Search Results

Search found 45334 results on 1814 pages for 'class constructors'.

Page 503/1814 | < Previous Page | 499 500 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510  | Next Page >

  • Unit Testing Interfaces in Python

    - by Nicholas Mancuso
    I am currently learning python in preperation for a class over the summer and have gotten started by implementing different types of heaps and priority based data structures. I began to write a unit test suite for the project but ran into difficulties into creating a generic unit test that only tests the interface and is oblivious of the actual implementation. I am wondering if it is possible to do something like this.. suite = HeapTestSuite(BinaryHeap()) suite.run() suite = HeapTestSuite(BinomialHeap()) suite.run() What I am currently doing just feels... wrong (multiple inheritance? ACK!).. class TestHeap: def reset_heap(self): self.heap = None def test_insert(self): self.reset_heap() #test that insert doesnt throw an exception... for x in self.inseq: self.heap.insert(x) def test_delete(self): #assert we get the first value we put in self.reset_heap() self.heap.insert(5) self.assertEquals(5, self.heap.delete_min()) #harder test. put in sequence in and check that it comes out right self.reset_heap() for x in self.inseq: self.heap.insert(x) for x in xrange(len(self.inseq)): val = self.heap.delete_min() self.assertEquals(val, x) class BinaryHeapTest(TestHeap, unittest.TestCase): def setUp(self): self.inseq = range(99, -1, -1) self.heap = BinaryHeap() def reset_heap(self): self.heap = BinaryHeap() class BinomialHeapTest(TestHeap, unittest.TestCase): def setUp(self): self.inseq = range(99, -1, -1) self.heap = BinomialHeap() def reset_heap(self): self.heap = BinomialHeap() if __name__ == '__main__': unittest.main()

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework does not map 2 columns from a SqlQuery calling a stored procedure

    - by user1783530
    I'm using Code First and am trying to call a stored procedure and have it map to one of my classes. I created a stored procedure, BOMComponentChild, that returns details of a Component with information of its hierarchy in PartsPath and MyPath. I have a class for the output of this stored procedure. I'm having an issue where everything except the two columns, PartsPath and MyPath, are being mapped correctly with these two properties ending up as Nothing. I searched around and from my understanding the mapping bypasses any Entity Framework name mapping and uses column name to property name. The names are the same and I'm not sure why it is only these two columns. The last part of the stored procedure is: SELECT t.ParentID ,t.ComponentID ,c.PartNumber ,t.PartsPath ,t.MyPath ,t.Layer ,c.[Description] ,loc.LocationID ,loc.LocationName ,CASE WHEN sup.SupplierID IS NULL THEN 1 ELSE sup.SupplierID END AS SupplierID ,CASE WHEN sup.SupplierName IS NULL THEN 'Scinomix' ELSE sup.SupplierName END AS SupplierName ,c.Active ,c.QA ,c.IsAssembly ,c.IsPurchasable ,c.IsMachined ,t.QtyRequired ,t.TotalQty FROM BuildProducts t INNER JOIN [dbo].[BOMComponent] c ON c.ComponentID = t.ComponentID LEFT JOIN [dbo].[BOMSupplier] bsup ON bsup.ComponentID = t.ComponentID AND bsup.IsDefault = 1 LEFT JOIN [dbo].[LookupSupplier] sup ON sup.SupplierID = bsup.SupplierID LEFT JOIN [dbo].[LookupLocation] loc ON loc.LocationID = c.LocationID WHERE (@IsAssembly IS NULL OR IsAssembly = @IsAssembly) ORDER BY t.MyPath and the class it maps to is: Public Class BOMComponentChild Public Property ParentID As Nullable(Of Integer) Public Property ComponentID As Integer Public Property PartNumber As String Public Property MyPath As String Public Property PartsPath As String Public Property Layer As Integer Public Property Description As String Public Property LocationID As Integer Public Property LocationName As String Public Property SupplierID As Integer Public Property SupplierName As String Public Property Active As Boolean Public Property QA As Boolean Public Property IsAssembly As Boolean Public Property IsPurchasable As Boolean Public Property IsMachined As Boolean Public Property QtyRequired As Integer Public Property TotalQty As Integer Public Property Children As IDictionary(Of String, BOMComponentChild) = New Dictionary(Of String, BOMComponentChild) End Class I am trying to call it like this: Me.Database.SqlQuery(Of BOMComponentChild)("EXEC [BOMComponentChild] @ComponentID, @PathPrefix, @IsAssembly", params).ToList() When I run the stored procedure in management studio, the columns are correct and not null. I just can't figure out why these won't map as they are the important information in the stored procedure. The types for PartsPath and MyPath are varchar(50).

    Read the article

  • C++ Design Question on template types

    - by user231536
    I have a templated class template <typename T> class MyContainerClass For types to be substituted for T, it has to satisfy many requirements: for example, get_id(), int data(), etc. Obviously none of the fundamental types (PODs) are substitutable. One way I can provide this is via wrappers for the PODs that provide these functions. Is this an acceptable way? Another way would be to change the template to: template < typename T, typename C=traits<T> > class MyContainerClass and inside MyContainerClass, call traits::data() instead of data() on T objects. I will specialize traits<int>, traits<const char *> etc. Is this good design ? How do I design such a traits class (completely static methods or allow for inheritance) ? Or are the wrapper classes a good solution? What other alternatives are there?

    Read the article

  • Should xml represent a set or a list?

    - by sixtyfootersdude
    I always think of xml like a set data structure. Ie: <class> <person>john</person> <person>sarah</person> </class> Is equivalent to: <class> <person>sarah</person> <person>john</person> </class> Question One: Are these two things logicly equivalant? Are you allowed to make things like this in xml? <methodCall> <param>happy</param> <param>sad</param> </methodCall> Or do you need to do it like this: <methodCall> <param arg="1">happy</param> <param arg="2">sad</param> </methodCall> Question Two: Are these two things logically equivalent? Question Three: Is xml usually treated like a set or a list?

    Read the article

  • Design issue when having classes implement different interfaces to restrict client actions

    - by devoured elysium
    Let's say I'm defining a game class that implements two different views: interface IPlayerView { void play(); } interface IDealerView { void deal(); } The view that a game sees when playing the game, and a view that the dealer sees when dealing the game (this is, a player can't make dealer actions and a dealer can't make player actions). The game definition is as following: class Game : IPlayerView, IDealerView { void play() { ... } void deal() { ... } } Now assume I want to make it possible for the players to play the game, but not to deal it. My original idea was that instead of having public Game GetGame() { ... } I'd have something like public IPlayerView GetGame() { ... } But after some tests I realized that if I later try this code, it works: IDealerView dealerView = (IDealerView)GameClass.GetGame(); this works as lets the user act as the dealer. Am I worrying to much? How do you usually deal with this patterns? I could instead make two different classes, maybe a "main" class, the dealer class, that would act as factory of player classes. That way I could control exactly what I would like to pass on the the public. On the other hand, that turns everything a bit more complex than with this original design. Thanks

    Read the article

  • move jQuery code to a function

    - by GSTAR
    I have the following jQuery code: $('.show-additional-link').click(function(){ $(this).parent().next().slideDown(); $(this).hide(); return false; }); HTML: <div class="row"> <label for="native_language">Select</label> <select name="native_language" id="native_language"> <option value="">Any</option> <option value="1">English</option> </select> <a class="show-additional-link" href="#">Select Additional Languages</a> </div> <div id="additional-languages" style="display: none;"> <a class="hide-additional-link" href="#">[hide]</a> <div class="row"> <!-- additional language checkboxes --> </div> </div> I would like to move the contents of my jQuery code (within the 'click' function) in to a separate function, as I will need to call it again on page load (after the form is submitted, so that the DIV is shown again automatically). I'm having trouble with this - can anyone help?

    Read the article

  • Database/Object Mapping

    - by Eric
    Hello everyone, This is a beginner question, but it's been frustrating me... I am using C#, by the way. I'd like to make a few classes, each with their own properties and methods. I would also like to have a database to store certain instances of these classes in case I would ever need to look at them again. So, for example... class Polygon { String name; Double perimiter; int numSides; public Double GetArea() { // ... } } class Circle { String name; Double radius; public void PrintName() { // ... } } Say I've got these classes. I also want a database that has the TABLES "Polygon" and "Circle" with the COLUMNS "name" "perimeter" "radius" etc. And I want an easy way to save a class instance into the database, or pull a class instance out of the database. I have previously been using MS Access for my database stuff, which I don't mind using, but I would prefer if nothing other than .NET need to be installed. I've been researching online a bit, but I wanted to get some opinions on here. I have looked at Linq-to-Sql, but it seems you need Sql-Server. Is this true? If so, I'd really rather not use it because I don't want to have to have it installed everywhere. Anway, I'm just fishing for some ideas/insights/suggestions/etc. so please help me out if you can. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Is it advisable to have an interface as the return type?

    - by wb
    I have a set of classes with the same functions but with different logic. However, each class function can return a number of objects. It is safe to set the return type as the interface? Each class (all using the same interface) is doing this with different business logic. protected IMessage validateReturnType; <-- This is in an abstract class public bool IsValid() <-- This is in an abstract class { return (validateReturnType.GetType() == typeof(Success)); } public IMessage Validate() { if (name.Length < 5) { validateReturnType = new Error("Name must be 5 characters or greater."); } else { validateReturnType = new Success("Name is valid."); } return validateReturnType; } Are there any pitfalls with unit testing the return type of an function? Also, is it considered bad design to have functions needing to be run in order for them to succeed? In this example, Validate() would have to be run before IsValid() or else IsValid() would always return false. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • C# generics with MVVM, pulling the T out of <T>

    - by bufferz
    My Model is a generic class that contains a (for example) Value property which can be int, float, string, bool, etc. So naturally this class is represented something like Model<T>. For the sake of collections Model<T> implements the interface IModel, although IModel is itself empty of any content. My ViewModel contains and instance of Model<T> and it is passed in through ViewModel's constructor. I still want to know what T is in ViewModel, so when I expose Model to the View I know the datatype of Model's buried Value property. The class for ViewModel ends up looking like the following: class ViewModel<T> { private Model<T> _model; public ViewModel(Model<T> model) { ....blah.... } public T ModelsValue {get; set; } } This works fine, but is limited. So now I need to expose a collection of IModels with varying Ts to my View, so I'm trying to set up an ObservableCollection of new ViewModel<T>s to a changing list of IModels. The problem is, I can't figure out how to get T from Model<T> from IModel to construct ViewModel<T>(Model<T>) at runtime. In the VS2010 debugger I can mouseover any IModel object and see its full Model<int> for example at runtime so I know the data is in there. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • BlackBerry 5.0 causing full menu to show on navigationClick

    - by jwadsack
    I have a BlackBerry app that is built for 4.5.x SDK. The first page of the app shows a list of fields and each field can be highlighted and clicked. The click action shows a new view with additional information about the field. This all works fine in 4.5, 4.6 and 4.7 and on the sim with 5.0. On a real 9000 running 5.0, when clicking the trackball on an item in the list, the full menu is showing rather than the click event getting consumed (or even fired) for the field. The view is derived from MainScreen and looks something like this: public class ListView extends MainScreen { public ItemCollection list = new ItemCollection; protected void sublayout( int maxWidth, int maxHeight ) { int i = 1; while(( item == (Item)list.nextElement()) != null) { ItemField field = new ItemField(item, i++); add(field); } } } This class does not consume navigationClick, but shouldn't need to, right? The field class does consume navigationClick event: public class ItemField extends Field { protected boolean navigationClick(int status, int time) { controller.showDeal(item.id, Session.current); return true; } } Is there something that changed in 5.0 that I need to add to have this app work the same for all platforms?

    Read the article

  • jQuery Fancy - popup window doesn't fully expand

    - by fmz
    I am using jQuery Fancybox to display a number of Flash videos on a site and I am having trouble with the window not opening fully on the first click in Firefox. It works fine in other browsers. Here is the jQuery: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("a.videoLink").fancybox({ 'titleShow' : false, 'autoscale' : true, 'width' : '820', 'height' : '620', 'transitionIn' : 'elastic', 'transitionOut' : 'elastic' }); }); </script> Here is the html: <tr> <td class="title"><a class="videoLink" href="#video-content30">CPR Lesson 1 Movie</a></td> <td class="time">38:39</td> <td class="video" style="display:none"> <div id="video-content30"> <script type='text/javascript'> var flashvars = { file: 'http://www.stockmarketcpr.com/smsys/link/CPR-Lesson-1-Movie.flv', id: '30' }; var params = { wmode: 'opaque', bgcolor: '#CCCCCC', allowfullscreen: 'true', allowscriptaccess: 'always' }; swfobject.embedSWF('http://www.stockmarketcpr.com/_flash/player.swf', 'player30','800','600', '9.0.0','expressInstall.swf', flashvars, params); </script> <div id="player30"></div> </div> </td> </tr> I end up getting a quarter inch high, full-width window on the first click. The second click plays fine. I would appreciate any assistance. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • How to best manage multi-frame MovieClips with classes?

    - by Arms
    After switching to AS3, I've been having a hell of a time figuring out the best way to manage MovieClips that have UI elements spread across multiple frames with a single class. An example that I am working on now is a simple email form. I have a MovieClip with two frames: the 1st frame has the form elements (text inputs, submit button) the 2nd frame has a "thank you" message and a button to go back to the first frame (to send another email) In the library I have linked the MovieClip to a custom class (Emailer). My immediate problem is how do I assign a MouseEvent.CLICK event to the button on the 2nd frame? I should note at this point that I am trying to avoid putting code on the timeline (except for stop() calls). This is how I am 'solving' the problem now: Emailer registers an event listener for a frame change ( addEventListener("frame 2", onFrameChange) ) On the 2nd frame of the MovieClip I am calling dispatchEvent(new Event("frame 2")); (I would prefer to not have this code on the frame, but I don't know what else to do) My two complaints with this method are that, first I have calls to addEventListener spread out across different class methods (I would rather have all UI event listeners registered in one method), and second that I have to dispatch those custom "onFrameChange" events. The second complaint grows exponentially for MovieClips that have more than just 2 frames. My so called solution feels makes me feel dirty and makes my brain hurt. I am looking for any advice on what to do differently. Perhaps there's a design pattern I should be looking at? Should I swallow my pride and write timeline code even though the rest of my application is written in class files (and I abhor the Flash IDE code editor)? I absolutely LOVE the event system, and have no problem coding applications with it, but I feel like I'm stuck thinking in terms of AS2 when working with mutl-frame movieclips and code. Any and all help would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • PHP contact form, am I doing it wrong?

    - by decimal
    I'm learning PHP and I'm trying to write a simple email script. I have a function (checkEmpty) to check if all the forms are filled in and if the email adress is valid (isEmailValid). I'm not sure how to return true checkEmpty funciton. Here's my code: When the submit button is clicked: if (isset($_POST['submit'])) { //INSERT FORM VALUES INTO AN ARRAY $field = array ('name' => $_POST['name'], 'email' => $_POST['email'], 'message' => $_POST['message']); //CONVERT ARRAY KEYS TO VARIABLE NAMES extract ($field); checkEmpty($name, $email, $message); function checkEmpty($name, $email, $message) { global $name_error; global $mail_error; global $message_error; //CHECK IF NAME FIELD IS EMPTY if (isset($name) === true && empty($name) === true) { $name_error = "<span class='error_text'>* Please enter your name</span>"; } //CHECK IF EMAIL IS EMPTY if (isset($email) === true && empty($email) === true) { $mail_error = "<span class='error_text'>* Please enter your email address</span>"; //AND IF IT ISN'T EMPTY CHECK IF IT IS A VALID ONE } elseif (!isValidEmail($email)) { $mail_error = "<span class='error_text'> * Please enter a valid email</span>"; } //CHECK IF MESSAGE IS EMPTY if (isset($message) === true && empty($message) === true) { $message_error = "<span class='error_text'>* Please enter your message</span>"; } } // This function tests whether the email address is valid function isValidEmail($email){ $pattern = "^[_a-z0-9-]+(\.[_a-z0-9-]+)*@[a-z0-9-]+(\.[a-z0-9-]+)*(\.[a-z]{2,3})$"; if (eregi($pattern, $email)) { return true; } else { return false; } } I know I shouldn't be using globals in the function, I don't know an alternative. The error messages are display beside each form element.

    Read the article

  • hibernate annotation bi-directional mapping

    - by smithystar
    I'm building a web application using Spring framework and Hibernate with annotation and get stuck with a simple mapping between two entities. I'm trying to create a many-to-many relationship between User and Course. I followed one of the Hibernate tutorials and my implementation is as follows: User class: @Entity @Table(name="USER") public class User { private Long id; private String email; private String password; private Set<Course> courses = new HashSet<Course>(0); @Id @GeneratedValue @Column(name="USER_ID") public Long getId() { return id; } public void setId(Long id) { this.id = id; } @Column(name="USER_EMAIL") public String getEmail() { return email; } public void setEmail(String email) { this.email = email; } @Column(name="USER_PASSWORD") public String getPassword() { return password; } public void setPassword(String password) { this.password = password; } @ManyToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL) @JoinTable(name = "USER_COURSE", joinColumns = { @JoinColumn(name = "USER_ID") }, inverseJoinColumns = { @JoinColumn(name = "COURSE_ID") }) public Set<Course> getCourses() { return courses; } public void setCourses(Set<Course> courses) { this.courses = courses; } } Course class: @Entity @Table(name="COURSE") public class Course { private Long id; private String name; @Id @GeneratedValue @Column(name="COURSE_ID") public Long getId() { return id; } public void setId(Long id) { this.id = id; } @Column(name="NAME") public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } } The problem is that this implementation only allows me to go one way user.getCourses() What do I need to change, so I can go in both directions? user.getCourses() course.getUsers() Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio 2010 compile error with std::string?

    - by AJG85
    So this is possibly the strangest thing I've seen recently and was curious how this could happen. The compiler gave me an error saying that std::string is undefined when used as a return type but not when used as a parameter in methods of a class! #pragma once #include <string> #include <vector> // forward declarations class CLocalReference; class CResultSetHandle; class MyClass { public: MyClass() {} ~MyClass {} void Retrieve(const CLocalReference& id, CResultSetHandle& rsh, std::string& item); // this is fine const std::string Retrieve(const CLocalReference& id, CResultSetHandle& rsh); // this fails with std::string is undefined?!?! }; Doing a Rebuild All it still happened I had to choose clean solution and then Rebuild All again after for the universe to realign. While it's resolved for the moment I'd still like to know what could have caused this because I'm at a loss as to why when there should be no conflicts especially when I always use fully qualified names for STL.

    Read the article

  • sending specific data into a collection partial

    - by mikeglaz
    I have a User class with a has_many :messages and a Message class which belongs_to :user. In the Message controller's show action has the corresponding view: <% if @messages.any? %> <ol class="microposts"> <%= render partial: 'shared/message', collection: @messages %> </ol> <% end %> And the shared/_message.html.erb template looks like this: <li id="<%= message.id %>"> <span class="content"><%= message.body %></span> <% user_id = message.from %> <% user = User.find(user_id) %> From: <%= user.name %> </li> I feel like the following two lines should be done in the Messages controller from what I read in tutorials on Rails: <% user_id = message.from %> <% user = User.find(user_id) %> But how would I pass each message's corresponding from value (which stores user.id) into the partial? thanks, mike

    Read the article

  • How to give user confirmation message before ActionLink based on validation

    - by RememberME
    I have the following link. On click, I'd like to check the item.primary_company field and if populated, give the user a warning and ask if they would like to continue. How can I do this? <a href="<%= Url.Action("Activate", new {id = item.company_id}) %>" class="fg=button fg-button-icon-solo ui-state-default ui-corner-all"><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-refresh"></span></a> EDIT I've changed to this, but nothing happens when clicked. Also, I don't know how to reference the item to do the check on the primary_company field. I only want to message to show if item.primary_company.HasValue. I'd also like to show item.company1.company_name in the confirm message. <a href="#" onclick="return Actionclick("<%= Url.Action("Activate", new {id = item.company_id}) %>");" class="fg=button fg-button-icon-solo ui-state-default ui-corner-all"><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-refresh"></span></a> <script type="text/javascript"> function Actionclick(url) { alert("myclick"); if ( confirm("Do you want to activate this company's primary company and all other subsidiaries?")) { location.href(url); } }; </script>

    Read the article

  • Design patterns for Caching Images in a MVC?

    - by Onema
    Hi, I'm designing an image cache system that will be used in an MVC CMS. The main purpose of the image cacher is to modify images: scale, crop, etc and cache them in the client site. I have created an image cache Model and Mapper that interact with the Database, to keep track of the images and know what kind of actions have been applied to them (scale, crop, etc). In addition to the Model and Mapper I have created a ImageCacher Class that is used by the API to manage the Model and image creation based on arguments passed by the client site, this class creates the images and generates the links to the images for the View. A coworker argued that I need to include the functionality of this last Class inside the Model, as the bulk of the logic should go in the model. I respectfully disagree with him since I feel the model's responsibility is to deal with the information about the images cached at the database level, and the responsibility of the ImageCacher Class is to create the url/image that we will be caching (keeping the single responsibility principle). In addition to this I believe that a model should not have Presentation-related features, like creating or showing images. Does anyone have any insight on this? is there a particular design pattern that would make this division of tasks clear and and the image cacher reusable? Should I add all the logic in the Model? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Use jquery ':contains' to find specific javascript within a span

    - by Rob
    This is my first time here, I hope that this is clear. So i will have code similar to this this. <span class="mediaSource ui-draggable" id="purchsePlay7915504"> <a href="" onclick="return popup_window(this, 'MediaView', 850, 680)" class="control" enter code hereid="GenericLink"></a> <img id="Any_71" alt="Media Source" src="images/9672web.gif" class="mediaStationIcons mediaWin"/> <img class="player" alt="Media Source" src="images/playmedia.gif" style="display: none;"/> </span> The href portion is generated on the backend, and I have no access to it. I need to modify some existing jquery code to do something based on what the 'onclick' function is(there are different ones e.g. popup_window1,popup_window2 etc.) . I tried something like this: $('.segmentLeft span.mediaSource').click(function(){ if ($('span:contains("popup_window")').length > 0) { do something } }); but it does not seem to work.

    Read the article

  • eliminating duplicate Enum code

    - by Don
    Hi, I have a large number of Enums that implement this interface: /** * Interface for an enumeration, each element of which can be uniquely identified by it's code */ public interface CodableEnum { /** * Get the element with a particular code * @param code * @return */ public CodableEnum getByCode(String code); /** * Get the code that identifies an element of the enum * @return */ public String getCode(); } A typical example is: public enum IMType implements CodableEnum { MSN_MESSENGER("msn_messenger"), GOOGLE_TALK("google_talk"), SKYPE("skype"), YAHOO_MESSENGER("yahoo_messenger"); private final String code; IMType (String code) { this.code = code; } public String getCode() { return code; } public IMType getByCode(String code) { for (IMType e : IMType.values()) { if (e.getCode().equalsIgnoreCase(code)) { return e; } } } } As you can imagine these methods are virtually identical in all implementations of CodableEnum. I would like to eliminate this duplication, but frankly don't know how. I tried using a class such as the following: public abstract class DefaultCodableEnum implements CodableEnum { private final String code; DefaultCodableEnum(String code) { this.code = code; } public String getCode() { return this.code; } public abstract CodableEnum getByCode(String code); } But this turns out to be fairly useless because: An enum cannot extend a class Elements of an enum (SKYPE, GOOGLE_TALK, etc.) cannot extend a class I cannot provide a default implementation of getByCode(), because DefaultCodableEnum is not itself an Enum. I tried changing DefaultCodableEnum to extend java.lang.Enum, but this doesn't appear to be allowed. Any suggestions that do not rely on reflection? Thanks, Don

    Read the article

  • DCI: How to implement Context with Dependency Injection?

    - by ciscoheat
    Most examples of a DCI Context are implemented as a Command pattern. When using Dependency Injection though, it's useful to have the dependencies injected in the constructor and send the parameters into the executing method. Compare the Command pattern class: public class SomeContext { private readonly SomeRole _someRole; private readonly IRepository<User> _userRepository; // Everything goes into the constructor for a true encapsuled command. public SomeContext(SomeRole someRole, IRepository<User> userRepository) { _someRole = someRole; _userRepository = userRepository; } public void Execute() { _someRole.DoStuff(_userRepository); } } With the Dependency injected class: public class SomeContext { private readonly IRepository<User> _userRepository; // Only what can be injected using the DI provider. public SomeContext(IRepository<User> userRepository) { _userRepository = userRepository; } // Parameters from the executing method public void Execute(SomeRole someRole) { someRole.DoStuff(_userRepository); } } The last one seems a bit nicer, but I've never seen it implemented like this so I'm curious if there are any things to consider.

    Read the article

  • c++ push_back doesn't work as it is supposed

    - by angela
    I have a class symbol_table that has a vector of objects of another class row_st.also I have an enter method where inserts objects of row_st with a passed name into the vector of desired symbol_table.but when I call the enter to enter objects with name : a;b;c;Iwill get the following result: a,b,c;b,c;c.the first element of vector gets the name of all the entered objects. and the second element also gets the name of the later entries. class row_st { public: char* name; type_u type;//int:0,flaot:1;char:2,bool:3,array: int offset; symbol_table *next; symbol_table *current; }; class symbol_table { public: vector <row_st *> row; int type; int header; int starting_stmt; int index; int i; symbol_table *previous; symbol_table(){ header=0; previous=0; index=0;i=0;starting_stmt=0;} }; and here it is the enter method: int enter(symbol_table *table,char* name,type_u type){ row_st *t=new row_st; t->name=name; t->type=type; t->offset=table->index; t->current=table; table->index++; t->next=0; table->row.push_back(t); table->header +=1; return table->row.size()-1; } the push_backed elements all points to the same address.the new call makes the same row_st every time it is called.what should I do?

    Read the article

  • object references an unsaved transient instance

    - by developer
    Hi, I have 2 tables, user and userprofile, both with almost identical fields. user table references userprofile table by primary key ID. My requirement is that on click of a button I need to dump user table record to userprofile table. Now for a particular user table, if there is a corresponding userprofile entry, I am successfully able to dump the data, but if there is no record in userprofile table then I need to create a new record by dumping all the data. My problem is that I am able to update the data when the record is present in userprofile table, but in the case wherein I have to create a new record I get the below error "object references an unsaved transient instance - save the transient instance before flushing". `<class name="User"> <id name="ID" type="Int32"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <many-to-one name="Pid" class="UserProfile" /> </class>` UserProfile is another table and Pid above references the Primary key ID of UserProfile table.

    Read the article

  • C#: Passing data to forms UI using BeginInvoke

    - by Bi
    Hi I am a C# newbie and have a class that needs to pass row information to a grid in the windows form. What is the best way to do it? I have put in some example code for better understanding. Thanks. public class GUIController { private My_Main myWindow; public GUIController( My_Main window ) { myWindow = window; } public void UpdateProducts( List<myProduct> newList ) { object[] row = new object[3]; foreach (myProduct product in newList) { row[0] = product.Name; row[1] = product.Status; row[2] = product.Day; //HOW DO I USE BeginInvoke HERE? } } } And the form class below: public class My_Main : Form { //HOW DO I GO ABOUT USING THIS DELEGATE? public delegate void ProductDelegate( string[] row ); public static My_Main theWindow = null; static void Main( ) { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); theWindow = new My_Main(); Application.Run(theWindow); } private void My_Main_Load( object sender, EventArgs e ) { /// Create GUIController and pass the window object gui = new GUIController( this ); } public void PopulateGrid( string[] row ) { ProductsGrid.Rows.Add(row); ProductsGrid.Update(); } } Thanks!

    Read the article

  • PHP classes, parse syntax errors when using 'var' to declare variables

    - by jon
    I am a C# guy trying to translate some of my OOP understanding over to php. I'm trying to make my first class object, and are hitting a few hitches. Here is the beginning of the class: <?php require("Database/UserDB.php"); class User { private var $uid; private var $username; private var $password; private var $realname; private var $email; private var $address; private var $phone; private var $projectArray; public function _construct($username) { $userArray = UserDB::GetUserArray($username); $uid = $userArray['uid']; $username = $userArray['username']; $realname = $userArray['realname']; $email = $userArray['email']; $phone = $userArray['phone']; $i = 1; $projectArray = UserDB::GetUserProjects($this->GetID()); while($projectArray[$i] != null) { $projectArray[$i] = new Project($projectArray[$i]); } UserDB.php is where I have all my static functions interacting with the Database for this User Class. I am getting errors using when I use var, and I'm getting confused. I know I don't HAVE to use var, or declare the variables at all, but I feel it is a better practice to do so. the error is "unexpected T_VAR, expecting T_VARIABLE" When I simply remove var from the declarations it works. Why is this?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 499 500 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510  | Next Page >