF, and have been building UI prototypes here and there, and recently I decided to see if I could use Expression Blend to help with the design of these UIs. And I'm pretty mystified at this point. It appears to me as though Expresssion Blend is designed with the expectation that you already know all of the objects that are going to be present in the UI at design time. But our program generates these object dynamically at runtime. For instance, a data row might be presented in a horizontal StackPanel containing alternating TextBlocks (for captions) and TextBoxes (for data fields). The number of these objects depends on metadata about the number of columns in the data row. I can, pretty readily, write code that runs through a metadata record and populates a StackPanel dynamically, setting up the binding of all of the controls to properties in either the data or metadata. (A TextBox's Width might be bound to metadata, while its Text is bound to data.) But I can't even begin to figure out how to do something like this in Expression Blend. I can manually create all these controls, so that I have a set of controls that I can apply styles to and work out the visual design of the app, but it's really a pain to do this. I can write code that goes through my data model and emits XAML for all these controls, I suppose, and then copy and paste it. But I'm going to feel really stupid if it turns out there a way to do this sort of thing in Expression Blend and I've dropped back and punted because I'm too dim to figure out the right way to think of it. Is this enough information for someone to try formulating an answer?

    Read the article

  • how do Google and Yahoo replace the URL in the browser status bar?

    - by Mike W
    On the Google and Yahoo search pages, the URLs of the 10 search result links actually point to google.com or yahoo.com. The URLs have extra arguments that allow google.com or yahoo.com to redirect to the actual search result when the link is clicked. When the user mouses over the link, the search result URL (and not the google.com or yahoo.com URL) is displayed in the browser's status bar. I'm wondering how they do that. Many years ago, this would have been accomplished by having some javascript that sets window.status, but that doesn't seem to work anymore, as is explained by http://stackoverflow.com/questions/876390/reliable-cross-browser-way-of-setting-status-bar-text I have a link that looks like this: <a href="http://somedomain.com/ReallyLongURLThatShouldNotBeSeenInTheStatusBar" onmouseover="window.status='http://niceShourtUrl.com/'" onmouseout="window.status=''">Click Me</a> This link tried to use the window.status strategy, but it doesn't work. How do I fix this link so that it acts like the links on Google's and Yahoo's search result pages? In this example, I want "http://niceShourtUrl.com/" to be displayed in the status bar when the user mouses over the link.

    Read the article

  • How can I find the jdbc connection timeout of a hibernate session

    - by StevenWilkins
    I currently have a long running thread which uses a hibernate session to perform many updates. We currently have our c3p0 connection timeout set to 20 minutes and it's timing out sometimes because of the number of updates we're performing. The solution I have is to periodically return the connection to the pool via closing the session (we have hibernate configured this way) and get a new one. Upping the timeout is not desirable because the same pool is used for the entire application. The problem is I don't know when to return the connection to the pool because I don't know what the timeout of the connection is. I know what the current setting is in our property file, but that can be changed without my knowledge at any time so it's fragile. Having a counter and returning the connection based on the number of updates I've performed is not ideal but could be my option of last resort. I have a hibernate session, how can I retrieve the connection timeout of the jdbc connection which backs the session? Using the SessionFactory and SessionFactoryImpl classes are perfectly acceptable.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 498 499 500 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509  | Next Page >