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  • How do I execute queries upon DB connection in Rails?

    - by sycobuny
    I have certain initializing functions that I use to set up audit logging on the DB server side (ie, not rails) in PostgreSQL. At least one has to be issued (setting the current user) before inserting data into or updating any of the audited tables, or else the whole query will fail spectacularly. I can easily call these every time before running any save operation in the code, but DRY makes me think I should have the code repeated in as few places as possible, particularly since this diverges greatly from the ideal of database agnosticism. Currently I'm attempting to override ActiveRecord::Base.establish_connection in an initializer to set it up so that the queries are run as soon as I connect automatically, but it doesn't behave as I expect it to. Here is the code in the initializer: class ActiveRecord::Base # extend the class methods, not the instance methods class << self alias :old_establish_connection :establish_connection # hide the default def establish_connection(*args) ret = old_establish_connection(*args) # call the default # set up necessary session variables for audit logging # call these after calling default, to make sure conn is established 1st db = self.class.connection db.execute("SELECT SV.set('current_user', 'test@localhost')") db.execute("SELECT SV.set('audit_notes', NULL)") # end "empty variable" err ret # return the default's original value end end end puts "Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base" sycobuny:~/rails$ ruby script/server = Booting WEBrick = Rails 2.3.5 application starting on http://0.0.0.0:3000 Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base This doesn't give me any errors, and unfortunately I can't check what the method looks like internally (I was using ActiveRecord::Base.method(:establish_connection), but apparently that creates a new Method object each time it's called, which is seemingly worthless cause I can't check object_id for any worthwhile information and I also can't reverse the compilation). However, the code never seems to get called, because any attempt to run a save or an update on a database object fails as I predicted earlier. If this isn't a proper way to execute code immediately on connection to the database, then what is?

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  • change postgres date format

    - by Jay
    Is there a way to change the default format of a date in Postgres? Normally when I query a Postgres database, dates come out as yyyy-mm-dd hh:mm:ss+tz, like 2011-02-21 11:30:00-05. But one particular program the dates come out yyyy-mm-dd hh:mm:ss.s, that is, there is no time zone and it shows tenths of a second. Apparently something is changing the default date format, but I don't know what or where. I don't think it's a server-side configuration parameter, because I can access the same database with a different program and I get the format with the timezone. I care because it appears to be ignoring my "set timezone" calls in addition to changing the format. All times come out EST. Additional info: If I write "select somedate from sometable" I get the "no timezone" format. But if I write "select to_char(somedate::timestamptz, 'yyyy-mm-dd hh24:mi:ss-tz')" then timezones work as I would expect. This really sounds to me like something is setting all timestamps to implicitly be "to_char(date::timestamp, 'yyyy-mm-dd hh24:mi:ss.m')". But I can't find anything in the documentation about how I would do this if I wanted to, nor can I find anything in the code that appears to do this. Though as I don't know what to look for, that doesn't prove much.

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  • Why does the WCF 3.5 REST Starter Kit do this?

    - by Brandon
    I am setting up a REST endpoint that looks like the following: [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", UriTemplate = "?format=json", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.WrappedRequest, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] and [WebInvoke(Method = "DELETE", UriTemplate = "?token={token}&format=json", ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] The above throws the following error: UriTemplateTable does not support '?format=json' and '?token={token}&format=json' since they are not equivalent, but cannot be disambiguated because they have equivalent paths and the same common literal values for the query string. See the documentation for UriTemplateTable for more detail. I am not an expert at WCF, but I would imagine that it should map first by the HTTP Method and then by the URI Template. It appears to be backwards. If both of my URI templates are: ?token={token}&format=json This works because they are equivalent and it then appears to look at the HTTP Method where one is POST and the other is DELETE. Is REST supposed to work this way? Why are the URI Template Tables not being sorted first by HTTP Method and then by URI Template? This can cause some serious frustrations when 1 HTTP Method requires a parameter and another does not, or if I want to do optional parameters (e.g. if the 'format' parameter is not passed, default to XML).

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  • Showing multiple models in a single ListView

    - by Veer
    I've three models (Contacts, Notes, Reminders). I want to search all these and produce the filtered result in a single listview and depending upon the selection I've to display the corresponding view(UserControl) to its right. I want the right way of implementing the design or atleast alternatives to this method that I've tried. Now I've tried it using a IntegratedViewModel having all the properties from all the three models. public class IntegratedViewModel { ContactModel _contactModel; NoteModel _noteModel; public IntegratedViewModel(ContactModel contactModel) { _contactModel = contactModel; } // similarly for other models also public string DisplayTitle // For displaying in ListView { get; //same as set set { If(_contactModel != null) return _contactModel.Name; If(_noteModel != null) return _noteModel.Title; } } // All other properties from the three models includin the Name/Title properties for displaying them in the corresponding views(UserControl) } Now I set the itemsSource as the List<IntegratedViewModel>. I've to now bind the visibility of the views to some properties in the MainViewModel. I tried setting bool properties like IsContactViewSelected, IsNoteViewSelected using the setter of SelectedEntity property which is bound to the ListView's SelectedItem. public SelectedEntity { //get set { oldvalue = _selectedEntity; _selectedEntity = value; // now i find the Type of model selected using oldvalue.ModelType // where ModelType is a property in the IntegratedViewModel // according to the type, i set one of the above bool properties to false // and do the same for _selectedEntity but set the property to true // so that the view corresponding to the selectedEntityType is visible // and others are collapsed } } Here is the problem: For eg: let us say, I selected an item of type ContactModel, the old selection being NoteModel. I set the property IsNoteModelSelected to false according to the oldvalue, it sets the property and then Raises the propertychanged event and does not go and check the remaining if condition where i check for _selectedEntity which is used to set the IsContactModelSelected to true.

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  • Copy a LinkedList that has a Random Pointer in it

    - by Bragaadeesh
    Hi, First of all this is not a homework, this is an interview question that I got from a company I attended today. You have a singly linked list with the Node structure as the following class Node{ int data; Node next; Node random; } You have a typical singly linked list of length n. The random pointer in each node in the linkedlist randomly points to some Node within the linked list. The Question is to create a copy of the linked list efficiently into a different LinkedList. I said that I will first calculate the Random pointer's position in the linked list and store it in an array. Then create a new linked list normally. Then iterate through the linked list by setting the random pointer where they belong by reading the values stored from the array. I know its a very brute force technique and the interviewer asked me to come up with a better solution but I couldnt. Please can someone answer this? I can explain if the question is not clear.

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  • Kohana Auth Library Deployment

    - by Steve
    My Kohana app runs perfectly on my local machine. When I deployed my app to a server (and adjust the config files appropriately), I can no longer log into the app. I've traced through the app login routine on both my local version and the server version and they both agree with each other all the way through until you get to the auth.php controller logged_in() routine where suddenly, at line 140 - the is_object($this-user) test - the $user object no longer exists!?!?!? The login() function call that calls the logged_in() function successfully passes the following test, which causes a redirect to the logged_in() function. if(Auth::instance()->login($user, $post['password'])) Yes, the password and hash, etc all work perfectly. Here is the offending code: public function logged_in() { if ( ! is_object($this->user)) { // No user is currently logged in url::redirect('auth/login'); } etc... } As the code is the same between my local installation and the server, I reckon it must be some server setting that is messing with me. FYI: All the rest of the code works because I have a temporary backdoor available that allows me to use the application (view pages of tables, etc) without being logged in. Any ideas?

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  • How to configure a NSPopupButton for displaying multiple values in a TableView?

    - by jekmac
    Hi there! I'm using two entities A and B with to-many-to-many relationship. Lets say I got an entity A with attribute aAttrib and a to-many relationship aRelat to another entity B with attribute bAttrib and a to-many relationship bRelat with entity A. Now I am building an interface with two tables one for entity A and another for entity B. The table for entity B has two columns one for bAttrib and one for the relationship aRelat. The aRelat-column should be a NSPopupButtonCell to display multiple aAttrib values. I'd like to set all the bindings in InterfaceBuilder in Table Column Bindings: -- I have two NSArrayController each for one entity: Object Controller Mode:Entity Array Controller Bindings: Parameters Managed Object Context bind to File's Owner -- One Table Cloumn with a PopUpButtonCell: TableCloumnBindings Content bind to Entity A with ControllerKey arrangedObjects; Content Values bind to Entity A with ModelKeyPath aAttrib Selected Object bind to Entity B with ModelKeyPath bRelat I know that this configuration doesn't allow multiple value setting. But I don't know how to do the right one. Getting the following message: HIToolbox: ignoring exception 'Unacceptable type of value for to-many relationship: property = "bRelat"; desired type = NSSet; given type = NSCFString; value = testValue.' that raised inside Carbon event dispatch... Does anyone have any idea?

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  • NHibernate + Cannot insert the value NULL into...

    - by mybrokengnome
    I've got a MS-SQL database with a table created with this code CREATE TABLE [dbo].[portfoliomanager]( [idPortfolioManager] [int] NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY IDENTITY, [name] [varchar](45) NULL ) so that idPortfolioManager is my primary key and also auto-incrementing. Now on my Windows WPF application I'm using NHibernate to help with adding/updating/removing/etc. data from the database. Here is the class that should be connecting to the portfoliomanager table namespace PortfolioManager { [Class(Table="portfoliomanager",NameType=typeof(PortfolioManagerClass))] public class PortfolioManagerClass { [Id(Name = "idPortfolioManager")] [Generator(1, Class = "identity")] public virtual int idPortfolioManager { get; set; } [NHibernate.Mapping.Attributes.Property(Name = "name")] public virtual string name { get; set; } public PortfolioManagerClass() { } } } and some short code to try and insert something PortfolioManagerClass portfolio = new PortfolioManagerClass(); Portfolio.name = "Brad's Portfolios"; The problem is, when I try running this, I get this error: {System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'idPortfolioManager', table 'PortfolioManagementSystem.dbo.portfoliomanager'; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails. The statement has been terminated... with an outer exception of {"could not insert: [PortfolioManager.PortfolioManagerClass][SQL: INSERT INTO portfoliomanager (name) VALUES (?); select SCOPE_IDENTITY()]"} I'm hoping this is the last error I'll have to solve with NHibernate just to get it to do something, it's been a long process. Just as a note, I've also tried setting Class="native" and unsaved-value="0" with the same error. Thanks! Edit: Ok removing the 1, from Generator actually allows the program to run (not sure why that was even in the samples I was looking at) but it actually doesn't get added to the database. I logged in to the server and ran the sql server profiler tool and I never see the connection coming through or the SQL its trying to run, but NHibernate isn't throwing an error anymore. Starting to think it would be easier to just write SQL statements myself :(

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  • jsf and eclipse setup. Lib in Explorer is different than lib in tomcat. How come?

    - by user384706
    Hi, I am starter in JSF2.0, and I have a question related to Eclipse (I am using Helios). 1)I create a Dynamic Project 2)I add JSF project facet. 3)I choose JSF user library (I have created it using MyFaces) All ok so far. I notice though that in the Project Explorer in WebContent/WEB-INF/lib the lib directory is empty instead of having MyFaces jars. The application works fine though. I looked into this and the jars are actually being placed in the corresponding lib directory of the app deployed under wtpwebapps of the Tomcat instance of eclipse in the .pluggins directory. Ok, it works but IMHO it is incorrect to have the Project Explorer inconsistent with the directories actually deployed. I.e. lib is shown empty in Project Explorer but with jars under wtpwebapps. Am I wrong to dislike this inconsistency? Is this how it should work or am I doing something wrong in the way I am setting my project? Thanks!

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  • PHP session_write_close() keeps sending a set-cookie header

    - by Chiraag Mundhe
    In my framework, I make a number of calls to session_write_close(). Let's assume that a session has been initiated with a user agent. The following code... foreach($i = 0; $i < 3; $i++) { session_start(); session_write_close(); } ...will send the following request header to the browser: Set-Cookie PHPSESSID=bv4d0n31vj2otb8mjtr59ln322; path=/ PHPSESSID=bv4d0n31vj2otb8mjtr59ln322; path=/ There should be no Set-Cookie header because, as I stipulated, the session cookie has already been created on the user's end. But every call to session_write_close() after the first one in the script above will result in PHP instructing the browser to set the current session again. This is not breaking my app or anything, but it is annoying. Does anyone have any insight into preventing PHP from re-setting the cookie with each subsequent call to session_write_close? EDIT The problem seems to be that with every subsequent call to session_start(), PHP re-sets the session cookie to its own SID and sends a Set-Cookie response header. But why??

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  • List all foreign key constraints that refer to a particular column in a specific table

    - by Sid
    I would like to see a list of all the tables and columns that refer (either directly or indirectly) a specific column in the 'main' table via a foreign key constraint that has the ON DELETE=CASCADE setting missing. The tricky part is that there would be an indirect relationships buried across up to 5 levels deep. (example: ... great-grandchild- FK3 = grandchild = FK2 = child = FK1 = main table). We need to dig up the leaf tables-columns, not just the very 1st level. The 'good' part about this is that execution speed isn't of concern, it'll be run on a backup copy of the production db to fix any relational issues for the future. I did SELECT * FROM sys.foreign_keys but that gives me the name of the constraint - not the names of the child-parent tables and the columns in the relationship (the juicy bits). Plus the previous designer used short, non-descriptive/random names for the FK constraints, unlike our practice below The way we're adding constraints into SQL Server: ALTER TABLE [dbo].[UserEmailPrefs] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_UserEmailPrefs_UserMasterTable_UserId] FOREIGN KEY([UserId]) REFERENCES [dbo].[UserMasterTable] ([UserId]) ON DELETE CASCADE GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[UserEmailPrefs] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_UserEmailPrefs_UserMasterTable_UserId] GO The comments in this SO question inpire this question.

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  • jQuery innerHTML does not work properly (!)

    - by Kayes
    I was trying to build an <a> tag and set it in a <td> of a table. The string is built perfectly but when I set this as the innerHTML using jQuery, the string gets broken. I can't figure out why this is happening? Any clues? Here's the string I want to set in the <td>: <a onclick='return EditIssueItemBatch('1c1e27a2-beac-4772-a26f-6a7e05529a65', '498ba483-ca06-4b23-b3a9-0085e4760ff1')'>Edit</a> But here is how it looks after setting as innerHTML: <A onclick="return EditIssueItemBatch(" ?498ba483-ca06-4b23-b3a9-0085e4760ff1?)? 1c1e27a2-beac-4772-a26f-6a7e05529a65?,>Edit</A> And the following is my code-snippet.. var tr = $("#itemIssueBatchListTable > tbody:last").children()[data.Index + 1]; ... ... var strBuff = []; strBuff.push("<a onclick='return EditIssueItemBatch('"); strBuff.push(data.ItemIssueBatch.ItemCode_FK); strBuff.push("', '"); strBuff.push(data.ItemIssueBatch.StockDetCode_FK); strBuff.push("')'>Edit</a>"); tr.cells[9].innerHTML = strBuff.join(""); ... ...

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  • cURL Affects Cookie Retrieval in PHP?

    - by CJ
    I'm not sure if I'm asking this properly. I have two PHP pages located on the same server. The first PHP page sets a cookie with an expiration and the second one checks to see if that cookie was set. if it is set, it returns "on". If it isn't set, it returns "off". If I just run the pages like "www.example.com/set_cookie.php" AND "www.example.com/is_cookie_set.php" I get an "on" from is_cookie_set.php. Heres the problem, on the set_cookie.php file I have a function called is_set. This function executes the following cURL and returns the contents ("on" or "off"). Unfortunately, the contents are always returned as "off". however, if I check the file manually ("www.example.com/is_cookie_set.php") I can see that the cookie was set. Heres the function : <?php function is_set() { $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, 'http://example.com/is_cookie_set.php'); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); $contents = curl_exec ($ch); curl_close ($ch); echo $contents; } ?> Please note, I'm not using cURL to GET or SET cookies, only to check a page that checks if the cookie was set. I've looked into CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, and CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, but I believe those are for setting cookies via cURL and I don't want to do this.

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  • Using an embedded DB (SQLite / SQL Compact) for Message Passing within an app?

    - by wk1989
    Hello, Just out of curiosity, for applications that have a fairly complicated module tree, would something like sqlite/sql compact edition work well for message passing? So if I have modules containing data such as: \SubsystemA\SubSubSysB\ModuleB\ModuleDataC, \SubSystemB\SubSubSystemC\ModuleA\ModuleDataX Using traditional message passing/routing, you have to go through intermediate modules in order to pass a message to ModuleB to request say ModuleDataC. Instead of doing that, if we we simply store "\SubsystemA\SubSubSysB\ModuleB\ModuleDataC" in a sqlite database, getting that data is as simple as a sql query and needs no routing and passing stuff around. Has anyone done this before? Even if you haven't, do you foresee any issues & performance impact? The only concern I have right now would be the passing of custom types, e.g. if ModuleDataC is a custom data structure or a pointer, I'll need some way of storing the data structure into the DB or storing the pointer into the DB. Thanks, JW EDIT One usage case I haven't thought about is when you want to send a message from ModuleA to ModuleB to get ModuleB to do something rather than just getting/setting data. Is it possible to do this using an embedded DB? I believe callback from the DB would be needed, how feasible is this?

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  • How can I change the default startup directory for cmd.exe?

    - by Nano HE
    Hi. My Procedure last day as below Click Start, Run and type Regedit.exe Navigate to the following branch: HKEY_CURRENT_USER \ Software \ Microsoft \ Command Processor In the right-pane, double-click Autorun and set the startup folder path as its data, preceded by “CD /d “. If Autorun value is missing, you need to create one, of type REG_EXPAND_SZ or REG_SZ in the above location. Example: To set the startup directory to D:\learning\perl, set the Autorun value data to CD /d D:\learning\perl Then I clicked Start, run and type cmd. It successfully. I could do perl practice more conveniently now. But today, I find when I try to build my Visual Studio 2005 solution which included some Pre-build event Command like this: perl.exe MyAppVersion.pl perl.exe AttrScan.pl It doesn't work. Show error: can't find the path. I check the environment variable setting and find the variable-path and it's value-c:\perl\bin\; still exist. Finially, I try to removed the Regedit.exe configuration "Autorun" value and test again. The issue fixed. I only changed the default startup directory for cmd.exe command. Why the pre-build event perl command was impacted? (I am using winxp and activePerl 5.8)

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  • How to set JComboBox not to select an element when created? (Java)

    - by Alex Cheng
    Hi all. Problem: I am using JComboBox, and tried using setSelectionIndex(-1) in my code (this code is placed in caretInvoke()) suggestionComboBox.removeAllItems(); for (int i = 0; i < suggestions.length; i++) { suggestionComboBox.addItem(suggestions[i]); } suggestionComboBox.setSelectedIndex(-1); suggestionComboBox.setEnabled(true); This is the initial setting when it was added to a pane: suggestionComboBox = new JComboBox(); suggestionComboBox.setEditable(false); suggestionComboBox.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(25, 25)); suggestionComboBox.addActionListener(new SuggestionComboBoxListener()); When the caretInvoke triggers the ComboBox initialisation, even before the user selects an element, the actionPerformed is already triggered (I tried a JOptionPane here): First popup (notice that "flow byte_jump" is selected): Second popup (I think the setSelectionIndex is executed) Then in the end: The problem is: My program autoinserts the selected text when the user selects an element from the ComboBox. So without the user selecting anything, it is automatically inserted already. How can I overcome the problem in this situation? Thanks.

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  • Facebook Connect: Permissions Error [200] using "stream.publish" with PHP

    - by Sarah
    Hi all, I've been implementing Facebook Connect into a site and am using both the PHP API, to allow me to automatically post data to a user's wall, as well as the JS API, for manual posting, permissions dialogs, etc. When the user uses the manual method it works 100%...the popups are displayed correctly, and the data gets posted to their wall properly. However, when I try to use the PHP API I am getting inconsistencies. When I try posting automatically using the PHP API using one account it works perfect, every time. But for some other accounts it never works, always returning "Permissions error." The error code is 200, and I've checked the Facebook API documentation and it's pretty vague, saying only "Permissions error. The application does not have permission to perform this action." But that's not true, since it works on some accounts and doesn't work on others. First, I've made sure that the users in question have enabled the extended permission "publish_stream" and that the manual method using the JS API works, so it doesn't seem to be a problem with those specific permissions. There are no apparent differences between the Facebook accounts I've used. So my question is has anyone run into this problem and found a solution to it? Is there some sort of other permission setting that users must enable for this to work? I've been searching Google and these forums but have not found any solution. The request I am sending is: (Note: The content/image url/link url are not the actual data I use) $attachment = array( 'caption' => '{*actor*} commented on <title> "<comment>"', 'media' => array( array( 'type' => 'image', 'src' => 'http://www.test.com/image.jpg', 'href' => 'http://www.test.com' ) ) ); $Facebook->api_client->stream_publish('', $attachment); Thanks, Sarah

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  • Same random numbers from instantiated class

    - by user1797202
    I'm learning C# and created a class within my program that holds a random number generator: class RandomNumberGenerator { Random RNG = new Random(); // A bunch of methods that use random numbers are in here } Inside this class are a few methods that use the RNG. Data gets sent here from other parts of the program, gets processed, then gets returned. One of the methods does the following: // Method works something like this int Value1 = RNG.Next(x, y); int Value2 = RNG.Next(x, y); int Value3 = RNG.Next(x, y); The x, y values are to be sent here from another class. So, I have to create an instance of the RandomNumberGenerator within that class so I can call its methods and pass the x and y values to it. class DoStuff { RandomNumberGenerator Randomizer = new RandomNumberGenerator // Here I call a bunch of Randomizer methods that give me values I need } The problem in the above method is that I get the same numbers every time for all three values. I'm not sure if it's because they're so close together and Randomizer's seed value hasn't had time to change or if I'm doing something wrong when I create a new instance of the RandomNumberGenerator class. I've gone through a bunch of answers on here already and typically problems like this are due to people creating many new Random objects when they run methods (thus setting the seed for all of them to the same value), but the only new Random object I create is within the RandomNumberGenerator class. I then instantiate that once within the other class so I can pass it data and use its methods. Why is this happening and how would I fix this?

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  • Error 1009 after gotoAndStop - stage instance never gets added

    - by ELambda
    I've been through the forums for hours (days?) searching on 1009 errors, but I remain stumped on this. It seems very mysterious and I would LOVE some help if you have any ideas. I have a single .swf that is 7 frames long - each frame represents a different "page" and you can switch pages through a menu widget in the top right corner. The menu widget calls gotoAndPlay( "frame" ). Everything works fine except when I switch from one particular frame to another. Then, during initialization of the new frame (setting some visible properties on various items, in actionscript), I get the dreaded 1009 error on a specific stage instance, a dynamic text instance i_word. Here's what I've tried so far: made sure the actionscript for the new frame starts with a stop() statement before starting initialization - no dice tried changing i_word into a movie_clip instead of dynamic text, made sure it was exported for actionscript - no difference. (I also have 2 other dynamic text instances on the same page that don't seem to cause a problem) added an ENTER_FRAME listener when the new frame is loaded, in case the problem was a timing issue. Put in a big if statement checking if i_word and other instances are not null before proceeding to initialization. It never enters the if, because i_word NEVER gets added. I added trace statements for all instances that are null, and it is the only one. If I remove all references to i_word in my actionscript, everything else is not null, and things go forward. The text for i_word even shows up on the screen in that case. tried renaming i_word - no dice tried deleting the layer i_word was on and adding a new layer - no dice It feels like there is a serious Gremlin in my flash file somewhere. Or maybe I'm missing something obvious. Let me know if you have any ideas...I'd be so grateful. Thank you! Elambda

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  • Programming powering off and powering on in one single OnClick function on android

    - by user1060919
    I would like to write an activity that after clicking on a button turns off the screen and then turns it back on after 2 secs. I tried using the following code in order to power off the screen: WindowManager.LayoutParams lp = getWindow().getAttributes(); lp.screenBrightness = 0/(float)255; getWindow().setAttributes(lp); But it would only take effect when then onClick function returns. I tried running it into a handler but with no success. I need to find a way to force the setting to get applied before the function returns so that I can call the power on function 2 secs later on the same onClick call. I also found it very hard to wakeup the device afterwards. While this code works if I power off the screen using the physical button it doesn't seem to work when the phone is powered off using the technique described previously. PowerManager pm = (PowerManager)this.getSystemService(Context.POWER_SERVICE); PowerManager.WakeLock wl = pm.newWakeLock(PowerManager.FULL_WAKE_LOCK|PowerManager.ACQUIRE_CAUSES_WAKEUP | PowerManager.ON_AFTER_RELEASE ,"Dev Tag"); try { wl.acquire(); wl.release(); } catch (Exception e) { Toast.makeText(this, e.getMessage(),20).show(); } Thanks you in advance for your help!

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  • Link failure with either abnormal memory consumption or LNK1106 in Visual Studio 2005.

    - by Corvin
    Hello, I am trying to build a solution for windows XP in Visual Studio 2005. This solution contains 81 projects (static libs, exe's, dlls) and is being successfully used by our partners. I copied the solution bundle from their repository and tried setting it up on 3 similar machines of people in our group. I was successful on two machines and the solution failed to build on my machine. The build on my machine encountered two problems: During a simple build creation of the biggest static library (about 522Mb in debug mode) would fail with the message "13libd\ui1d.lib : fatal error LNK1106: invalid file or disk full: cannot seek to 0x20101879" Full solution rebuild creates this library, however when it comes to linking the library to main .exe file, devenv.exe spawns link.exe which consumes about 80Mb of physical memory and 250MB of virtual and spawns another link.exe, which does the same. This goes on until the system runs out of memory. On PCs of my colleagues where successful build could be performed, there is only one link.exe process which uses all the memory required for linking (about 500Mb physical). There is a plenty of hard drive space on my machine and the file system is NTFS. All three of our systems are similar - Core2Quad processors, 4Gb of RAM, Windows XP SP3. We are using Visual studio installed from the same source. I tried using a different RAM and CPU, using dedicated graphics adapter to eliminate possibility of video memory sharing influencing the build, putting solution files to different location, using different versions of VS 2005 (Professional, Standard and Team Suite), changing the amount of available virtual memory, running memtest86 and building the project from scratch (i.e. a clean bundle). I have read what MSDN says about LNK1106, none of the cases apply to me except for maybe "out of heap space", however I am not sure how I should fight this. The only idea that I have left is reinstalling the OS, however I am not sure that it would help and I am not sure that my situation wouldn't repeat itself on a different machine. Would anyone have any sort of advice for me? Thanks

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  • Retrieving my own data via FaceBook API

    - by goggin13
    I am building a website for a comedy group which uses Facebook as one of their marketing platforms; one of the requirements for the new site is to display all of their Facebook events on a calendar. Currently, I am just trying to put together a Python script which can pull some data from my own Facebook account, like a list of all my friends. I presume once I can accomplish this I can move to pulling more complicated data out of my clients account (since they have given me access to their account). I have looked at many of the posts here, and also went through the Facebook API documentation, including Facebook Connect, but am really beating my head against the wall. Everything I have read seems like overkill, as it involves setting up a good deal of infrastructure to allow my app to set up connections to any arbitrary user's account (who authorizes me). Shouldn't it be much simpler, given I only ever need to access 1 account? I cannot find a way to retrieve data without having to display the Facebook login window. I have a script which will retrieve all my friends, but it includes a redirect where I have to physically log myself in to Facebook. Would appreciate any advice or links, I just feel like I must be missing something simple. Thank you!

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  • How to strengthen Mysql database server Security?

    - by i need help
    If we were to use server1 for all files (file server), server2 for mysql database (database server). In order for websites in server1 to access to the database in server2, isn't it needed to connect to to ip address of second (mysql server) ? In this case, is remote mysql connection. However, I seen from some people comment on the security issue. remote access to MySQL is not very secure. When your remote computer first connects to your MySQL database, the password is encrypted before being transmitted over the Internet. But after that, all data is passed as unencrypted "plain text". If someone was able to view your connection data (such as a "hacker" capturing data from an unencrypted WiFi connection you're using), that person would be able to view part or all of your database. So I just wondering ways to secure it? Allow remote mysql access from server1 by allowing the static ip adress allow remote access from server 1 by setting port allowed to connect to 3306 change 3306 to other port? Any advice?

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  • issue with tab bar view displaying a compound view

    - by ambertch
    I created a tab bar application, and I make the first tab a table. So I create a tableView controller, and go about setting the class identity of the view controller for the first tab to my tableView controller. This works fine, and I see the contents of the table filling up the whole screen. However, this is not what I actually want in the end goal - I would like a compound window having multiple views: - the aforementioned table - a custom view with data in it So what I do is create a nib for this content (call it contentNib), change the tab's class from the tableView controller to a generic UIViewController, and set the nib of that tab to this new contentNib. In this new contentNib I drag on a tableView and set File's Owner to the TableViewController. I then link the dataSource and delegate to file's owner (which is TableViewController). Surprisingly this does not work and I receive the error: **Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIViewController tableView:numberOfRowsInSection:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3b0f910'** This is bewildering to me since the file's owner is the TableViewController, which has been assigned to be both the dataSource and delegate. Does someone have either insight into my confusions, or a link to an example of how to have a compound view include a tableView? *update* I see this in the Apple TableView programming guide: "Note: You should use a UIViewController subclass rather than a subclass of UITableViewController to manage a table view if the view to be managed is composed of multiple subviews, one of which is a table view. The default behavior of the UITableViewController class is to make the table view fill the screen between the navigation bar and the tab bar (if either are present)." <----- I don't really get what this is telling me to do though... if someone can explain or point me to an example I'd be much appreciated!

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  • mod_rewrite: no access to real files and directories

    - by tshabalala
    Hello. I use mod_rewrite/.htaccess for pretty URLs. I forward all the requests to my index.php, like this: RewriteRule ^/?([a-zA-Z0-9/-]+)/?$ /index.php [NC,L] The index.php then handles the requests. I'm also using this condition/rule to eliminate trailing slashes (or rather rewrite them to the URL without a trailing slash, with a 301 redirect; I'm doing this to avoid duplicate content and because I like no trailing slashes better): RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^\.localhost$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.+)/$ http://%{HTTP_HOST}/$1 [R=301,L] This works well, except that I now get an infinite loop when trying to access a (real) directory (the rewrite rule removes the trailing slash, the server adds it again, ...). I solved this by setting the DirectorySlash directive to Off: DirectorySlash Off I don't know how good this solution is, I don't feel too confident about it tbh. Anyway, what I'd like to do is completely ignore "real" files and directories, since I don't need them and I only use pretty URLs with "virtual" files/directories anyway. This would allow me to avoid the DirectorySlash workaround/hack too. Is this possible? Thanks!

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