Search Results

Search found 15087 results on 604 pages for 'copy constructor'.

Page 503/604 | < Previous Page | 499 500 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510  | Next Page >

  • RSS feed generated by SharePoint has a stylesheet tag and how to remove that

    - by iHeartDucks
    The feed which SharePoint Generates is here (I copied it to pastie because I thought it would be clear there) However, the xml file comes with a style sheet tag. How do I remove that? Does SharePoint always generate that? Due to the presence of that tag, I am unable to apply another style sheet of my own using the XML WebPart. EDIT: I don't think the issue is related to the style sheet. If I copy the xml and paste it in the "Xml Editor" of the Web Part everything works just fine. If I provide the URL, that is when I do not see any data. This is my XSL file <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" exclude-result-prefixes="x d ddwrt xsl msxsl" xmlns:x="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/dsp" xmlns:ddwrt="http://schemas.microsoft.com/WebParts/v2/DataView/runtime" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:msxsl="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xslt"> <xsl:output method="html" version="1.0" encoding="iso-8859-1" indent="yes"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:value-of select="count(rss)" /> <xsl:value-of select="count(rss/channel)" /> <xsl:value-of select="count(rss/channel/item)" /> <xsl:for-each select="rss/channel/item"> <xsl:value-of select="title" /> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> Pastie link

    Read the article

  • How do I apply a "template" or "skeleton" of code in C# here?

    - by Scott Stafford
    In my business layer, I need many, many methods that follow the pattern: public BusinessClass PropertyName { get { if (this.m_LocallyCachedValue == null) { if (this.Record == null) { this.m_LocallyCachedValue = new BusinessClass( this.Database, this.PropertyId); } else { this.m_LocallyCachedValue = new BusinessClass( this.Database, this.Record.ForeignKeyName); } } return this.m_LocallyCachedValue; } } I am still learning C#, and I'm trying to figure out the best way to write this pattern once and add methods to each business layer class that follow this pattern with the proper types and variable names substituted. BusinessClass is a typename that must be substituted, and PropertyName, PropertyId, ForeignKeyName, and m_LocallyCachedValue are all variables that should be substituted for. Are attributes usable here? Do I need reflection? How do I write the skeleton I provided in one place and then just write a line or two containing the substitution parameters and get the pattern to propagate itself? EDIT: Modified my misleading title -- I am hoping to find a solution that doesn't involve code generation or copy/paste techniques, and rather to be able to write the skeleton of the code once in a base class in some form and have it be "instantiated" into lots of subclasses as the accessor for various properties. EDIT: Here is my solution, as suggested but left unimplemented by the chosen answerer. // I'll write many of these... public BusinessClass PropertyName { get { return GetSingleRelation(ref this.m_LocallyCachedValue, this.PropertyId, "ForeignKeyName"); } } // That all call this. public TBusinessClass GetSingleRelation<TBusinessClass>( ref TBusinessClass cachedField, int fieldId, string contextFieldName) { if (cachedField == null) { if (this.Record == null) { ConstructorInfo ci = typeof(TBusinessClass).GetConstructor( new Type[] { this.Database.GetType(), typeof(int) }); cachedField = (TBusinessClass)ci.Invoke( new object[] { this.Database, fieldId }); } else { var obj = this.Record.GetType().GetProperty(objName).GetValue( this.Record, null); ConstructorInfo ci = typeof(TBusinessClass).GetConstructor( new Type[] { this.Database.GetType(), obj.GetType()}); cachedField = (TBusinessClass)ci.Invoke( new object[] { this.Database, obj }); } } return cachedField; }

    Read the article

  • Email as a view.

    - by Hal
    I've been in some discussion recently about where email (notifications, etc...) should be sent in an ASP.NET MVC application. My nemesis grin argues that it only makes sense that the email should be sent from the controller. I argue that an email is simply an alternate or augmented view through a different channel. Much like I would download a file as the payload of an ActionResult, the email is simply delivered through a different protocol. I've worked an extension method that allows me to do the following: <% Html.RenderEmail(model.FromAddress, model.ToAddress, model.Subject); %> which I actually include within my the view that is displayed on the screen. The beauty is that, based on convention, if I call RenderEmail from a parent view named MyView.ascx, I attempt to render the contents of a view named MyViewEmail.ascx, unless it is not found, in which case I simply email a copy of parent view. It certainly does make it testable (I still have an ISMTPService injected for testing), I wondered if anyone had any thoughts on whether or not this breaks from good practice. In use it has been extremely handy when we needed to easily send an email or modify the contents of the emailed results vs the browser rendered results. Thanks, Hal

    Read the article

  • Position Div using Javascript on page refresh

    - by Jonathan Lyon
    Hi all I have a div that I would like to reposition each time the page is refreshed. It is currently set in the css using top and left. I wold like to pass the top and left values on page refresh. #inneriframe { position:absolute; top:-170px; left:-5px; width:1280px; height:1200px; } The content is from another site and contained in an iframe and I want the viewport of the div to change(within certain limits) each time the page is refreshed. The original page is here http://labs.ideeinc.com/multicolr#colors=8438AD; I have iFramed part of it here http://www.weninja.com/what-we-do Full code <style type="text/css"> #outerdiv { width:280px; height:150px; overflow:hidden; position:relative; } #inneriframe { position:absolute; top:-170px; left:-5px; width:1280px; height:1200px; } </style> <div id='outerdiv'> <iframe src="http://labs.ideeinc.com/multicolr#colors=8438AD;" id='inneriframe' scrolling=no></iframe> </div> <h5>Multicolr Search Lab &copy; 2008 Idee Inc</h5> So basically I just need to change the TOP and LEFT values for the div #inneriframe to have different images show - is this possible? Thanks Jonathan

    Read the article

  • Executing sequential stored procedures; works in query analyzer, doesn't in my .NET application

    - by evanmortland
    Hello, I have an audit record table that I am writing to. I am connecting to MyDb, which has a stored procedure called 'CreateAudit', which is a passthrough stored procedure to another database on the same machine called MyOther DB with a stored procedure called 'CreatedAudit' as well. In other words in MyDB I have CreateAudit, which does the following EXEC dbo.MyOtherDB.CreateAudit. I call the MyDb CreateAudit stored procedure from my application, using subsonic as the DAL. The first time I call it, I call it with the following (pseudocode): Result = CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") One line after that, I call: Result2 = CreateAudit(recordId, "Closed") In my second stored procedure it is supposed to mark the record that was created by the CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") with a status of closed. It works great if I run them independently of one another, but when they run in sequence in the application, the record is not marked as "Closed". When I run SQL profiler I see that both queries ran, and if I copy the queries out and run them from query analyzer the record gets marked as closed 100% of the time! When I run it from the application, about once every 20 times or so, the record is successfully marked closed - the other 19 times nothing happens, but I do not get an error! Is it possible for the .NET app to skip over the ouput from the first stored procedure and start executing the second stored procedure before the record in the first is created? When I add a "WAITFOR DELAY '00:00:00:003'" to the top of my stored procedure, the record is also closed 100% of the time. My head is spinning, any ideas why this is happening! Thanks for any responses, very interested in hearing how this can happen.

    Read the article

  • Jquery dynamic button : how to bind to exisitng click event by class

    - by omer bach
    I have a click event triggered by the class selector inside the jquery ready scope: $(".testBtn").click(function() { alert("This Works"); }); This works fine for static buttons how ever this doesn't work for dynamic buttons which are added upon clicking the button with "addRowBtn" id. I'm guessing that it has something to do with that the button is created after the event is registered but still the new button has the 'testBtn' class so it makes sense it should work. Any idea what am i doing wrong and how to make the dynamic buttons registered to the class selector click event? Here is the whole code, you can copy and paste into an html, click the 'add button' and try to click the added buttons. you'll see nothing happens. <html> <head> <script src='http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1/jquery.min.js'></script> <script src='http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1/jquery-ui.min.js'></script> <script> $(function() { $(".addRowBtn").click(function() { $("#mainTable tr:last").after("<tr><td><button class='testBtn'>NotWorking</button></td></tr>"); }); $(".testBtn").click(function() { alert("This Works"); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <table id="mainTable"> <button class="addRowBtn">Add button</button> <tr><th>Testing</th></tr> <tr><td><button class='testBtn'>Working</button></td></tr> </table> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Colorbox does not refresh its contents when I change URL

    - by Josef Sábl
    I am trying to make use of Colorbox on my webpage. One specific feature does not work as expected, though. In their example (Outside Webpage - Iframe specifically) Google appears in the Colorbox when clicked. When you change href on that link (Using Firebug or JavaScript, e.g.) to, let's say, Yahoo, it works as expected and Yahoo is displayed after click. But not in my case. Once I click the link, I have no way to change the URL. Href, as displayed in browser, changes (to Yahoo), but click always opens the first page (Google). What might be the problem? I almost copy-pasted their example: <script src="/lib/jquery.js"></script> <script src="/lib/jquery.colorbox.js"></script> <p><a class='example7' href="http://yahoo.com">Outside Webpage (Iframe)</a></p> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $(".example7").colorbox({width:"80%", height:"80%", iframe:true}); }); </script> My jquery version is 1.4.1 but I also tried same version as their example uses (1.3.2)

    Read the article

  • importing a large txt file in MySQL ?

    - by Taz
    Hi I am loading a text data in MySQL using the following command 'mysql> Load Data local Infile 'C:\\Documents and Settings\\Scan\\My Documents\\D ownloads\\instance_types_en.nt\\Copy of instance_types_en.txt' into table dbpedi aentities.resources fields terminated by ' ' lines terminated by 'rn';' Data is like (actually there is a newline after '.') <a> <b> <c> . <a> <b> <c> . <a> <b> <c> . <a> <b> <c> .<a> <b> <c> . <a> <b> <c> . Table has and auto increment ID field and then text fields for all three values. File size is about 750MB The problems are 1. appears to be in first text field 2. only 2MB data is imported

    Read the article

  • Auto populate a text field based on another text field

    - by Syed Aslam
    I am trying to auto-populate a text field based on the value of another input field. Currently trying to do this using observe_field helper like this: <%= observe_field( :account_name, :function => "alert('Name changed!')", :on => 'keyup' ) %> <% form_for(@account, :html => { :id => 'theform' }) do |f| %> <label for="accountname"> Account name </label> <%= form.text_field :name, :tabindex => '1' %> <label for="subdomain"> Subdomain </label> <%= form.text_field :subdomain, :tabindex => '2' %> <% end %> When the user enters text in the account_name text_field, I want to copy that convert into a subdomain (downcase and join by '-') and populate to subdomain text_field. But, in the process getting this error: element is null var method = element.tagName.toLowerCase(); protot...9227640 (line 3588) Where exactly am I going wrong here? Or is there a better way to do this?

    Read the article

  • When are SQL views appropriate in ASP.net MVC?

    - by sslepian
    I've got a table called Protocol, a table called Eligibility, and a Protocol_Eligibilty table that maps the two together (a many to many relationship). If I wanted to make a perfect copy of an entry in the Protocol table, and create all the needed mappings in the Protocol_Eligibility table, would using an SQL view be helpful, from a performance standpoint? Protocol will have around 1000 rows, Eligibility will have about 200, and I expect each Protocol to map to about 10 Eligibility rows and each Eligibility to map to over 100 rows in Protocol. Here's how I'm doing this with the view: var pel_original = (from pel in _documentDataModel.Protocol_Eligibility_View where pel.pid == id select pel); Protocol_Eligibility newEligibility; foreach (var pel_item in pel_original) { newEligibility = new Protocol_Eligibility(); newEligibility.Eligibility = (from pel in _documentDataModel.Eligibility where pel.ID == pel_item.eid select pel).First(); newEligibility.Protocol = newProtocol; newEligibility.ordering = pel_item.ordering; _documentDataModel.AddToProtocol_Eligibility(newEligibility); } And this is without the view: var pel_original = (from pel in _documentDataModel.Protocol_Eligibility where pel.Protocol.ID == id select pel); Protocol_Eligibility newEligibility; foreach (var pel_item in pel_original) { pel_item.EligibilityReference.Load(); newEligibility = new Protocol_Eligibility(); newEligibility.Eligibility = pel_item.Eligibility; newEligibility.Protocol = newProtocol; newEligibility.ordering = pel_item.ordering; _documentDataModel.AddToProtocol_Eligibility(newEligibility); }

    Read the article

  • How to install Eclipse + PHP Development Tools (PDT) + Debugger on Mac in The Year 2010

    - by aphex5
    I had a lot of trouble installing Eclipse and PDT on my system. It took two days, largely because all the tutorials I could find were out of date (written in 2008, it's 2010 now) and various steps they included were no longer necessary, broken, or irrelevant. I wanted to write my process here so it could be improved upon (via wiki) as time goes on. Install Eclipse without PHP plugin ("Eclipse Classic"). This will give you a complete Eclipse, which I find preferable, as the UI is more fleshed out (e.g. you get a default list of Perspectives, which helps you understand what Perspectives are.) Install PDT SDK with the Help Install New Software menu item. You'd think you'd be done here, but if you try to run something, it'll fail complaining of not having a debugger. Install the Zend Debugger. It'll fail if you try to use the Install New Software option, as many tutorials suggest ("No repository found containing osgi.bundle.org.zend.php.debug.debugger.5.3.7.v20091116".) Instead, download it from http://www.zend.com/en/community/pdt, and manually copy the features/ and plugins/ directory into your Eclipse install (these instructions are not written anywhere). Restart Eclipse Monkey with preferences for a while -- if you followed a previous tutorial and tried to manually add your php executable to Eclipse prefs (/usr/bin/php), remove it (PHP PHP Executables). Set one of the Zend Debugger executables to the default. If you've already tried to execute a .php file, remove the existing "Run" profile you (maybe weren't aware that you) created (Run Debug Configurations...). Eclipse works! You should be able to run a .php file as a script just fine.

    Read the article

  • Updating a local sqlite db that is used for local metadata & caching from an service?

    - by Pharaun
    I've searched through the site and haven't found a question/answer that quite answer my question, the closest one I found was: Syncing objects between two disparate systems best approach. Anyway to begun, because there is no RSS feeds available, I'm screen scrapping a webpage, hence it does a fetch then it goes through the webpage to scrap out all of the information that I'm interested in and dumps that information into a sqlite database so that I can query the information at my leisure without doing repeat fetching from the website. However I'm also storing various metadata on the data itself that is stored in the sqlite db, such as: have I looked at the data, is the data new/old, bookmark to a chunk of data (Think of it as a collection of unrelated data, and the bookmark is just a pointer to where I am in processing/reading of the said data). So right now my current problem is trying to figure out how to update the local sqlite database with new data and/or changed data from the website in a manner that is effective and straightforward. Here's my current idea: Download the page itself Create a temporary table for the parsed data to go into Do a comparison between the official and the temporary table and copy updates and/or new information to the official table This process seems kind of complicated because I would have to figure out how to determine if the data in the temporary table is new, updated, or unchanged. So I am wondering if there isn't a better approach or if anyone has any suggestion on how to architecture/structure such system?

    Read the article

  • VEMap and a GeoRSS feed(hosted separately)

    - by Alexis Abril
    The scenario is as follows: A WCF web service exists that outputs a valid GeoRSS feed. This lives in its own domain as a number of different applications have access to it. A web page(on a different site) has been created with an instance of a VEMap(Bing/Virtual Earth map object). Now, VEMap can accept an input feed in this format via the following: var layer = new VEShapeLayer(); var veLayerSpec = new VEShapeSourceSpecification(VEDataType.GeoRSS, "someurl", layer); map.ImportShapeLayerData(veLayerSpec, onComplete, true); onComplete is a callback function I'm using to replace the default pin graphic with something custom. The question is in regards to "someurl", which is a path to a local xml file containing the geographic information(georss simple format). I've realized this feed and the map must be hosted in the same domain, so I've created a generic handler that reads the remote feed and returns it in the same format. var veLayerSpec = new VEShapeSourceSpecification(VEDataType.GeoRSS, "/somelocalhandler.ashx", layer); When I do this, I get the VEMap error("z is null"). This is the same error one would receive when trying to access a remote feed. When I copy the feed into a local xml file(ie, "feed.xml") there is no error. The order of operations is currently: remote feed - local handler - VEMap import If I'm over complicating this procedure, let me know! I'm a bit new to the Bing Maps API and might have missed something. Any assistance is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Decoding a jpg in the background in WP7

    - by Shahar Prish
    I have a bunch of apps in the marketplace, and so far I have been able, by changing my functionality or going the extra mile, to work around the issue of being unable to decode a jpg in the background into a WriteableBitmap. I am finding a situation where I can't think of good ways to "work around" the issue. I need to decode the image I get from MediaLibrary, reduce it's resolution to something managable (800x800), rotate it potentially and save to local storage. By far, the thing that takes the most time (80%) is decoding the bitmap to 800x800 - it takes between 700ms to 1000 ms. A user may add 7-10 images when starting, which translates to ~10 seconds of waiting for the images being added. I tried doing this lazily, but at some point you need to pay the piper and the app essentially stutters for ~1000ms at that point and the experience is not great. Is there an alternative I am missing for loading the image in the background somehow? (Note on why CreateOptions.BackgroundCreation is no good for me: It loads the image into a BitmapImage which is great if you want to just use it, but not so great for what I need to do which is create a copy in Isolated Storage).

    Read the article

  • How to deploy SQL Reporting 2005 when Data Sources are locked?

    - by spoulson
    The DBAs here maintain all SQL Server and SQL Reporting servers. I have a custom developed SQL Reporting 2005 project in Visual Studio that runs fine on my local SQL Database and Reporting instances. I need to deploy to a production server, so I had a folder created on a SQL Reporting 2005 server with permissions to upload files. Normally, a deploy from within Visual Studio is all that is needed to upload the report files. However, for security purposes, data sources are maintained explicitly by DBAs and stored in a separated locked down common folder on the reporting server. I had them create the data source for me. When I attempt to deploy from VS, it gives me the error "The item '/Data Sources' already exists." I get this whether I'm deploying the whole project or just a single report file. I already set OverwriteDataSources=false in the project properties. The TargetServer URL and folder are verified correct. I suppose I could copy the files manually, but I'd like to be able to deploy from within VS. What could I be doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • How do I view the full content of a text or varchar(MAX) column in SQL Server 2008 Management Studio

    - by adamjford
    In this live SQL Server 2008 (build 10.0.1600) database, there's an Events table, which contains a text column named Details. (Yes, I realize this should actually be a varchar(MAX) column, but whoever set this database up did not do it that way.) This column contains very large logs of exceptions and associated JSON data that I'm trying to access through SQL Server Management Studio, but whenever I copy the results from the grid to a text editor, it truncates it at 43679 characters. I've read on various locations on the Internet that you can set your Maximum Characters Retrieved for XML Data in Tools > Options > Query Results > SQL Server > Results To Grid to Unlimited, and then perform a query such as this: select Convert(xml, Details) from Events where EventID = 13920 (Note that the data is column is not XML at all. CONVERTing the column to XML is merely a workaround I found from Googling that someone else has used to get around the limit SSMS has from retrieving data from a text or varchar(MAX) column.) However, after setting the option above, running the query, and clicking on the link in the result, I still get the following error: Unable to show XML. The following error happened: Unexpected end of file has occurred. Line 5, position 220160. One solution is to increase the number of characters retrieved from the server for XML data. To change this setting, on the Tools menu, click Options. So, any idea on how to access this data? Would converting the column to varchar(MAX) fix my woes?

    Read the article

  • Ant: How to force java compilation if classpath jars have changed but sources have not

    - by Ittai
    Hi, I have the following usecase: I have a java project (myProj) which uses a common.jar from a different project(common). I want the javac ant task to work even if the sources of myProj have not changed if the common.jar has changed (as the sources of myProj depend of it and might be invalid now). I have a task which copies the common.jar from a central location to the myProj lib if it has changed and I can use it to set a property whether or not to "force" compilation so that end is taken care of. I'm not sure how (or if) I can tell the javac task to try and compile anyway? I don't want to change myProj's sources (or timestamps) so that the task will start. Excerpt from the ant build.xml file: <path id="project.class.path"> <pathelement location... /> ... <fileset dir="lib" includes="**/*.jar" /> </path> <target name="copyLibs" > <copy file="${central.loc}/common.jar" todir="lib" /> ... </target> <target name="javac" > <javac srcdir="src" includes="**" excludes=... > <classpath refid="project.class.path"/> </javac> </target> Thanks in advance, Ittai

    Read the article

  • How do i select the preceding nodes of a text node starting from a specific node and not the root no

    - by Rachel
    How do i select the preceding nodes of a text node starting from a specific node whose id i know instead of getting the text nodes from the root node? When i invoke the below piece from a template match of text node, I get all the preceding text nodes from the root. I want to modify the above piece of code to select only the text nodes that appear after the node having a specific id say 123. i.e something like //*[@id='123'] <xsl:template match="text()[. is $text-to-split]"> <xsl:variable name="split-index" as="xsd:integer" select="$index - sum(preceding::text()/string-length(.))"/> <xsl:value-of select="substring(., 1, $split-index - 1)"/> <xsl:copy-of select="$new"/> <xsl:value-of select="substring(., $split-index)"/> </xsl:template> <xsl:variable name="text-to-split" as="text()?" select="descendant::text()[sum((preceding::text(), .)/string-length(.)) ge $index][1]"/> How do i include the condition in places where i use preceding::text inorder to select preceding text nodes relative to the specific node's id which i know?

    Read the article

  • Combining multiple rows into one row, Oracle

    - by Torbjørn
    Hi. I'm working with a database which is created in Oracle and used in a GIS-software through SDE. One of my colleuges is going to make some statistics out of this database and I'm not capable of finding a reasonable SQL-query for getting the data. I have two tables, one with registrations and one with registrationdetails. It's a one to many relationship, so the registration can have one or more details connected to it (no maximum number). table: Registration RegistrationID Date TotLenght 1 01.01.2010 5 2 01.02.2010 15 3 05.02.2009 10 2.table: RegistrationDetail DetailID RegistrationID Owner Type Distance 1 1 TD UB 1,5 2 1 AB US 2 3 1 TD UQ 4 4 2 AB UQ 13 5 2 AB UR 13,1 6 3 TD US 5 I want the resulting selection to be something like this: RegistrationID Date TotLenght DetailID RegistrationID Owner Type Distance DetailID RegistrationID Owner Type Distance DetailID RegistrationID Owner Type Distance 1 01.01.2010 5 1 1 TD UB 1,5 2 1 AB US 2 3 1 TD UQ 4 2 01.02.2010 15 4 2 AB UQ 13 5 2 AB UR 13,1 3 05.02.2009 10 6 3 TD US 5 With a normal join I get one row per each registration and detail. Can anyone help me with this? I don't have administrator-rights for the database, so I can't create any tables or variables. If it's possible, I could copy the tables into Access.

    Read the article

  • Get the signed/unsigned variant of an integer template parameter without explicit traits

    - by Blair Holloway
    I am looking to define a template class whose template parameter will always be an integer type. The class will contain two members, one of type T, and the other as the unsigned variant of type T -- i.e. if T == int, then T_Unsigned == unsigned int. My first instinct was to do this: template <typename T> class Range { typedef unsigned T T_Unsigned; // does not compile public: Range(T min, T_Unsigned range); private: T m_min; T_Unsigned m_range; }; But it doesn't work. I then thought about using partial template specialization, like so: template <typename T> struct UnsignedType {}; // deliberately empty template <> struct UnsignedType<int> { typedef unsigned int Type; }; template <typename T> class Range { typedef UnsignedType<T>::Type T_Unsigned; /* ... */ }; This works, so long as you partially specialize UnsignedType for every integer type. It's a little bit of additional copy-paste work (slash judicious use of macros), but serviceable. However, I'm now curious - is there another way of determining the signed-ness of an integer type, and/or using the unsigned variant of a type, without having to manually define a Traits class per-type? Or is this the only way to do it?

    Read the article

  • Which cast am I using?

    - by Knowing me knowing you
    I'm trying to cast away const from an object but it doesn't work. But if I use old C-way of casting code compiles. So which casting I'm suppose to use to achieve this same effect? I wouldn't like to cast the old way. //file IntSet.h #include "stdafx.h" #pragma once /*Class representing set of integers*/ template<class T> class IntSet { private: T** myData_; std::size_t mySize_; std::size_t myIndex_; public: #pragma region ctor/dtor explicit IntSet(); virtual ~IntSet(); #pragma endregion #pragma region publicInterface IntSet makeUnion(const IntSet&)const; IntSet makeIntersection(const IntSet&)const; IntSet makeSymmetricDifference(const IntSet&)const; void insert(const T&); #pragma endregion }; //file IntSet_impl.h #include "StdAfx.h" #include "IntSet.h" #pragma region ctor/dtor template<class T> IntSet<T>::IntSet():myData_(nullptr), mySize_(0), myIndex_(0) { } IntSet<T>::~IntSet() { } #pragma endregion #pragma region publicInterface template<class T> void IntSet<T>::insert(const T& obj) { /*Check if we are initialized*/ if (mySize_ == 0) { mySize_ = 1; myData_ = new T*[mySize_]; } /*Check if we have place to insert obj in.*/ if (myIndex_ < mySize_) {//IS IT SAFE TO INCREMENT myIndex while assigning? myData_[myIndex_++] = &T(obj);//IF I DO IT THE OLD WAY IT WORKS return; } /*We didn't have enough place...*/ T** tmp = new T*[mySize_];//for copying old to temporary basket std::copy(&myData_[0],&myData_[mySize_],&tmp[0]); } #pragma endregion Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How can I convert a bunch of files from ISO-8859-1 to UTF-8 using Perl?

    - by tau
    I have several documents I need to convert from ISO-8859-1 to UTF-8 (without the BOM of course). This is the issue though. I have so many of these documents (it is actually a mix of documents, some UTF-8 and some ISO-8859-1) that I need an automated way of converting them. Unfortunately I only have ActivePerl installed and don't know much about encoding in that language. I may be able to install PHP, but I am not sure as this is not my personal computer. Just so you know, I use Scite or Notepad++, but both do not convert correctly. For example, if I open a document in Czech that contains the character "ž" and go to the "Convert to UTF-8" option in Notepad++, it incorrectly converts it to an unreadable character. There is a way I CAN convert them, but it is tedious. If I open the document with the special characters and copy the document to Windows clipboard, then paste it into a UTF-8 document and save it, it is okay. This is too tedious (opening every file and copying/pasting into a new document) for the amount of documents I have. Any ideas? Thanks!!!

    Read the article

  • How do I overwrite a file currently being read by Python

    - by Brian
    Hi guys, I am not too sure the best way to word this, but what I want to do, is read a pdf file, make various modifications, and save the modified pdf over the original file. As of now, I am able to save the modified pdf to a separate file, but I am looking to replace the original, not create a new file. Here is my current code: from pyPdf import PdfFileWriter, PdfFileReader output = PdfFileWriter() input = PdfFileReader(file('input.pdf', 'rb')) blank = PdfFileReader(file('C:\\BLANK.pdf', 'rb')) # Copy the input pdf to the output. for page in range(int(input.getNumPages())): output.addPage(input.getPage(page)) # Add a blank page if needed. if (input.getNumPages() % 2 != 0): output.addPage(blank.getPage(0)) # Write the output to pdf. outputStream = file('input.pdf', 'wb') output.write(outputStream) outputStream.close() If i change the outputStream to a different file name, it works fine, I just cant save over the input file because it is still being used. I have tried to .close() the stream, but it was giving me errors as well. I have a feeling this has a fairly simple solution, I just haven't had any luck finding it. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Return a list of imported Python modules used in a script?

    - by Jono Bacon
    Hi All, I am writing a program that categorizes a list of Python files by which modules they import. As such I need to scan the collection of .py files ad return a list of which modules they import. As an example, if one of the files I import has the following lines: import os import sys, gtk I would like it to return: ["os", "sys", "gtk"] I played with modulefinder and wrote: from modulefinder import ModuleFinder finder = ModuleFinder() finder.run_script('testscript.py') print 'Loaded modules:' for name, mod in finder.modules.iteritems(): print '%s ' % name, but this returns more than just the modules used in the script. As an example in a script which merely has: import os print os.getenv('USERNAME') The modules returned from the ModuleFinder script return: tokenize heapq __future__ copy_reg sre_compile _collections cStringIO _sre functools random cPickle __builtin__ subprocess cmd gc __main__ operator array select _heapq _threading_local abc _bisect posixpath _random os2emxpath tempfile errno pprint binascii token sre_constants re _abcoll collections ntpath threading opcode _struct _warnings math shlex fcntl genericpath stat string warnings UserDict inspect repr struct sys pwd imp getopt readline copy bdb types strop _functools keyword thread StringIO bisect pickle signal traceback difflib marshal linecache itertools dummy_thread posix doctest unittest time sre_parse os pdb dis ...whereas I just want it to return 'os', as that was the module used in the script. Can anyone help me achieve this?

    Read the article

  • Handling missing/incomplete data in R--is there function to mask but not remove NAs?

    - by doug
    As you would expect from a DSL aimed at data analysis, R handles missing/incomplete data very well, for instance: Many R functions have an 'na.rm' flag that you can set to 'T' to remove the NAs: mean( c(5,6,12,87,9,NA,43,67), na.rm=T) But if you want to deal with NAs before the function call, you need to do something like this: to remove each 'NA' from a vector: vx = vx[!is.na(a)] to remove each 'NA' from a vector and replace it w/ a '0': ifelse(is.na(vx), 0, vx) to remove entire each row that contains 'NA' from a data frame: dfx = dfx[complete.cases(dfx),] All of these functions permanently remove 'NA' or rows with an 'NA' in them. Sometimes this isn't quite what you want though--making an 'NA'-excised copy of the data frame might be necessary for the next step in the workflow but in subsequent steps you often want those rows back (e.g., to calculate a column-wise statistic for a column that has missing rows caused by a prior call to 'complete cases' yet that column has no 'NA' values in it). to be as clear as possible about what i'm looking for: python/numpy has a class, 'masked array', with a 'mask' method, which lets you conceal--but not remove--NAs during a function call. Is there an analogous function in R?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 499 500 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510  | Next Page >