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  • .NET asmx web services: serialize object property as string property to support versioning

    - by mcliedtk
    I am in the process of upgrading our web services to support versioning. We will be publishing our versioned web services like so: http://localhost/project/services/1.0/service.asmx http://localhost/project/services/1.1/service.asmx One requirement of this versioning is that I am not allowed to break the original wsdl (the 1.0 wsdl). The challenge lies in how to shepherd the newly versioned classes through the logic that lies behind the web services (this logic includes a number of command and adapter classes). Note that upgrading to WCF is not an option at the moment. To illustrate this, let's consider an example with Blogs and Posts. Prior to the introduction of versions, we were passing concrete objects around instead of interfaces. So an AddPostToBlog command would take in a Post object instead of an IPost. // Old AddPostToBlog constructor. public AddPostToBlog(Blog blog, Post post) { // constructor body } With the introduction of versioning, I would like to maintain the original Post while adding a PostOnePointOne. Both Post and PostOnePointOne will implement the IPost interface (they are not extending an abstract class because that inheritance breaks the wsdl, though I suppose there may be a way around that via some fancy xml serialization tricks). // New AddPostToBlog constructor. public AddPostToBlog(Blog blog, IPost post) { // constructor body } This brings us to my question regarding serialization. The original Post class has an enum property named Type. For various cross-platform compatibility issues, we are changing our enums in our web services to strings. So I would like to do the following: // New IPost interface. public interface IPost { object Type { get; set; } } // Original Post object. public Post { // The purpose of this attribute would be to maintain how // the enum currently is serialized even though now the // type is an object instead of an enum (internally the // object actually is an enum here, but it is exposed as // an object to implement the interface). [XmlMagic(SerializeAsEnum)] object Type { get; set; } } // New version of Post object public PostOnePointOne { // The purpose of this attribute would be to force // serialization as a string even though it is an object. [XmlMagic(SerializeAsString)] object Type { get; set; } } The XmlMagic refers to an XmlAttribute or some other part of the System.Xml namespace that would allow me to control the type of the object property being serialized (depending on which version of the object I am serializaing). Does anyone know how to accomplish this?

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  • Piping input to a Java app with Perl

    - by user319479
    I need to write a Perl script that pipes input into a Java program. This is related to this, but that didn't help me. My issue is that the Java app doesn't get the print statements until I close the handle. What I found online was that $| needs to be set to something greater than 0, in which case newline characters will flush the buffer. This still doesn't work. This is the script: #! /usr/bin/perl -w use strict; use File::Basename; $|=1; open(TP, "| java -jar test.jar") or die "fail"; sleep(2); print TP "this is test 1\n"; print TP "this is test 2\n"; print "tests printed, waiting 5s\n"; sleep(5); print "wait over. closing handle...\n"; close TP; print "closed.\n"; print "sleeping for 5s...\n"; sleep(5); print "script finished!\n"; exit And here is a sample Java app: import java.util.Scanner; public class test{ public static void main( String[] args ){ Scanner sc = new Scanner( System.in ); int crashcount = 0; while( true ){ try{ String input = sc.nextLine(); System.out.println( ":: INPUT: " + input ); if( "bananas".equals(input) ){ break; } } catch( Exception e ){ System.out.println( ":: EXCEPTION: " + e.toString() ); crashcount++; if( crashcount == 5 ){ System.out.println( ":: Looks like stdin is broke" ); break; } } } System.out.println( ":: IT'S OVER!" ); return; } } The Java app should respond to receiving the test prints immediately, but it doesn't until the close statement in the Perl script. What am I doing wrong? Note: the fix can only be in the Perl script. The Java app can't be changed. Also, File::Basename is there because I'm using it in the real script.

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  • How can I take the first 100 characters of html content ( without stripping the TAGS! )

    - by Atomiton
    There are lots of questions on how to strip html tags, but not many on functions/methods to close them. Here's the situation. I have a 500 character Message summary ( which includes html tags ), but I only want the first 100 characters. Problem is if I truncate the message, it could be in the middle of an html tag... which messes up stuff. Assuming the html is something like this: <div class="bd">"Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit, sed do eiusmod tempor incididunt ut labore et dolore magna aliqua. <br/> <br/>Some Dates: April 30 - May 2, 2010 <br/> <p>Ut enim ad minim veniam, quis nostrud exercitation ullamco laboris nisi ut aliquip ex ea commodo consequat. <em>Duis aute irure dolor in reprehenderit</em> in voluptate velit esse cillum dolore eu fugiat nulla pariatur. Excepteur sint occaecat cupidatat non proident, sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollit anim id est laborum. <br/> </p> For more information about Lorem Ipsum doemdloe, visit: <br/> <a href="http://www.somesite.com" title="Some Conference">Some text link</a><br/> </div> How would I take the first ~100 characters or so? ( Although, ideally that would be the first approximately 100 characters of "CONTENT" ( in between the html tags ) I'm assuming the best way to do this would be a recursive algorithm that keeps track of the html tags and appends any tags that would be truncated, but that may not be the best approach. My first thoughts are using recursion to count nested tags, and when we reach 100 characters, look for the next "<" and then use recursion to write the closing html tags needed from there. The reason for doing this is to make a short summary of existing articles without requiring the user to go back and provide summaries for all the articles. I want to keep the html formatting, if possible. NOTE: Please ignore that the html isn't totally semantic. This is what I have to deal with from my WYSIWYG. EDIT: I added a potential solution ( that seems to work ) I figure others will run into this problem as well. I'm not sure it's the best... and it's probably not totally robust ( in fact, I know it isn't ), but I'd appreciate any feedback

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  • PHP: POST Request to ASP.NET website results in 500 server error when html tags included

    - by RyanJD
    My situation: I need to send text to an ASP.NET web service using POST. The entire page there is a form: <form name="aspnetForm" method="post" action="Discussion.aspx?classroom=lG39il1cotOAGJwiNvmQlIPfwmjikD%2fAHLhjjGInAZQ%3d&amp;Page=Posts&amp;ID=794239&amp;Sort=&amp;SortOrder=" id="aspnetForm"> So, I figured if I sent a POST request to this form with the correct inputs it would work. And, to an extent, it has. The form inputs are as follows: <input type="hidden" name="__EVENTTARGET" id="__EVENTTARGET" value="" /> <input type="hidden" name="__EVENTARGUMENT" id="__EVENTARGUMENT" value="" /> <input type="hidden" name="__VIEWSTATE" id="__VIEWSTATE" value="/wEPDw..." /> <input type="hidden" name="__EVENTVALIDATION" id="__EVENTVALIDATION" value="/wEWYQLrt..." /> And a bunch of other inputs. The code I have used is as follows: // grab form info $inputs = extract_form_inputs($discussion['body']); $inputs['__EVENTTARGET'] = 'ctl00$cphMain$ctl01$btnSubmit'; $inputs['ctl00$cphMain$ctl01$tbNickname'] = "Your Instructor"; $inputs['ctl00$cphMain$ctl01$reMessage'] = $message; // submit form $r = request_send($discussion['url'], $inputs); extract_form_inputs does exactly that. $discussion['body'] is the content of the page. $discussion['url'] is the URL of the page. request_send has two arguments: ($url, $post_array). It performs rawurlencode on each element of the array and joins them up as keypairs, in the same way as http_build_query. The request is url encoded properly, sent to the correct page, and works fine until I insert html tags. I have checked - the 'greater than' and 'less than' symbols ('<' and '') are url-encoded properly. However, the server responds with a 500 error. It accepts any other text. Has anyone else come across this sort of problem? Is there some setting on an ASP.NET server that denies html? I can't see this being the case - there is a rich text editor on the website that I am sending requests to. This text editor performs the same request as I am, only I am doing it remotely. The rich text editor sends html to the form - I have checked that, too, using javascript. Note: I do not have the power to modify the ASP.NET server.

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  • jquery - loading inline javascript via AJAX

    - by yaya3
    I have thrown together a quick prototype to try and establish a few very basic truths regarding what inline JavaScript can do when it is loaded with AJAX: index.html <html> <head> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1/jquery.min.js"></script> </head> <body> <script type="text/javascript"> $('p').css('color','white'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS FIRST but is "undefined" $(document).ready(function(){ $('#ajax-loaded-content-wrapper').load('loaded-by-ajax.html', function(){ $('p').css('color','grey'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS LAST (as expected) }); $('p').css('color','purple'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS SECOND }); </script> <p>Content not loaded by ajax</p> <div id="ajax-loaded-content-wrapper"> </div> </body> </html> loaded-by-ajax.html <p>Some content loaded by ajax</p> <script type="text/javascript"> $('p').css('color','yellow'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS THIRD $(document).ready(function(){ $('p').css('color','pink'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS FOURTH }); </script> <p>Some content loaded by ajax</p> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('p').css('color','blue'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS FIFTH }); $('p').css('color','green'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS SIX </script> <p>Some content loaded by ajax</p> Notes: a) All of the above (except the first) successfully change the colour of all the paragraphs (in firefox 3.6.3). b) I've used alert instead of console.log as console is undefined when called in the 'loaded' HTML. Truths(?): $(document).ready() does not treat the 'loaded' HTML as a new document, or reread the entire DOM tree including the loaded HTML, it is pointless inside AJAX loaded content JavaScript that is contained inside 'loaded' HTML can effect the style of existing DOM nodes One can successfully use the jQuery library inside 'loaded' HTML to effect the style of existing DOM nodes One can not use the firebug inside 'loaded' HTML can effect the existing DOM (proven by Note a) Am I correct in deriving these 'truths' from my tests (test validity)? If not, how would you test for these?

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  • jQuery tools modal overlay display problem in IE6-8

    - by Michael Stone
    I'm trying to enable the overlay to be modal. It works perfectly fine in FireFox, but the window object is behind the mask when it becomes modal. This prevents any interaction with it and the page is actually useless. I've tried debugging this for a while and can't figure it out. Here is a link to the example on their site: http://flowplayer.org/tools/demos/overlay/modal-dialog.html $.fn.cfwindow = function(btnEvent,modal,draggable){ //error checking if(btnEvent == ""){ alert('Error in window :\n Please provide an id that instantiates the window. '); } if(!modal && !draggable){ $('#'+btnEvent+'[rel]').overlay(); $('#content_overlay').css('cursor','default'); } if(!modal && draggable){ $('#'+btnEvent+'[rel]').overlay(); $('#content_overlay').css('cursor','move'); $('#custom').draggable(); } if(modal){ $('#'+btnEvent+'[rel]').overlay({ // some mask tweaks suitable for modal dialogs mask: { color: '#646464', loadSpeed: 200, opacity: 0.6 }, closeOnClick: false }); $('#content_overlay').css('cursor','default'); //$('#custom').addClass('modal'); } }; That's what I'm referencing when I call through: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $(document).pngFix(); var modal = <cfoutput>#attributes.modal#; var drag = #attributes.draggable#; var btn = '#attributes.selector#'; var src = '#attributes.source#'; var wid = '#attributes.width#'; $('##custom').width(parseInt(wid)); $('div##load_content').load(src); $('##custom').cfwindow(btn,modal,drag,wid); }); </script> CSS for the modal: <style type="text/css"> .modal { display:none; text-align:left; background-color:#FFFFFF; -moz-border-radius:6px; -webkit-border-radius:6px; } </style> Exclude the and the additional pound signs, IE. "##". Screen shot of the problem: http://twitpic.com/1tak06 Note: IE6 and IE8 have the same problem. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Git for Websites / post-receive / Separation of Test and Production Sites

    - by Walt W
    Hi all, I'm using Git to manage my website's source code and deployment, and currently have the test and live sites running on the same box. Following this resource http://toroid.org/ams/git-website-howto originally, I came up with the following post-receive hook script to differentiate between pushes to my live site and pushes to my test site: while read ref do #echo "Ref updated:" #echo $ref -- would print something like example at top of file result=`echo $ref | gawk -F' ' '{ print $3 }'` if [ $result != "" ]; then echo "Branch found: " echo $result case $result in refs/heads/master ) git --work-tree=c:/temp/BLAH checkout -f master echo "Updated master" ;; refs/heads/testbranch ) git --work-tree=c:/temp/BLAH2 checkout -f testbranch echo "Updated testbranch" ;; * ) echo "No update known for $result" ;; esac fi done echo "Post-receive updates complete" However, I have doubts that this is actually safe :) I'm by no means a Git expert, but I am guessing that Git probably keeps track of the current checked-out branch head, and this approach probably has the potential to confuse it to no end. So a few questions: IS this safe? Would a better approach be to have my base repository be the test site repository (with corresponding working directory), and then have that repository push changes to a new live site repository, which has a corresponding working directory to the live site base? This would also allow me to move the production to a different server and keep the deployment chain intact. Is there something I'm missing? Is there a different, clean way to differentiate between test and production deployments when using Git for managing websites? As an additional note in light of Vi's answer, is there a good way to do this that would handle deletions without mucking with the file system much? Thank you, -Walt PS - The script I came up with for the multiple repos (and am using unless I hear better) is as follows: sitename=`basename \`pwd\`` while read ref do #echo "Ref updated:" #echo $ref -- would print something like example at top of file result=`echo $ref | gawk -F' ' '{ print $3 }'` if [ $result != "" ]; then echo "Branch found: " echo $result case $result in refs/heads/master ) git checkout -q -f master if [ $? -eq 0 ]; then echo "Test Site checked out properly" else echo "Failed to checkout test site!" fi ;; refs/heads/live-site ) git push -q ../Live/$sitename live-site:master if [ $? -eq 0 ]; then echo "Live Site received updates properly" else echo "Failed to push updates to Live Site" fi ;; * ) echo "No update known for $result" ;; esac fi done echo "Post-receive updates complete" And then the repo in ../Live/$sitename (these are "bare" repos with working trees added after init) has the basic post-receive: git checkout -f if [ $? -eq 0 ]; then echo "Live site `basename \`pwd\`` checked out successfully" else echo "Live site failed to checkout" fi

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  • problem with two .NET threads and hardware access

    - by mack369
    I'm creating an application which communicates with the device via FT2232H USB/RS232 converter. For communication I'm using FTD2XX_NET.dll library from FTDI website. I'm using two threads: first thread continuously reads data from the device the second thread is the main thread of the Windows Form Application I've got a problem when I'm trying to write any data to the device while the receiver's thread is running. The main thread simply hangs up on ftdiDevice.Write function. I tried to synchronize both threads so that only one thread can use Read/Write function at the same time, but it didn't help. Below code responsible for the communication. Note that following functions are methods of FtdiPort class. Receiver's thread private void receiverLoop() { if (this.DataReceivedHandler == null) { throw new BackendException("dataReceived delegate is not set"); } FTDI.FT_STATUS ftStatus = FTDI.FT_STATUS.FT_OK; byte[] readBytes = new byte[this.ReadBufferSize]; while (true) { lock (FtdiPort.threadLocker) { UInt32 numBytesRead = 0; ftStatus = ftdiDevice.Read(readBytes, this.ReadBufferSize, ref numBytesRead); if (ftStatus == FTDI.FT_STATUS.FT_OK) { this.DataReceivedHandler(readBytes, numBytesRead); } else { Trace.WriteLine(String.Format("Couldn't read data from ftdi: status {0}", ftStatus)); Thread.Sleep(10); } } Thread.Sleep(this.RXThreadDelay); } } Write function called from main thread public void Write(byte[] data, int length) { if (this.IsOpened) { uint i = 0; lock (FtdiPort.threadLocker) { this.ftdiDevice.Write(data, length, ref i); } Thread.Sleep(1); if (i != (int)length) { throw new BackendException("Couldnt send all data"); } } else { throw new BackendException("Port is closed"); } } Object used to synchronize two threads static Object threadLocker = new Object(); Method that starts the receiver's thread private void startReceiver() { if (this.DataReceivedHandler == null) { return; } if (this.IsOpened == false) { throw new BackendException("Trying to start listening for raw data while disconnected"); } this.receiverThread = new Thread(this.receiverLoop); //this.receiverThread.Name = "protocolListener"; this.receiverThread.IsBackground = true; this.receiverThread.Start(); } The ftdiDevice.Write function doesn't hang up if I comment following line: ftStatus = ftdiDevice.Read(readBytes, this.ReadBufferSize, ref numBytesRead);

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  • Populating a UL with Jquery

    - by RachelGatlin
    Hi Guys, I'm a little bit stumped with this UL I'm building. I've been able to populate the list no problem but it's all messed up when it comes to formatting. Here's my script: $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "/shop/assets/xml/tonneau_makes.xml", dataType: "xml", success: function(xml) { var selectInfo = $("li.selectMake"); $(xml).find('option').each(function(){ var make = $(this).attr('make'); $("li.selectMake").before("<li>"+make+"</li>"); }); } }); It's working beautifully. however when I go to look at it on my page and view the selection source it looks like this: <ul id="MakeList"> <li>CHEVROLET</li> <li>VINTAGE CHEVY</li> <li>DODGE</li> <li>VINTAGE FORD</li> <li>FORD</li> <li>HONDA</li> <li>HUMMER</li> <li>ISUZU</li> <li>LINCOLN</li> <li>MAZDA</li> <li>MITSUBISHI</li> <li>NISSAN</li> <li>SUZUKI</li> <li>TOYOTA</li> <li class="selectMake"></li> So I guess it is working, but it's not formatting the way I want it to. I want it to stop at Honda and form a new list. Right now it's extending beyond my div. My html is set up like this: <ul id="MakeList"> <li class="selectMake"></li> </ul> It's just an empty ul and li (note, all li's are supposed to have that class) So not only do I need to figure out what I'm doing wrong, but I'm not sure how to get it to do what I want. I hope that all made sense! Thanks everybody!

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  • Stata - Multiple rotated plots on graph (including distributions on sides of axes)

    - by meerak
    I would like to produce a single graph containing both: (1) a scatter plot (2) either histograms or kernel density functions of the Y and X variables to the left of the Y axis and below the X axis. I found a graph that does this in MATLAB -- I would just like to produce something similar in Stata: That graph was produced using the following MATLAB code: n = 1000; rho = .7; Z = mvnrnd([0 0], [1 rho; rho 1], n); U = normcdf(Z); X = [gaminv(U(:,1),2,1) tinv(U(:,2),5)]; [n1,ctr1] = hist(X(:,1),20); [n2,ctr2] = hist(X(:,2),20); subplot(2,2,2); plot(X(:,1),X(:,2),'.'); axis([0 12 -8 8]); h1 = gca; title('1000 Simulated Dependent t and Gamma Values'); xlabel('X1 ~ Gamma(2,1)'); ylabel('X2 ~ t(5)'); subplot(2,2,4); bar(ctr1,-n1,1); axis([0 12 -max(n1)*1.1 0]); axis('off'); h2 = gca; subplot(2,2,1); barh(ctr2,-n2,1); axis([-max(n2)*1.1 0 -8 8]); axis('off'); h3 = gca; set(h1,'Position',[0.35 0.35 0.55 0.55]); set(h2,'Position',[.35 .1 .55 .15]); set(h3,'Position',[.1 .35 .15 .55]); colormap([.8 .8 1]); UPDATE: The Stata13 manual entry for "graph combine" has precisely this example (http://www.stata.com/manuals13/g-2graphcombine.pdf). Here is the code: use http://www.stata-press.com/data/r13/lifeexp, clear generate loggnp = log10(gnppc) label var loggnp "Log base 10 of GNP per capita" scatter lexp loggnp, ysca(alt) xsca(alt) xlabel(, grid gmax) fysize(25) saving(yx) twoway histogram lexp, fraction xsca(alt reverse) horiz fxsize(25) saving(hy) twoway histogram loggnp, fraction ysca(alt reverse) ylabel(,nogrid) xlabel(,grid gmax) saving(hx) graph combine hy.gph yx.gph hx.gph, hole(3) imargin(0 0 0 0) graphregion(margin(l=22 r=22)) title("Life expectancy at birth vs. GNP per capita") note("Source: 1998 data from The World Bank Group")

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  • CSS: Chrome and Safari seem to 'add' border to width, while IE, Firefox & Opera don't

    - by Michiel
    Hey guys, I'm trying to achieve cross-browser consistency for my website, but I have been trying all day now and its driving me nuts (0.38 am here in Europe now..). It's about this page: http://www[insert-dot-here]geld[insert-dash-here]surfen[insert-dot-here]nl/uitbetalingen.html (please note that I prefer this URL not to be made crawlable for seo-bots) If you view this page in IE, Firefox or Opera, everything is fine, but in Chrome and Safari the tables are a little out of line (as you'll probably clearly notice). What seems to be the problem?; it appears to me that in Chrome and Safari the left and right border (2px) in total are added to the set table width, while in the other browsers the border is considered part of the width. The (most) relevant CSS-lines are the following ones (from the tabel.css-file, also available through the page's source file): table.uitbetaling { margin: 11px 18px 10px 19px; border: 1px solid #8ccaee; width: 498px; padding: 0; } table.uitbetaling img, table.uitbetaling td { margin: 0; border: 0; padding: 0; width: 496px; } table.uitbetaling tr { margin: 0; border: 0; padding: 0 1px 0 0; } So basically I have used a table-structure to organize images, like this; (the class of the table is 'uitbetaling') <table> <tr><td><img /></td></tr> <tr><td><img /></td></tr> ... <tr><td><img /></td></tr> </table> If, here, I set the width of 'table.uitbetaling' and 'table.uitbetaling img, table.uitbetaling td' to the same value (e.g. both 496 or 498), the 'problem' in Chrome and Safari is solved, however in Firefox the right side border is than blank. Because the right-side border can't 'fit' in anymore. 'img' and 'td' must be at least 2px more narrow than 'table.uitbetaling' for the right-border be visible in Firefox. Is there any way to solve this? Thanks so much in advance for your insights!!

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  • Code Golf: Evaluating Mathematical Expressions

    - by Noldorin
    Challenge Here is the challenge (of my own invention, though I wouldn't be surprised if it has previously appeared elsewhere on the web). Write a function that takes a single argument that is a string representation of a simple mathematical expression and evaluates it as a floating point value. A "simple expression" may include any of the following: positive or negative decimal numbers, +, -, *, /, (, ). Expressions use (normal) infix notation. Operators should be evaluated in the order they appear, i.e. not as in BODMAS, though brackets should be correctly observed, of course. The function should return the correct result for any possible expression of this form. However, the function does not have to handle malformed expressions (i.e. ones with bad syntax). Examples of expressions: 1 + 3 / -8 = -0.5 (No BODMAS) 2*3*4*5+99 = 219 4 * (9 - 4) / (2 * 6 - 2) + 8 = 10 1 + ((123 * 3 - 69) / 100) = 4 2.45/8.5*9.27+(5*0.0023) = 2.68... Rules I anticipate some form of "cheating"/craftiness here, so please let me forewarn against it! By cheating, I refer to the use of the eval or equivalent function in dynamic languages such as JavaScript or PHP, or equally compiling and executing code on the fly. (I think my specification of "no BODMAS" has pretty much guaranteed this however.) Apart from that, there are no restrictions. I anticipate a few Regex solutions here, but it would be nice to see more than just that. Now, I'm mainly interested in a C#/.NET solution here, but any other language would be perfectly acceptable too (in particular, F# and Python for the functional/mixed approaches). I haven't yet decided whether I'm going to accept the shortest or most ingenious solution (at least for the language) as the answer, but I would welcome any form of solution in any language, except what I've just prohibited above! My Solution I've now posted my C# solution here (403 chars). Update: My new solution has beaten the old one significantly at 294 chars, with the help of a bit of lovely regex! I suspected that this will get easily beaten by some of the languages out there with lighter syntax (particularly the funcional/dynamic ones), and have been proved right, but I'd be curious if someone could beat this in C# still. Update I've seen some very crafty solutions already. Thanks to everyone who has posted one. Although I haven't tested any of them yet, I'm going to trust people and assume they at least work with all of the given examples. Just for the note, re-entrancy (i.e. thread-safety) is not a requirement for the function, though it is a bonus. Format Please post all answers in the following format for the purpose of easy comparison: Language Number of characters: ??? Fully obfuscated function: (code here) Clear/semi-obfuscated function: (code here) Any notes on the algorithm/clever shortcuts it takes.

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  • Calling "Base-Getter" in Overriding Getter of Property

    - by scherand
    I have a base class "Parent" like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Text; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Parent { private int parentVirtualInt = -1; public virtual int VirtualProperty { get { return parentVirtualInt; } set { if(parentVirtualInt != value) { parentVirtualInt = value; } } } } } and a child class like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Text; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Child : Parent { public override int VirtualProperty { get { if(base.VirtualProperty > 0) { throw new ApplicationException("Dummy Ex"); } return base.VirtualProperty; } set { if(base.VirtualProperty != value) { base.VirtualProperty = value; } } } } } Note that the getter in Child is calling the getter of Parent (or at least this is what I intend). I now use the "Child" class by instantiating it, assigning a value (let's say 4) to its VirtualProperty and then reading the property again. Child c = new Child(); c.VirtualProperty = 4; Console.Out.WriteLine("Child.VirtualProperty: " + c.VirtualProperty); When I run this, I obviously get an ApplicationException saying "Dummy Ex". But if I set a breakpoint on the line if(base.VirtualProperty > 0) in Child and check the value of base.VirtualProperty (by hovering the mouse over it) before the exception can be thrown (I assume(d)), I already get the Exception. From this I convey that the statement base.VirtualProperty in the "Child-Getter calls itself"; kind of. What I would like to achieve is the same behavior I get when I change the definition of parentVirutalInt (in Parent) to protected and use base.parentVirtualInt in the Getter of Child instead of base.VirtualProperty. And I don't yet see why this is not working. Can anybody shed some light on this? I feel that overridden properties behave differently than overridden methods? By the way: I am doing something very similar with subclassing a class I do not have any control over (this is the main reason why my "workaround" is not an option). Kind regards

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  • VSTS test deployment and invalid assembly culture

    - by Merlyn Morgan-Graham
    I have a DLL that I'm testing, which links to a DLL that has what I think is an invalid value for AssemblyCulture. The value is "Neutral" (notice the upper-case "N"), whereas the DLL I'm testing, and every other DLL in my project, has a value of "neutral" (because they specify AssemblyCulture("")). When I try to deploy the DLL that links to the problem DLL, I get this error in VSTS: Failed to queue test run '...': Culture is not supported. Parameter name: name Neutral is an invalid culture identifier. <Exception>System.Globalization.CultureNotFoundException: Culture is not supported. Parameter name: name Neutral is an invalid culture identifier. at System.Globalization.CultureInfo..ctor(String name, Boolean useUserOverride) at System.Globalization.CultureInfo..ctor(String name) at System.Reflection.RuntimeAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies(RuntimeAssembly assembly) at System.Reflection.RuntimeAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies() at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyLoadWorker.ProcessChildren(Assembly assembly) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyLoadWorker.GetDependentAssemblies(String path) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyLoadWorker.GetDependentAssemblies(String path) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyLoadStrategy.GetDependentAssemblies(String path) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyHelper.GetDependentAssemblies(String path, DependentAssemblyOptions options, String configFile) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.DeploymentManager.GetDependencies(String master, String configFile, TestRunConfiguration runConfig, DeploymentItemOrigin dependencyOrigin, List`1 dependencyDeploymentItems, Dictionary`2 missingDependentAssemblies) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.DeploymentManager.DoDeployment(TestRun run, FileCopyService fileCopyService) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.SetupTestRun(TestRun run, Boolean isNewTestRun, FileCopyService fileCopyService, DeploymentManager deploymentManager) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.SetupRunAndListener(TestRun run, FileCopyService fileCopyService, DeploymentManager deploymentManager) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.QueueTestRunWorker(Object state)</Exception> Even if I don't link to the DLL (in my VSTS wrapper test, or in the NUnit test), as soon as I add it in my GenericTest file (I'm wrapping NUnit tests), I get that exception. We don't have the source for the problem DLL, and it is also code signed, so I can't solve this by recompiling. Is there a way to skip deploying the dependencies of a DLL DeploymentItem, to fix or disable the culture check, or to work around this by convoluted means (maybe somehow embed the assembly)? Is there a way to override the value for the culture, short of hacking the DLL (and removing code signing so the hack works)? Maybe with an external manifest? Any correct solution must work without weird changes to production code. We can't deploy a hacked DLL, for example. It also must allow the DLL to be instrumented for code coverage. Additional note: I do get a linker warning when compiling the DLL under test that links to the problem DLL, but this hasn't broken anything but VSTS, and multiple versions have shipped.

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  • Adding UIView animation mysteriously changes starting frame

    - by clozach
    I'm working on an app that shows a thumbnail of a photo taken by the user. In order to show a seemless transition from the full-screen image shown in the UIImagePickerController to the thumbnail, I set the frame on my copy of the image to [[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds] and then change the frame to match the frame of an invisible button. (The button allows users to re-take their photo by tapping the thumbnail image.) The trouble is that the starting x-origin of my UIImageView (imageView) is mysteriously starting nearly offscreen to the left: As you can see from the alert, the imageView purports to be located at (0,0), yet it's displaying at something like (-255,0). Here's the code: CGRect frame = [[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds]; imageView.frame = frame; [[[[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Yo!" message:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"starting frame:%@",NSStringFromCGRect(imageView.frame)] delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"K." otherButtonTitles:nil] autorelease] show]; // Slide the enlarged image seamlessly "onto" the photo button [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1000]; [UIView setAnimationDelay:.5]; imageView.frame = pictureButton.frame; [UIView commitAnimations]; As if to taunt me, the image actually does go full screen if I comment out the animation code: CGRect frame = [[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds]; imageView.frame = frame; [[[[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Yo!" message:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"starting frame:%@",NSStringFromCGRect(imageView.frame)] delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"K." otherButtonTitles:nil] autorelease] show]; // Slide the enlarged image seamlessly "onto" the photo button // [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; // [UIView setAnimationDuration:1000]; // [UIView setAnimationDelay:.5]; // // imageView.frame = pictureButton.frame; // // [UIView commitAnimations]; (Note: animationDuration will of course be set to something more like .5 in production, not 1000 seconds.) Update — Other weirdness worth mentioning in case it's relevant: It turns out the offset changes depending on the orientation of the camera when the photo was taken. If I take the picture with the phone upside-down, for instance, then the image gets offset vertically as well as horizontally. The picker seems to be filling the image's imageOrientation incorrectly: I have to hold the phone sideways, Home button on the left, to get an image with UIImageOrientationUp. At one point I experimented with setting imageView.clipsToBounds = YES;, which revealed that my image view's frame is in fact correct. Rather, it's the UIImage's placement within the UIImageView that gets offset. Fwiw, the image view's contentMode is the default, UIViewContentModeScaleToFill.

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  • Why is numpy's einsum faster than numpy's built in functions?

    - by Ophion
    Lets start with three arrays of dtype=np.double. Timings are performed on a intel CPU using numpy 1.7.1 compiled with icc and linked to intel's mkl. A AMD cpu with numpy 1.6.1 compiled with gcc without mkl was also used to verify the timings. Please note the timings scale nearly linearly with system size and are not due to the small overhead incurred in the numpy functions if statements these difference will show up in microseconds not milliseconds: arr_1D=np.arange(500,dtype=np.double) large_arr_1D=np.arange(100000,dtype=np.double) arr_2D=np.arange(500**2,dtype=np.double).reshape(500,500) arr_3D=np.arange(500**3,dtype=np.double).reshape(500,500,500) First lets look at the np.sum function: np.all(np.sum(arr_3D)==np.einsum('ijk->',arr_3D)) True %timeit np.sum(arr_3D) 10 loops, best of 3: 142 ms per loop %timeit np.einsum('ijk->', arr_3D) 10 loops, best of 3: 70.2 ms per loop Powers: np.allclose(arr_3D*arr_3D*arr_3D,np.einsum('ijk,ijk,ijk->ijk',arr_3D,arr_3D,arr_3D)) True %timeit arr_3D*arr_3D*arr_3D 1 loops, best of 3: 1.32 s per loop %timeit np.einsum('ijk,ijk,ijk->ijk', arr_3D, arr_3D, arr_3D) 1 loops, best of 3: 694 ms per loop Outer product: np.all(np.outer(arr_1D,arr_1D)==np.einsum('i,k->ik',arr_1D,arr_1D)) True %timeit np.outer(arr_1D, arr_1D) 1000 loops, best of 3: 411 us per loop %timeit np.einsum('i,k->ik', arr_1D, arr_1D) 1000 loops, best of 3: 245 us per loop All of the above are twice as fast with np.einsum. These should be apples to apples comparisons as everything is specifically of dtype=np.double. I would expect the speed up in an operation like this: np.allclose(np.sum(arr_2D*arr_3D),np.einsum('ij,oij->',arr_2D,arr_3D)) True %timeit np.sum(arr_2D*arr_3D) 1 loops, best of 3: 813 ms per loop %timeit np.einsum('ij,oij->', arr_2D, arr_3D) 10 loops, best of 3: 85.1 ms per loop Einsum seems to be at least twice as fast for np.inner, np.outer, np.kron, and np.sum regardless of axes selection. The primary exception being np.dot as it calls DGEMM from a BLAS library. So why is np.einsum faster that other numpy functions that are equivalent? The DGEMM case for completeness: np.allclose(np.dot(arr_2D,arr_2D),np.einsum('ij,jk',arr_2D,arr_2D)) True %timeit np.einsum('ij,jk',arr_2D,arr_2D) 10 loops, best of 3: 56.1 ms per loop %timeit np.dot(arr_2D,arr_2D) 100 loops, best of 3: 5.17 ms per loop The leading theory is from @sebergs comment that np.einsum can make use of SSE2, but numpy's ufuncs will not until numpy 1.8 (see the change log). I believe this is the correct answer, but have not been able to confirm it. Some limited proof can be found by changing the dtype of input array and observing speed difference and the fact that not everyone observes the same trends in timings.

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  • Problems integrating nServiceBus with StructureMap

    - by SimonB
    I'm trying to use StructureMap with nServiceBus. The Project: Uses a GenericHost Endpoint to send command messages Configures nServiceBus using the StructMapBuilder. Uses a simple StructureMap registry config Uses a start up class TestServer supporting IWantToRunAtStartup The TestServer class has ctor dependency on a TestManager class The TestManager class has ctor dependency on IBus ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave() shows StructureMap knows how to construct the classes. When run I get buildup errors. nServiceBus seems to be overwriting the config? Note that when I add a IBus ctor depenendency to my event handlers without any other config all appears fine. Error: Exception when starting endpoint, error has been logged. Reason: Error creating object with name 'nSeviceBusStructureMapTest.TestServer' : Unsatisfied dependency expressed through constructor argument with index 0 of type [nSeviceBusStructureMapTest.ITestManager] : No unique object of type [nSeviceBusStructureMapTest.ITestManager] is defined : Unsatisfied dependency of type [nSeviceBusStructureMapTest.ITestManager]: expected at least 1 matching object to wire the [miningServiceManage] parameter on the constructor of object [nSeviceBusStructureMapTest.TestServer] Source: using System; using System.Diagnostics; using NServiceBus; using StructureMap; using StructureMap.Configuration.DSL; namespace nSeviceBusStructureMapTest { public class TestSmRegistry : Registry { public TestSmRegistry() { For<ITestManager>().Use<TestManager>(); For<TestServer>().Use<TestServer>(); } } public class TestEndPoint : AsA_Server, IConfigureThisEndpoint, IWantCustomLogging { public void Init() { Configure.With().StructureMapBuilder(ObjectFactory.Container); ObjectFactory.Configure(c => c.AddRegistry<TestSmRegistry>()); Debug.WriteLine(ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave()); } } public class TestServer : IWantToRunAtStartup { public TestServer(ITestManager miningServiceManage) { _miningServiceManage = miningServiceManage; } private readonly ITestManager _miningServiceManage; public void Run() { _miningServiceManage.Run(); } public void Stop() { } } public interface ITestManager { void Run(); } public class TestManager : ITestManager { public TestManager(IBus bus) { _bus = bus; } private readonly IBus _bus; public void Run() { if (_bus == null) Debug.WriteLine("Error no bus"); // Send messages on bus; } } } <MsmqTransportConfig InputQueue="test" ErrorQueue="error" NumberOfWorkerThreads="1" MaxRetries="5" /> <UnicastBusConfig> <MessageEndpointMappings> </MessageEndpointMappings> </UnicastBusConfig> Any ideas?

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  • Lightbox image / link URL

    - by GSTAR
    Basically I have a slightly non-standard implementation of FancyBox. By default you have to include a link to the large version of the image so that the Lightbox can display it. However, in my implementation, the image link URLs point to a script rather than directly to the image file. So for example, instead of: <a href="mysite/images/myimage.jpg" rel="gallery"> I have: <a href="mysite/photos/view/abc123" rel="gallery"> The above URL points to a function: public function actionPhotos($view) { $photo=Photo::model()->find('name=:name', array(':name'=>$view)); if(!empty($photo)) { $this->renderPartial('_photo', array('photo'=>$photo, true)); } } The "$this-renderPartial()" bit simply calls a layout file which includes a standard HTML tag to output. Now when the user clicks on a thumbnail, the above function is called and the large image is displayed in the Lightbox. Now if the user right clicks on the thumbnail and selects "open in new tab/window" then the image is displayed in the browser as per normal, i.e. just the image. I want to change this so that it displays the image within a layout. In the above code I can include the following and put it in an IF statement: $this->render('photos', array('photo'=>$photo)); This will call the layout file "photos" which contains the layout to display the image in. I have a specific limitation for this - the image URL must remain the same, i.e. no additional GET variables in the URL. However if we can pass in a GET variable in the background then that is OK. I will most likely need to change my function above so that it calls a different file for this functionality. EDIT: To demonstrate exactly what I am trying to do, check out the following: http://www.starnow.co.uk/KimberleyMarren Go to the photos tab and hover over a thumbnail - note the URL. Click the thumbnail and it will open up in the Lightbox. Next right click on that same thumbnail and select "open in new tab/new window". You will notice that the image is now displayed in a layout. So that same URL is used for displaying the image in the Lightbox and on its own page. The way StarNow have done this is using some crazy long JavaScript functionality, which I'm not too keen on replicating.

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  • Determining what frequencies correspond to the x axis in aurioTouch sample application

    - by eagle
    I'm looking at the aurioTouch sample application for the iPhone SDK. It has a basic spectrum analyzer implemented when you choose the "FFT" option. One of the things the app is lacking is X axis labels (i.e. the frequency labels). In the aurioTouchAppDelegate.mm file, in the function - (void)drawOscilloscope at line 652, it has the following code: if (displayMode == aurioTouchDisplayModeOscilloscopeFFT) { if (fftBufferManager->HasNewAudioData()) { if (fftBufferManager->ComputeFFT(l_fftData)) [self setFFTData:l_fftData length:fftBufferManager->GetNumberFrames() / 2]; else hasNewFFTData = NO; } if (hasNewFFTData) { int y, maxY; maxY = drawBufferLen; for (y=0; y<maxY; y++) { CGFloat yFract = (CGFloat)y / (CGFloat)(maxY - 1); CGFloat fftIdx = yFract * ((CGFloat)fftLength); double fftIdx_i, fftIdx_f; fftIdx_f = modf(fftIdx, &fftIdx_i); SInt8 fft_l, fft_r; CGFloat fft_l_fl, fft_r_fl; CGFloat interpVal; fft_l = (fftData[(int)fftIdx_i] & 0xFF000000) >> 24; fft_r = (fftData[(int)fftIdx_i + 1] & 0xFF000000) >> 24; fft_l_fl = (CGFloat)(fft_l + 80) / 64.; fft_r_fl = (CGFloat)(fft_r + 80) / 64.; interpVal = fft_l_fl * (1. - fftIdx_f) + fft_r_fl * fftIdx_f; interpVal = CLAMP(0., interpVal, 1.); drawBuffers[0][y] = (interpVal * 120); } cycleOscilloscopeLines(); } } From my understanding, this part of the code is what is used to decide which magnitude to draw for each frequency in the UI. My question is how can I determine what frequency each iteration (or y value) represents inside the for loop. For example, if I want to know what the magnitude is for 6kHz, I'm thinking of adding a line similar to the following: if (yValueRepresentskHz(y, 6)) NSLog(@"The magnitude for 6kHz is %f", (interpVal * 120)); Please note that although they chose to use the variable name y, from what I understand, it actually represents the x-axis in the visual graph of the spectrum analyzer, and the value of the drawBuffers[0][y] represents the y-axis.

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  • Displaying a message in a dialog box using AJAX, jQuery, and CakePHP

    - by LainIwakura
    I have a form, and when users submit this form, it should pass the data along to a function using AJAX. Then, the result of that is displayed to the user in a dialog box. I'm using CakePHP (1.3) and jQuery to try and accomplish this but I feel like I'm running into the ground. The form will eventually be used for uploading images with tags, but for now I just want to see a message pop up in the box.. The form: <?php echo $this->Form->create('Image', array('type' => 'file', 'controller' => 'images', 'action' => 'upload', 'method' => 'post')); echo $this->Form->input('Wallpaper', array('type' => 'file')); echo $this->Form->input('Tags'); echo $this->Form->end('Upload!'); ?> The AJAX: $(document).ready(function() { $("#ImageUploadForm").submit(function() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/images/upload/", data: $(this).serialize(), async: false, success: function(html){ $("#dialog-modal").dialog({ $("#dialog-modal").append("<p>"+html+"</p>"); height: 140, modal: true, buttons: { Ok: function() { $(this).dialog('close'); } } }) } }); return false; }); }); NOTE: if I put $("#dialog-modal").dialog({ height: 140, modal: true }); OUTSIDE of the $.ajax but inside the $("#ImageUploadForm").submit(function() { and comment out the $.ajax stuff, I WILL see a dialog box pop up and then I have to click it for it to go away. After this, it will not forward to the location /images/upload/ The method that AJAX calls: public function upload() { $this->autoRender = false; if ($this->RequestHandler->isAjax()) { echo 'Hi!'; exit(); } } $this-RequestHandler-isAjax() seems to do either absolutely nothing, or it is always returning false. I have never entered an if statement with that as the condition. Thanks for all the help, if you need more information let me know.

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  • Problems with CGI wrapper for PHP

    - by user205878
    I'm having a bugger of a time with a CGI wrapper for PHP. I know very little about CGI and PHP as CGI. Here's what I know about the system: Solaris 10 on a 386 Suhosin PHP normally running as CGI, with cgiwrap (http://cgiwrap.sourceforge.net/). I am not able to find an example wrapper.cgi on the server to look at. Shared hosting (virtual host), so I don't have access to Apache config. But the admins are not helpful. Switching hosts is not an option. Options directive cannot be overridden in .htaccess (ExecCGI, for example). .htaccess: AddHandler php-handler .php Action php-handler "/bin/test.cgi" ~/public_html/bin/test.cgi: #!/usr/bin/sh # Without these 2 lines, I get an Internal Server Error echo "Content-type: text/html" echo "" exec "/path/to/php-cgi" 'foo.php'; /bin/foo.php: <?php echo "this is foo.php!"; Output of http://mysite.com/bin/test.cgi: X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.11 Content-type: text/html echo "Content-type: text/html" echo "" exec "/path/to//php-cgi" 'foo.php'; Output of http:/ /mysite.com/anypage.php: X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.11 Content-type: text/html echo "Content-type: text/html" echo "" exec "/path/to//php-cgi" 'foo.php'; The things I note are: PHP is being executed, as noted by the X-Powered-By ... header. The source of /bin/test.cgi is output in the results. No matter what I put as the second argument of exec, it isn't passed to the php binary. I've tried '-i' to get phpinfo, '-v' to get the version... When I execute test.cgi via the shell, I get the expected results (the argument is passed to php, and it is reflected in the output). Any ideas about how to get this to work? UPDATE It appears that the reason the source of the test.cgi was appearing was due to errors. Anytime fatal error occurred, either within the cgi itself or with the command being executed by exec, it would cause the source of the cgi to appear. Within test.cgi, I can get the proper output with exec "/path/to/php-cgi" -h (I get the same thing as I would from CLI).

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  • Wordpress: how to call a plugin function with an ajax call?

    - by Bee
    I'm writing a Wordpress MU plugin, it includes a link with each post and I want to use ajax to call one of the plugin functions when the user clicks on this link, and then dynamically update the link-text with output from that function. I'm stuck with the ajax query. I've got this complicated, clearly hack-ish, way to do it, but it is not quite working. What is the 'correct' or 'wordpress' way to include ajax functionality in a plugin? (My current hack code is below. When I click the generate link I don't get the same output I get in the wp page as when I go directly to sample-ajax.php in my browser.) I've got my code[1] set up as follows: mu-plugins/sample.php: <?php /* Plugin Name: Sample Plugin */ if (!class_exists("SamplePlugin")) { class SamplePlugin { function SamplePlugin() {} function addHeaderCode() { echo '<link type="text/css" rel="stylesheet" href="'.get_bloginfo('wpurl'). '/wp-content/mu-plugins/sample/sample.css" />\n'; wp_enqueue_script('sample-ajax', get_bloginfo('wpurl') . '/wp-content/mu-plugins/sample/sample-ajax.js.php', array('jquery'), '1.0'); } // adds the link to post content. function addLink($content = '') { $content .= "<span class='foobar clicked'><a href='#'>click</a></span>"; return $content; } function doAjax() { // echo "<a href='#'>AJAX!</a>"; } } } if (class_exists("SamplePlugin")) { $sample_plugin = new SamplePlugin(); } if (isset($sample_plugin)) { add_action('wp_head',array(&$sample_plugin,'addHeaderCode'),1); add_filter('the_content', array(&$sample_plugin, 'addLink')); } mu-plugins/sample/sample-ajax.js.php: <?php if (!function_exists('add_action')) { require_once("../../../wp-config.php"); } ?> jQuery(document).ready(function(){ jQuery(".foobar").bind("click", function() { var aref = this; jQuery(this).toggleClass('clicked'); jQuery.ajax({ url: "http://mysite/wp-content/mu-plugins/sample/sample-ajax.php", success: function(value) { jQuery(aref).html(value); } }); }); }); mu-plugins/sample/sample-ajax.php: <?php if (!function_exists('add_action')) { require_once("../../../wp-config.php"); } if (isset($sample_plugin)) { $sample_plugin->doAjax(); } else { echo "unset"; } ?> [1] Note: The following tutorial got me this far, but I'm stumped at this point. http://www.devlounge.net/articles/using-ajax-with-your-wordpress-plugin

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  • VB6 app not executing as scheduled task unless user is logged on

    - by Tedd Hansen
    Hi Would greatly apprechiate some help on this one! It may be a tricky one. :) Problem I have an VB6 application which is set up as scheduled task. It starts every time, but when executing CreateObject it fails if user is not logged on to computer. I am looking for information on what could cause this. Primary suspicion is that some Windows API fails. Key points Behaviour confirmed on Windows 2000, 2003, 2008 and Vista. The application executes as user X at scheduled time, executed by Windows Task Scheduler. It executes every time. Application does start! -- If user X is logged on via RDP it runs perfectly. (Note that user doesn't need to be connected, only logged on) -- If user X is not logged on to computer the application fails. Failure point Application fails when using CreateObject() to instansiate a DCOM object which is also part of the application. The DCOM objects declare .dll-references at startup (globally/on top of .bas-file) and run a small startup function. Failure must be during startup, possibly in one of the .dll-declarations. Thoughts After some Googling my initial suspicion was directed at MAPI. From what I could see MAPI required user to be logged on. The application has MAPI references. But even with all MAPI references removed it still does not work. What is the difference if an user is logged on? Registry mapping? Environment? explorer.exe is running. Isn't the user logged on when application executes as the user? What info would help? A definitive answer would be truly great. Any information regarding any VB6 feature/Windows API that could act differently depending on wether user is logged on or not would definitively help. Similar experiences may lead me in the right direction. Tips on debuggin this. Thanks! :)

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  • Learning Treetop

    - by cmartin
    I'm trying to teach myself Ruby's Treetop grammar generator. I am finding that not only is the documentation woefully sparse for the "best" one out there, but that it doesn't seem to work as intuitively as I'd hoped. On a high level, I'd really love a better tutorial than the on-site docs or the video, if there is one. On a lower level, here's a grammar I cannot get to work at all: grammar SimpleTest rule num (float / integer) end rule float ( (( '+' / '-')? plain_digits '.' plain_digits) / (( '+' / '-')? plain_digits ('E' / 'e') plain_digits ) / (( '+' / '-')? plain_digits '.') / (( '+' / '-')? '.' plain_digits) ) { def eval text_value.to_f end } end rule integer (( '+' / '-' )? plain_digits) { def eval text_value.to_i end } end rule plain_digits [0-9] [0-9]* end end When I load it and run some assertions in a very simple test object, I find: assert_equal @parser.parse('3.14').eval,3.14 Works fine, while assert_equal @parser.parse('3').eval,3 raises the error: NoMethodError: private method `eval' called for # If I reverse integer and float on the description, both integers and floats give me this error. I think this may be related to limited lookahead, but I cannot find any information in any of the docs to even cover the idea of evaluating in the "or" context A bit more info that may help. Here's pp information for both those parse() blocks. The float: SyntaxNode+Float4+Float0 offset=0, "3.14" (eval,plain_digits): SyntaxNode offset=0, "" SyntaxNode+PlainDigits0 offset=0, "3": SyntaxNode offset=0, "3" SyntaxNode offset=1, "" SyntaxNode offset=1, "." SyntaxNode+PlainDigits0 offset=2, "14": SyntaxNode offset=2, "1" SyntaxNode offset=3, "4": SyntaxNode offset=3, "4" The Integer... note that it seems to have been defined to follow the integer rule, but not caught the eval() method: SyntaxNode+Integer0 offset=0, "3" (plain_digits): SyntaxNode offset=0, "" SyntaxNode+PlainDigits0 offset=0, "3": SyntaxNode offset=0, "3" SyntaxNode offset=1, "" Update: I got my particular problem working, but I have no clue why: rule integer ( '+' / '-' )? plain_digits { def eval text_value.to_i end } end This makes no sense with the docs that are present, but just removing the extra parentheses made the match include the Integer1 class as well as Integer0. Integer1 is apparently the class holding the eval() method. I have no idea why this is the case. I'm still looking for more info about treetop.

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  • Enabling browser caching via java

    - by Franz See
    Good day, I am using CacheFilter to filter a certain path to my server (which outputs an image stream to the response stream). And I've configured it in my web.xml as follows: <filter> <filter-name>imagesCache</filter-name> <filter-class>com.samaxes.cachefilter.presentation.CacheFilter</filter-class> <init-param> <param-name>privacy</param-name> <param-value>public</param-value> </init-param> <init-param> <param-name>expirationTime</param-name> <param-value>2592000</param-value> </init-param> </filter> ... <filter-mapping> <filter-name>imagesCache</filter-name> <url-pattern>/my/path/*</url-pattern> </filter-mapping> Using my firefox, if I access my url via the address bar, it hits the server the first time but uses the cache during succeeding calls. However, if the url is inside my page ( i.e. <img src="..."/> ), it seems to hit the server all the time. [EDIT] After a few more testing, accessing my image via the address bar does not work all the time. But caching does seem to work more often with it than . As to whether it really, I am not sure. Additional Info: my path is something like /my/path?then=some&query=strings. Notice that it doesn't have an extension (i.e. gif, png, jpeg ) but it's mimetype is set properly ( image/gif, image/png, image/jpeg ). I am not sure if the lack of extension or the presence of the query strings have any impact. (Also, another note. though my url have query strings, I am using the same uri + query string over and over again with my tests). Any ideas why? Thanks

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