Search Results

Search found 14958 results on 599 pages for 'non technical'.

Page 505/599 | < Previous Page | 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510 511 512  | Next Page >

  • Copying contents of a MySQL table to a table in another (local) database

    - by Philip Eve
    I have two MySQL databases for my site - one is for a production environment and the other, much smaller, is for a testing/development environment. Both have identical schemas (except when I am testing something I intend to change, of course). A small number of the tables are for internationalisation purposes: TransLanguage - non-English languages TransModule - modules (bundles of phrases for translation, that can be loaded individually by PHP scripts) TransPhrase - individual phrases, in English, for potential translation TranslatedPhrase - translations of phrases that are submitted by volunteers ChosenTranslatedPhrase - screened translations of phrases. The volunteers who do translation are all working on the production site, as they are regular users. I wanted to create a stored procedure that could be used to synchronise the contents of four of these tables - TransLanguage, TransModule, TransPhrase and ChosenTranslatedPhrase - from the production database to the testing database, so as to keep the test environment up-to-date and prevent "unknown phrase" errors from being in the way while testing. My first effort was to create the following procedure in the test database: CREATE PROCEDURE `SynchroniseTranslations` () LANGUAGE SQL NOT DETERMINISTIC MODIFIES SQL DATA SQL SECURITY DEFINER BEGIN DELETE FROM `TransLanguage`; DELETE FROM `TransModule`; INSERT INTO `TransLanguage` SELECT * FROM `PRODUCTION_DB`.`TransLanguage`; INSERT INTO `TransModule` SELECT * FROM `PRODUCTION_DB`.`TransModule`; INSERT INTO `TransPhrase` SELECT * FROM `PRODUCTION_DB`.`TransPhrase`; INSERT INTO `ChosenTranslatedPhrase` SELECT * FROM `PRODUCTION_DB`.`ChosenTranslatedPhrase`; END When I try to run this, I get an error message: "SELECT command denied to user 'username'@'localhost' for table 'TransLanguage'". I also tried to create the procedure to work the other way around (that is, to exist as part of the data dictionary for the production database rather than the test database). If I do it that, way, I get an identical message except it tells me I'm denied the DELETE command rather than SELECT. I have made sure that my user has INSERT, DELETE, SELECT, UPDATE and CREATE ROUTINE privileges on both databases. However, it seems as though MySQL is reluctant to let this user exercise its privileges on both databases at the same time. How come, and is there a way around this?

    Read the article

  • Database schemas WAY out of sync - need to get up to date without losing data

    - by Zind
    The problem: we have one application that has a portion which is used by a very small subset of the total users, and that part of the application is running off of a separate database as well. In a perfect world, the schemas of the two databases would be synced up, but such is not the case. Some migrations have been run on the smaller database, most haven't; and furthermore, there is nothing such as revision number to be able to easily identify which have and which haven't. We would like to solve this quandary for future projects. During a discussion we've come up with the following possible plan of action, and I am wondering if anyone knows of any project which has already solved this problem: What we would like to do is create an empty database from the schema of the large fully-migrated database, and then move all of the data from the smaller non-migrated database into that empty one. If it makes things easier, it can probably be assumed for the sake of this problem specifically that no migrations have ever removed anything, only added. Else, if there are other known solutions, I'd like to hear them as well.

    Read the article

  • No "redefinition of default parameter error" for class template member function?

    - by STingRaySC
    Why does the following give no compilation error?: // T.h template<class T> class X { public: void foo(int a = 42); }; // Main.cpp #include "T.h" #include <iostream> template<class T> void X<T>::foo(int a = 13) { std::cout << a << std::endl; } int main() { X<int> x; x.foo(); // prints 42 } It seems as though the 13 is just silently ignored by the compiler. Why is this? The cooky thing is that if the template declaration is in Main.cpp instead of a header file, I do indeed get the default parameter redefinition error. Now I know the compiler will complain about this if it were just an ordinary (non-template) function. What does the standard have to say about default parameters in class template member functions or function templates?

    Read the article

  • How do I ensure that a regex does not match an empty string?

    - by Dancrumb
    I'm using the Jison parser generator for Javascript and am having problems with my language specification. The program I'm writing will be a calculator that can handle feet, inches and sixteenths. In order to do this, I have the following specification: %% ([0-9]+\s*"'")?\s*([0-9]+\s*"\"")?\s*([0-9]+\s*"s")? {return 'FIS';} [0-9]+("."[0-9]+)?\b {return 'NUMBER';} \s+ {/* skip whitespace */} "*" {return '*';} "/" {return '/';} "-" {return '-';} "+" {return '+';} "(" {return '(';} ")" {return ')';} <<EOF>> {return 'EOF';} Most of these lines come from a basic calculator specification. I simply added the first line. The regex correctly matches feet, inch, sixteenths, such as 6'4" (six feet, 4 inches) or 4"5s (4 inches, 5 sixteenths) with any kind of whitespace between the numbers and indicators. The problem is that the regex also matches a null string. As a result, the lexical analysis always records a FIS at the start of the line and then the parsing fails. Here is my question: is there a way to modify this regex to guarantee that it will only match a non-zero length string?

    Read the article

  • How to query AD to get name email from lan id

    - by Kumar
    I have some code in asp.net ( kindly given by someone else ) to query AD to get user name and email etc. using System.DirectoryServices; using System.DirectoryServices.ActiveDirectory; using ActiveDs; DirectorySearcher search = new DirectorySearcher(new DirectoryEntry(), string.Format("(samaccountname={0})", id)); if (search == null) return id; if (search.FindOne() == null) return id; DirectoryEntry usr = search.FindOne().GetDirectoryEntry(); IADsUser oUsr = (IADsUser)usr.NativeObject; return string.Format("{0} {1}", usr.Properties["givenname"].Value, usr.Properties["sn"].Value); However this requires impersonation with an id that's required to be changed every 2 weeks and then updated in the web.config which is often forgotten Is there any non impersonation code to achieve the same result ? UPDATE - it's a config tool and it looks up name, email id etc. I like the service a/c idea Q - How is it possible to run ( impersonate ) just the AD code with a "service" a/c ? any samples/code ? how do you impersona

    Read the article

  • Varchar columns: Nullable or not.

    - by NYSystemsAnalyst
    The database development standards in our organization state the varchar fields should not allow null values. They should have a default value of an empty string (""). I know this makes querying and concatenation easier, but today, one of my coworkers questioned me about why that standard only existed for varchar types an not other datatypes (int, datetime, etc). I would like to know if others consider this to be a valid, defensible standard, or if varchar should be treated the same as fields of other data types? I believe this standard is valid for the following reason: I believe that an empty string and null values, though technically different, are conceptually the same. An empty, zero length string is a string that does not exist. It has no value. However, a numeric value of 0 is not the same as NULL. For example, if a field called OutstandingBalance has a value of 0, it means there are $0.00 remaining. However, if the same field is NULL, that means the value is unknown. On the other hand, a field called CustomerName with a value of "" is basically the same as a value of NULL because both represent the non-existence of the name. I read somewhere that an analogy for an empty string vs. NULL is that of a blank CD vs. no CD. However, I believe this to be a false analogy because a blank CD still phyically exists and still has physical data space that does not have any meaningful data written to it. Basically, I believe a blank CD is the equivalent of a string of blank spaces (" "), not an empty string. Therefore, I believe a string of blank spaces to be an actual value separate from NULL, but an empty string to be the absense of value conceptually equivalent to NULL. Please let me know if my beliefs regarding variable length strings are valid, or please enlighten me if they are not. I have read several blogs / arguments regarding this subject, but still do not see a true conceptual difference between NULLs and empty strings.

    Read the article

  • Where should I store shared resources between LocalSystem and regular user with UAC?

    - by rwired
    My application consists of two parts: A Windows Service running under the LocalSystem account and a client process running under the currently logged in regular user. I need to deploy the application across Windows versions from XP up to Win7. The client will retrieve files from the web and collect user data from the user. The service will construct files and data of it's own which the client needs to read. I'm trying to figure out the best place (registry or filesystem, or mix) to store all this. One file the client or service needs to be able to retrieve from the net is an update_patch executable which needs to run whenever an upgrade is available. I need to be sure the initial installer SETUP.EXE, and also the update_patch can figure out this ideal location and set a RegKey to be read later by both client and server telling them the magic location (The SETUP.EXE will run with elevated privileges since it needs to install the service) On my Win7 test system the service %APPDATA% points to: C:\Windows\system32\config\systemprofile\AppData\Roaming and the %APPDATA% of the client points to: C:\Users\(username)\AppData\Roaming Interestingly Google Chrome stores everything (App and Data) in C:\Users\(username)\AppData\Local\Google\Chrome Chrome runs pretty much in exactly the way I want my suite to run (able to silently update itself in the background) What I'm trying to avoid is nasty popups warning the user that the app wants to modify the system, and I want to avoid problems when VirtualStore doesn't exist because the user is running XP/2000/2003 or has UAC turned off. My target audience are non-tech-savvy general Windows users.

    Read the article

  • javascript innerHTML without childNodes?

    - by John Doe
    hi all im having a firefox issue where i dont see the wood for the trees using ajax i get html source from a php script this html code contains a tag and within the tbody some more tr/td's now i want to append this tbody plaincode to an existing table. but there is one more condition: the table is part of a form and thus contains checkboxe's and drop down's. if i would use table.innerHTML += content; firefox reloads the table and reset's all elements within it which isnt very userfriendly as id like to have what i have is this // content equals transport.responseText from ajax request function appendToTable(content){ var wrapper = document.createElement('table'); wrapper.innerHTML = content; wrapper.setAttribute('id', 'wrappid'); wrapper.style.display = 'none'; document.body.appendChild(wrapper); // get the parsed element - well it should be wrapper = document.getElementById('wrappid'); // the destination table table = document.getElementById('tableid'); // firebug prints a table element - seems right console.log(wrapper); // firebug prints the content ive inserted - seems right console.log(wrapper.innerHTML); var i = 0; // childNodes is iterated 2 times, both are textnode's // the second one seems to be a simple '\n' for(i=0;i<wrapper.childNodes.length;i++){ // firebug prints 'undefined' - wth!?? console.log(wrapper.childNodes[i].innerHTML); // firebug prints a textnode element - <TextNode textContent=" "> console.log(wrapper.childNodes[i]); table.appendChild(wrapper.childNodes[i]); } // WEIRD: firebug has no problems showing the 'wrappid' table and its contents in the html view - which seems there are the elements i want and not textelements } either this is so trivial that i dont see the problem OR its a corner case and i hope someone here has that much of expirience to give an advice on this - anyone can imagine why i get textnodes and not the finally parsed dom elements i expect? btw: btw i cant give a full example cause i cant write a smaller non working piece of code its one of those bugs that occure in the wild and not in my testset thx all

    Read the article

  • echo -e acts differently when run in a script by root on ubuntu

    - by ekrub
    When running a bash script on ubuntu 9.10, I get different behavior from bash echo's "-e" option depending on whether or not I'm running as root. Consider this script: $ cat echo-test if [ "`whoami`" = "root" ]; then echo "Running as root" fi echo Testing /bin/echo -e /bin/echo -e "foo\nbar" echo Testing bash echo -e echo -e "foo\nbar" When run as non-root user, I see this output: $ ./echo-test Testing /bin/echo -e foo bar Testing bash echo -e foo bar When run as root, I see this output: $ sudo ./echo-test Running as root Testing /bin/echo -e foo bar Testing bash echo -e -e foo bar Notice the "-e" being echoed in the last case ("-e foo" instead of "foo" on the second-to-last line). When running a script as root, the echo command runs as if "-e" was given and, if -e is given, the option itself is echoed. I can understand some subtle differences in behavior between /bin/echo and bash echo, but I would expect bash echo to behave the same no matter which user invokes it. Anyone know why this is the case? Is this a bug in bash echo? FYI -- I'm running GNU bash, version 4.0.33(1)-release (x86_64-pc-linux-gnu)

    Read the article

  • How should I name a native DLL distributed in both 32-bit and 64-bit form?

    - by Spike0xff
    I have a commercial product that's a DLL (native 32-bit code), and now it's time to build a 64-bit version of it. So when installing on 64-bit Windows, the 32-bit version goes into Windows\SysWOW64, and the 64-bit version goes into... Windows\System32! (I'm biting my tongue here...) Or the DLL(s) can be installed alongside the client application. What should I name the 64-bit DLL? Same name as 32-bit: Two files that do the same thing, have the same name, but are totally non-interchangeable. Isn't that a recipe for confusion and support problems? Different names (e.g. product.dll and product64.dll): Now client applications have to know whether they are running 32-bit or 64-bit in order to reference my DLL, and there are languages where that isn't known until run-time - .NET being just one example. And now all the statically compiled clients have to conditionalize the import declarations: IF target=WIN64 THEN import Blah from "product64.dll" ELSE import Blah from "product.dll" ENDIF The product contains massive amounts of C code, and a large chunk of C++ - porting it to C# is not an option. Advice? Suggestions?

    Read the article

  • [JAX-B] How can I ignore a superclass?

    - by MrSpandex
    I'm trying to write a web service for the java.util.logging api. So I wrote a class MyLogRecord that inherits from LogRecord. I annotated this class with JAX-B annotations, including @XmlAccessorType(XmlAccessType.NONE) so it would ignore non-annotated fields and properties. When I start up tomcat, I get errors that java.util.logging.Level and other java.util.logging classes do not have a default constructor, but none of my annotated methods make any reference to the Level class or any of the other java.util.logging classes. These are referenced by the parent class. My sub-class has everything it needs defined. How can I get JAX-B to ignore the parent class completely? Update: I found another post on this, which suggests modifying the parent class. This is obviously not possible because I am extending a java.util class. IS there any way to do this without modifying the superclass? Update2: I found a thread on java.net for a similar problem. That thread resulted in an enhancement request, which was marked as a duplicate of another issue, which resulted in the @XmlTransient annotation. The comments on these bug reports lead me to believe this is impossible in the current spec.

    Read the article

  • PHP: passing a function with parameters as parameter

    - by Oden
    Hey, I'm not sure that silly question, but I ask: So, if there is an anonymous function I can give it as another anonymous functions parameter, if it has been already stored a variable. But, whats in that case, if I have stored only one function in a variable, and add the second directly as a parameter into it? Can I add parameters to the non-stored function? Fist example (thats what i understand :) ): $func = function($str){ return $str; }; $func2 = function($str){ return $str; }; $var = $func($func2('asd')); var_dump($var); // prints out string(3) "asd" That makes sense for me, but what is with the following one? $func = function($str){ return $str; }; $var = $func(function($str = "asd"){ return $str; }); var_dump($var); /** This prints out: object(Closure)#1 (1) { ["parameter"]=> array(1) { ["$str"]=> string(10) "" } } But why? */ And at the end, can someone recommend me a book or an article, from what i can learn this lambda coding feature of php? Thank you in advance for your answers :)

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework in layered architecture

    - by Kamyar
    I am using a layered architecture with the Entity Framework. Here's What I came up with till now (All the projects Except UI are class library): Entities: The POCO Entities. Completely persistence ignorant. No Reference to other projects. Generated by Microsoft's ADO.Net POCO Entity Generator. DAL: The EDMX (Entity Model) file with the context class. (t4 generated). References: Entities BLL: Business Logic Layer. Will implement repository pattern on this layer. References: Entities, DAL. This is where the objectcontext gets populated: var ctx=new DAL.MyDBEntities(); UI: The presentation layer: ASP.NET website. References: Entities, BLL + a connection string entry to entities in the config file (question #2). Now my three questions: Is my layer discintion approach correct? In my UI, I access BLL as follows: var customerRep = new BLL.CustomerRepository(); var Customer = customerRep.GetByID(myCustomerID); The problem is that I have to define the entities connection string in my UI's web.config/app.config otherwise I get a runtime exception. IS defining the entities connectionstring in UI spoils the layers' distinction? Or is it accesptible in a muli layered architecture. Should I take any additional steps to perform chage tracking, lazy loading, etc (by etc I mean the features that Entity Framework covers in a conventional, 1 project, non POCO code generation)? Thanks and apologies for the lengthy question.

    Read the article

  • Remote SQL login page C#

    - by Crazyd22
    Hey, I am trying to create a login page that checks the username and password with the database on the server. The server is located in a different country. This is the code I have so far: #region Building the connection string string Server = "XX.XXX.XX.XX, XXXX"; string Username = "_Username_"; string Password = "_Password_"; string Database = "_Database_"; string ConnectionString = "Data Source=" + Server + ";"; ConnectionString += "User ID=" + Username + ";"; ConnectionString += "Password=" + Password + ";"; ConnectionString += "Initial Catalog=" + Database; #endregion SqlConnection SQLConnection = new SqlConnection(); try { SQLConnection.ConnectionString = ConnectionString; SQLConnection.Open();   // You can get the server version // SQLConnection.ServerVersion } catch (Exception Ex) { // Try to close the connection if (SQLConnection != null) SQLConnection.Dispose();   // Create a (useful) error message string ErrorMessage = "A error occurred while trying to connect to the server."; ErrorMessage += Environment.NewLine; ErrorMessage += Environment.NewLine; ErrorMessage += Ex.Message;   // Show error message (this = the parent Form object) MessageBox.Show(this, ErrorMessage, "Connection error", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error);   // Stop here return; } I am getting the error message: Non-negative number required. Parameter name: count I have accepted wildcards on my server and I have no idea what that error means? Any help would be appreciated, Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Audio output from Silverlight

    - by leecarter
    I'm looking to develop a Silverlight application which will take a stream of data (not an audio stream as such) from a web server. The data stream would then be manipulated to give audio of a certain format (G.711 a-Law for example) which would then be converted into PCM so that additional effects can be applied (such as boosting the volume). I'm OK up to this point. I've got my data, converted the G.711 into PCM but my problem is being able to output this PCM audio to the sound card. I basing a solution on some C# code intended for a .Net application but in Silverlight there is a problem with trying to take a copy of a delegate (function pointer) which will be the topic of a separate question once I've produced a simple code sample. So, the question is... How can I output the PCM audio that I have held in a data structure (currently an array) in my Silverlight to the user? (Please don't say write the byte values to a text box) If it were a MP3 or WMA file I would play it using a MediaElement but I don't want to have to make it into a file as this would put a crimp on applying dynamic effects to the audio. I've seen a few posts from people saying low level audio support is poor/non-existant in Silverlight so I'm open to any suggestions/ideas people may have.

    Read the article

  • Optimize website for touch devices

    - by gregers
    On a touch device like iPhone/iPad/Android it can be difficult to hit a small button with your finger. There is no cross-browser way to detect touch devices with CSS media queries that I know of. So I check if the browser has support for javascript touch events. Until now, other browsers haven't supported them, but the latest Google Chrome on dev channel enabled touch events (even for non touch devices). And I suspect other browser makers will follow, since laptops with touch screens are comming. This is the test I use: function isTouchDevice() { try { document.createEvent("TouchEvent"); return true; } catch (e) { return false; } } The problem is that this only tests if the browser has support for touch events, not the device. Does anyone know of The Correct[tm] way of giving touch devices better user experience? Other than sniffing user agent. Mozilla has a media query for touch devices. But I haven't seen anything like it in any other browser: https://developer.mozilla.org/En/CSS/Media_queries#-moz-touch-enabled Update: I want to avoid using a separate page/site for mobile/touch devices. The solution has to detect touch devices with object detection or similar from JavaScript, or include a custom touch-CSS without user agent sniffing! The main reason I asked, was to make sure it's not possible today, before I contact the css3 working group.

    Read the article

  • SQL Server Collation / ADO.NET DataTable.Locale with different languages

    - by Turro
    Hi all, we have WinForms app which stores data in SQL Server (2000, we are working on porting it in 2008) through ADO.NET (1.1, working on porting to 4.0). Everything works fine if I read data previsouly written in Western-European locale (E.g.: "test", "test ù"), but now we have to be able to mix Western and non-Western alphabets as well (E.g.: "test - ???" - these are just random arabic chars). On the SQL Server side, database has been set with the Latin1_General collation, the field is a nvarchar(80). If I run a SQL SELECT statement (E.g.: "SELECT * FROM MyTable WHERE field = 'test - ???'", don't mind about the "*" or the actual names) from Query Analyzer, I get no results; the same happens if I pass the Sql statement to an ADO.NET DataAdapter to fill a DataTable. My guess is that it has something to do with collation, but I don't know how to correct this: do I have to change to collation (SQL Server) to a different one? Or do I have to set the locale on the DataAdaoter/DataTable (ADO.NET)? Thanks in advance to anyone who will help

    Read the article

  • XForms relation of 'constraint' and 'required' properties

    - by Danny
    As a reference, the most similar question already asked is: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/8667849/making-xforms-enforce-the-constraint-and-type-model-item-properties-only-when-fi The difference is that I cannot use the relevant properties since I do want the field to be visible and accessible. I'm attempting to make a XForms form that has the following properties: It displays a text field named 'information'. (for the example) This field must not be required, since it may not be necessary to enter data. (Or this data will be entered at a later time.) However, if data is entered in this field, it must adhere to the specified constraint. I cannot mark the field as not relevant since this would hide the field and some data may need to be entered in it. The trouble now is that even though the field has no data in it, the constraint is still enforced (i.e. even though it is not marked as 'required'). I have taken a look at the XForms 1.1 specification, however it does not seem to describe how the properties 'required' and 'constraint' should interact. The only option I see, is to add a part to the constraint such that an empty value is allowed. e.g.: . = '' or <actual-constraint However, I don't like this. It feels like a workaround to add this to every such field. Is there any other way to express that non-required fields should not need to match the constraint for that field? (Am I missing something?)

    Read the article

  • LNK 1104 error to lib file - Continues despite removing includes and links

    - by user1556594
    A link error to a lib file popped up out of the blue in a c++ application of mine after code was working fine in my last session. Error 1 error LNK1104: cannot open file '..........\Program Files (x86)\FMOD SoundSystem\FMOD Programmers API Windows\api\lib\fmodex_vc.lib' I triple checked my project directories were set up correctly to link to the lib file, that the file existed in said directory and that it was a working version of the .lib. My next step was to remove the includes to the file and the links to bypass the error and work on the rest of my code until the problem was solved. The error remains, however, despite: Commenting out absolutely every include relating to the lib. Commenting out absolutely every line of code dependant on the includes. Removing the directory from VC++ Directories in the project properties. Checking the Additional Library Directories field was also clear of references. To my understanding this should have made the library and related code virtually non-existant to the compiler. What am I missing? The library itself is fmodex_vc.lib - part of the FMOD API for providing sound to interactive applications. Again, the application was working one session, but failed to compile the next. I hadn't touched the code since so this led me to believe some aspect of VS is at fault. I'd like to avoid the time involded in re-installing if possible as I'm on the clock for a review tomorrow evening and there are a few more things I'd like to smooth out before then. If necessary, however, I won't hesitate. Very much appreciate the help.

    Read the article

  • Storing arbitrary data in HTML

    - by Rob Colburn
    What is the best way to embed data in html elements for later use? As an example, let's say we have jQuery returning some JSON from the server, and we want to dump that datat out to the user as paragraphs. However, we want to be able to attach meta-data to these elements, so we can events for these later. The way I tend to handle this, is with some ugly prefixing function handle_response(data) { var html = ''; for (var i in data) { html += '<p id="prefix_' + data[i].id + '">' + data[i].message + '</p>'; } jQuery('#log').html(html).find('p').click(function(){ alert('The ID is: ' + $(this).attr('id').substr(7)); }); } Alternatively, one can build a Form in the paragraph, and store your meta-data there. But, that often feels like overkill. This has been asked before in different ways, but I do not feel it's been answered well: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/432174/how-to-store-arbitrary-data-for-some-html-tags http://stackoverflow.com/questions/209428/non-standard-attributes-on-html-tags-good-thing-bad-thing-your-thoughts

    Read the article

  • JQuery methods and DOM properties

    - by Bob Smith
    I am confused as to when I can use the DOM properties and when I could use the Jquery methods on a Jquery object. Say, I use a selector var $elemSel = $('#myDiv').find('[id *= \'select\']') At this point, $elemSel is a jquery object which I understand to be a wrapper around the array of DOM elements. I could get a reference to the DOM elements by iterating through the $elemSel object/array (Correct?) My questions: 1. Is there a way to convert this $elemSel into a non JQuery regular array of DOM elements? 2. Can I combine DOM properties and JQuery methods at the same time (something like this) $elemSel.children('td').nodeName (nodeName is DOM related, children is JQuery related) EDIT: What's wrong with this? $elemSel.get(0).is(':checked') EDIT 2: Thanks for the responses. I understand now that I can use the get(0) to get a DOM element. Additional questions: How would I convert a DOM element to a JQuery object? If I assign "this" to a variable, is that new var DOM or JQuery? If it's JQuery, how can I convert this to a DOM element? (Since I can't use get(0)) var $elemTd = $(this); When I do a assignment like the one above, I have seen some code samples not include the $ sign for the variable name. Why? And as for my original question, can I combine the DOM properties and JQuery functions at the same time on a JQuery object? $elemSel.children('td').nodeName

    Read the article

  • How to hide the console of batch scripts without losing std err/out streams

    - by cooper.thompson
    My question is similar to Running a CMD or BAT in silent mode, but with one additional constraint. If you use WshScript.Run in vbscript, you lose access to the standard in/error/out streams of the process. WshScript.Exec gives you access to the standard streams, but you can't hide your windows. How can you have your cake (hide the windows) and eat it too (have direct access to the console streams)? I'm currently thinking about a C++ executable which creates a new Windows Station and Desktop, (see MSDN) and runs a specified script within that new Desktop (I'm not yet an expert on Window Stations and Desktops, so this idea may be retarded). This idea is based loosely on Condor's USE_VISIBLE_DESKTOP feature, which, if disabled, runs Condor jobs in a non-visible Desktop. I haven't quite figured out if this requires elevated priveledge. The tradeoff of this approach is that your script can disappear into limbo if it blocks on user input. Does anyone have any additional ideas? Or feedback on the approach outlined above? Edit: Also, the purpose of our script is to set up the user environment, so running as another user, or as a system scheduled task isn't really an option (unless there are clever tricks I don't know about).

    Read the article

  • Are there more secure alternatives to the .Net SQLConnection class?

    - by KeyboardMonkey
    Hi SO people, I'm very surprised this issue hasn't been discussed in-depth: This article tells us how to use windbg to dump a running .Net process strings in memory. I spent much time researching the SecureString class, which uses unmanaged pinned memory blocks, and keeps the data encrypted too. Great stuff. The problem comes in when you use it's value, and assign it to the SQLConnection.ConnectionString property, which is of the System.String type. What does this mean? Well... It's stored in plain text Garbage Collection moves it around, leaving copies in memory It can be read with windbg memory dumps That totally negates the SecureString functionality! On top of that, the SQLConnection class is non-inheritable, I can't even roll my own with a SecureString property instead; Yay for closed-source. Yay. A new DAL layer is in progress, but for a new major version and for so many users it will be at least 2 years before every user is upgraded, others might stay on the old version indefinitely, for whatever reason. Because of the frequency the connection is used, marshalling from a SecureString won't help, since the immutable old copies stick in memory until GC comes around. Integrated Windows security isn't an option, since some clients don't work on domains, and other roam and connect over the net. How can I secure the connection string, in memory, so it can't be viewed with windbg?

    Read the article

  • Semantically linking to code snippets

    - by Tim
    What's the most simple and semantic way of presenting code snippets in HTML? Possible XHTML syntax <a href="code_sample.php" type="text/x-php"> Example of widget creation </a> Example of linked file (code_sample.php): // Create a new widget $widget = new widget(); Pros: Semantically uses title to describe the source code being referenced Up to the client to render snippet Having very many custom server-side implementations tells me it should be standardized Browsers can have plug-ins for copy+paste, download, etc Seems to me this is where it belongs (not in Javascript) Degradation: non-compliant browsers receive a link to the associated content Cons: Not semantic enough? Seems wrong to replace hyperlinks with source code for presentation <object> might be better, but wouldn't degrade as nicely. Background I'm trying to create a "personal" XHTML standard for storing notes (wow, this is probably among the nerdiest things I've said). Since notes are just "scratch" it needs to be very lightweight. SO's markdown is very lightweight but not semantic enough for my needs. Plus, now I'm just curious. What's the most ideal syntax for linking to client-rendered code-snippets?

    Read the article

  • Should not a tail-recursive function also be faster?

    - by Balint Erdi
    I have the following Clojure code to calculate a number with a certain "factorable" property. (what exactly the code does is secondary). (defn factor-9 ([] (let [digits (take 9 (iterate #(inc %) 1)) nums (map (fn [x] ,(Integer. (apply str x))) (permutations digits))] (some (fn [x] (and (factor-9 x) x)) nums))) ([n] (or (= 1 (count (str n))) (and (divisible-by-length n) (factor-9 (quot n 10)))))) Now, I'm into TCO and realize that Clojure can only provide tail-recursion if explicitly told so using the recur keyword. So I've rewritten the code to do that (replacing factor-9 with recur being the only difference): (defn factor-9 ([] (let [digits (take 9 (iterate #(inc %) 1)) nums (map (fn [x] ,(Integer. (apply str x))) (permutations digits))] (some (fn [x] (and (factor-9 x) x)) nums))) ([n] (or (= 1 (count (str n))) (and (divisible-by-length n) (recur (quot n 10)))))) To my knowledge, TCO has a double benefit. The first one is that it does not use the stack as heavily as a non tail-recursive call and thus does not blow it on larger recursions. The second, I think is that consequently it's faster since it can be converted to a loop. Now, I've made a very rough benchmark and have not seen any difference between the two implementations although. Am I wrong in my second assumption or does this have something to do with running on the JVM (which does not have automatic TCO) and recur using a trick to achieve it? Thank you.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510 511 512  | Next Page >