Search Results

Search found 14958 results on 599 pages for 'non technical'.

Page 511/599 | < Previous Page | 507 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518  | Next Page >

• Moving to an arbitrary position in a file in Python

  - by B Rivera

  Let's say that I routinely have to work with files with an unknown, but large, number of lines. Each line contains a set of integers (space, comma, semicolon, or some non-numeric character is the delimiter) in the closed interval [0, R], where R can be arbitrarily large. The number of integers on each line can be variable. Often times I get the same number of integers on each line, but occasionally I have lines with unequal sets of numbers. Suppose I want to go to Nth line in the file and retrieve the Kth number on that line (and assume that the inputs N and K are valid --- that is, I am not worried about bad inputs). How do I go about doing this efficiently in Python 3.1.2 for Windows? I do not want to traverse the file line by line. I tried using mmap, but while poking around here on SO, I learned that that's probably not the best solution on a 32-bit build because of the 4GB limit. And in truth, I couldn't really figure out how to simply move N lines away from my current position. If I can at least just "jump" to the Nth line then I can use .split() and grab the Kth integer that way. The nuance here is that I don't just need to grab one line from the file. I will need to grab several lines: they are not necessarily all near each other, the order in which I get them matters, and the order is not always based on some deterministic function. Any ideas? I hope this is enough information. Thanks!

  Read the article

• PHP OOP singleton doesn't return object

  - by Misiur

  Weird trouble. I've used singleton multiple times but this particular case just doesn't want to work. Dump says that instance is null. define('ROOT', "/"); define('INC', 'includes/'); define('CLS', 'classes/'); require_once(CLS.'Core/Core.class.php'); $core = Core::getInstance(); var_dump($core->instance); $core->settings(INC.'config.php'); $core->go(); Core class class Core { static $instance; public $db; public $created = false; private function __construct() { $this->created = true; } static function getInstance() { if(!self::$instance) { self::$instance = new Core(); } else { return self::$instance; } } public function settings($path = null) { ... } public function go() { ... } } Error code Fatal error: Call to a member function settings() on a non-object in path It's possibly some stupid typo, but I don't have any errors in my editor. Thanks for the fast responses as always.

  Read the article

• Performance of C# method polymorphism with generics

  - by zildjohn01

  I noticed in C#, unlike C++, you can combine virtual and generic methods. For example: using System.Diagnostics; class Base { public virtual void Concrete() {Debug.WriteLine("base concrete");} public virtual void Generic<T>() {Debug.WriteLine("base generic");} } class Derived : Base { public override void Concrete() {Debug.WriteLine("derived concrete");} public override void Generic<T>() {Debug.WriteLine("derived generic");} } class App { static void Main() { Base x = new Derived(); x.Concrete(); x.Generic<PerformanceCounter>(); } } Given that any number of versions of Generic<T> could be instantiated, it doesn't look like the standard vtbl approach could be used to resolve method calls, and in fact it's not. Here's the generated code: x.Concrete(); mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] mov eax,dword ptr [ecx] call dword ptr [eax+38h] x.Generic<PerformanceCounter>(); push 989A38h mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] mov edx,989914h call 76A874F1 mov dword ptr [ebp-4],eax mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] call dword ptr [ebp-4] The extra code appears to be looking up a dynamic vtbl according to the generic parameters, and then calling into it. Has anyone written about the specifics of this implementation? How well does it perform compared to the non-generic case?

  Read the article

• What is happening in Crockford's object creation technique?

  - by Chris Noe

  There are only 3 lines of code, and yet I'm having trouble fully grasping this: Object.create = function (o) { function F() {} F.prototype = o; return new F(); }; newObject = Object.create(oldObject); (from Prototypal Inheritance) 1) Object.create() starts out by creating an empty function called F. I'm thinking that a function is a kind of object. Where is this F object being stored? Globally I guess. 2) Next our oldObject, passed in as o, becomes the prototype of function F. Function (i.e., object) F now "inherits" from our oldObject, in the sense that name resolution will route through it. Good, but I'm curious what the default prototype is for an object, Object? Is that also true for a function-object? 3) Finally, F is instantiated and returned, becoming our newObject. Is the "new" operation strictly necessary here? Doesn't F already provide what we need, or is there a critical difference between function-objects and non-function-objects? Clearly it won't be possible to have a constructor function using this technique. What happens the next time Object.create() is called? Is global function F overwritten? Surely it is not reused, because that would alter previously configured objects. And what happens if multiple threads call Object.create(), is there any sort of synchronization to prevent race conditions on F?

  Read the article

• Need advanced mod_rewrite assistance

  - by user1647719

  This is driving me bananas. I have tried multiple fixes, and have even found a generator (generateit.net/mod-rewrite/) to create my .htaccess files, but I cannot get this to work. The .htaccess file is being read - if I put garbage characters in, I get a 500 server error. Also, mod rewrite was working in a simpler format, but the client wants even more SEO, so here I am. My intention: Take the url of brinkofdesign.com/portfolio/123/456/some_seo_text.html and send it to brinkofdesign.com/brink_portfolio.php?catid=123&locationid=456. The full contents of my .htaccess file are: Options +FollowSymlinks RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / RewriteRule ^portfolio([^/]*)/([^/]*)/([^/]*)\.html$ /portfolio_brink.php?catid=$1&locationid=$2&page=$3 [NC,L] RewriteRule ^(.*)blog(.+)([0-9+])(.+).html$ blog.php?blogid=$3 [NC,L] RewriteRule ^blog.xml$ blogfeed.php The blog and blogfeed parts work fine. If it matters, I do have an actual portfolio.php page - could this be breaking it? There is no actual /portfolio/ folder - this is just part of the SEO nme. Also, the host is 1and1.com. Real life tests: brinkofdesign.com/portfolio/1/1/birmingham_al_corporate_branding.html loads my actual portfolio.php page - which is supposed to be a landing page for the portfolio, as opposed to the brink_portfolio.php page, which is my detail record page. No variables are passed (echoing out the contents of the $_GET array gives an empty array). Typing in an non SEO link like brinkofdesign.com/brink_portfolio.php?catid=1&locationid=1 does work correctly. Gurus, please help me!

  Read the article

• mod_rewrite to redirect URL with query string

  - by meeble

  I've searched all over stackoverflow, but none of the answers seem to be working for this situation. I have a lot of working mod_rewrite rules already in my httpd.conf file. I just recently found that Google had indexed one of my non-rewritten URLs with a query string in it: http://domain.com/?state=arizona I would like to use mod_rewrite to do a 301 redirect to this URL: http://domain.com/arizona The issue is that later on in my rewrite rules, that 2nd URL is being rewritten to pass query variables on to WordPress. It ends up getting rewritten to: http://domain.com/index.php?state=arizona Which is the proper functionality. Everything I have tried so far has either not worked at all or put me in an endless rewrite loop. This is what I have right now, which is getting stuck in a loop: RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} state=arizona [NC] RewriteRule .* http://domain.com/arizona [R=301,L] #older rewrite rule that passes query string based on URL: RewriteRule ^([A-Za-z-]+)$ index.php?state=$1 [L] which gives me an endless rewrite loop and takes me to this URL: http://domain.com/arizona?state=arizona I then tried this: RewriteRule .* http://domain.com/arizona? [R=301,L] which got rid of the query string in the URL, but still creates a loop.

  Read the article

• Why there is no scoped locks for multiple mutexes in C++0x or Boost.Thread?

  - by Vicente Botet Escriba

  C++0x thread library or Boost.thread define non-member variadic template function that lock all lock avoiding dead lock. template <class L1, class L2, class... L3> void lock(L1&, L2&, L3&...); While this function avoid help to deadlock, the standard do not includes the associated scoped lock to write exception safe code. { std::lock(l1,l2); // do some thing // unlock li l2 exception safe } That means that we need to use other mechanism as try-catch block to make exception safe code or define our own scoped lock on multiple mutexes ourselves or even do that { std::lock(l1,l2); std::unique_lock lk1(l1, std::adopted); std::unique_lock lk2(l2, std::adopted); // do some thing // unlock li l2 on destruction of lk1 lk2 } Why the standard doesn't includes a scoped lock on multiple mutexes of the same type, as for example { std::array_unique_lock<std::mutex> lk(l1,l2); // do some thing // unlock l1 l2 on destruction of lk } or tuples of mutexes { std::tuple_unique_lock<std::mutex, std::recursive_mutex> lk(l1,l2); // do some thing // unlock l1 l2 on destruction of lk } Is there something wrong on the design?

  Read the article

• Does C# allow method overloading, PHP style (__call)?

  - by mr.b

  In PHP, there is a special method named __call($calledMethodName, $arguments), which allows class to catch calls to non-existing methods, and do something about it. Since most of classic languages are strongly typed, compiler won't allow calling a method that does not exist, I'm clear with that part. What I want to accomplish (and I figured this is how I would do it in PHP, but C# is something else) is to proxy calls to a class methods and log each of these calls. Right now, I have code similar to this: class ProxyClass { static logger; public AnotherClass inner { get; private set; } public ProxyClass() { inner = new AnotherClass(); } } class AnotherClass { public void A() {} public void B() {} public void C() {} // ... } // meanwhile, in happyCodeLandia... ProxyClass pc = new ProxyClass(); pc.inner.A(); pc.inner.B(); // ... So, how can I proxy calls to an object instance in extensible way? Extensible, meaning that I don't have to modify ProxyClass whenever AnotherClass changes. In my case, AnotherClass can have any number of methods, so it wouldn't be appropriate to overload or wrap all methods to add logging. I am aware that this might not be the best approach for this kind of problem, so if anyone has idea what approach to use, shoot. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Multi-reader IPC solution?

  - by gct

  I'm working on a framework in C++ (just for fun for now), that lets the user write plugins that use a standard API to stream data between each other. There's going to be three basic transport mechanisms for the data: files, sockets, and some kind of IPC piping system. The system is set up so that for the non-file transport, each stream can have multiple readers. IE once a server socket it setup, multiple computers can connect and stream the data. I'm a little stuck at the multi-reader IPC system though. All my plugins run in threads so they live in the same address space, so some kind of shared memory system would work fine, I was thinking I'd write my own circular buffer with a write pointer and read pointers chassing it around the buffer, but I have my doubts that I can achieve the same performance as something like linux pipes. I'm curious what people would suggest for a multi-reader solution to something like this? Is the overhead for pipes or domain sockets low enough that I could just open a connection to each reader and issue separate writes to each reader? This is intended to be significant volumes of data (tens of mega-samples/sec), so performance is a must.

  Read the article

• IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

  - by crosan

  We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

  Read the article

• implementing a read/write field for an interface that only defines read

  - by PaulH

  I have a C# 2.0 application where a base interface allows read-only access to a value in a concrete class. But, within the concrete class, I'd like to have read/write access to that value. So, I have an implementation like this: public abstract class Base { public abstract DateTime StartTime { get; } } public class Foo : Base { DateTime start_time_; public override DateTime StartTime { get { return start_time_; } internal set { start_time_ = value; } } } But, this gives me the error: Foo.cs(200,22): error CS0546: 'Foo.StartTime.set': cannot override because 'Base.StartTime' does not have an overridable set accessor I don't want the base class to have write access. But, I do want the concrete class to provide read/write access. Is there a way to make this work? Thanks, PaulH Unfortunately, Base can't be changed to an interface as it contains non-abstract functionality also. Something I should have thought to put in the original problem description. public abstract class Base { public abstract DateTime StartTime { get; } public void Buzz() { // do something interesting... } } My solution is to do this: public class Foo : Base { DateTime start_time_; public override DateTime StartTime { get { return start_time_; } } internal void SetStartTime { start_time_ = value; } } It's not as nice as I'd like, but it works.

  Read the article

• RegEx: difference between "(?:...) and normal parentheses

  - by N0thing

  >>> re.findall(r"(?:do|re|mi)+", "mimi") ['mimi'] >>> re.findall(r"(do|re|mi)+", "mimi") ['mi'] According to my understanding of the definitions, it should produce the same answer. The only difference between (...) and (?:...) should be whether or not we can use back-references later. Am I missing something? (...) Matches whatever regular expression is inside the parentheses, and indicates the start and end of a group; the contents of a group can be retrieved after a match has been performed, and can be matched later in the string with the \number special sequence, described below. To match the literals '(' or ')', use ( or ), or enclose them inside a character class: [(] [)]. (?:...) A non-capturing version of regular parentheses. Matches whatever regular expression is inside the parentheses, but the substring matched by the group cannot be retrieved after performing a match or referenced later in the pattern.

  Read the article

• php convert european datetime to mysql datetime

  - by Mathlight

  I'm really stuck with this problem. I've got an datetime string like this: 28-06-14 11:01:00 I'm trying to convert it to 2014-06-28 11:01:00 so that i can insert it into the database ( with field type datetime. I've tryed multiple things like this: $datumHolder = new DateTime($data['datum'], new DateTimeZone('Europe/Amsterdam')); $datum1 = $datumHolder -> format("Y-m-d H:i:s"); $datum2 = date( 'Y-m-d', strtotime(str_replace('-', '/', $data['datum']) ) ); $datum3 = DateTime::createFromFormat( 'Y-m-d-:Hi:s', $data['datum']); This is the output i get: datum1: 2028-06-14 11:01:00 datum2: 1970-01-01 And i get an error for datum3: echo "datum3: " . $datum3->format( 'Y-m-d H:i:s'); . '<br />'; Call to a member function format() on a non-object So my question is very clear... What am I doing wrong / how to get this working? Thanks in advantage guys! I know that this question is asked many, many times... But whatever i try, i can't get it working...

  Read the article

• Interesting LinqToSql behaviour

  - by Ben Robinson

  We have a database table that stores the location of some wave files plus related meta data. There is a foreign key (employeeid) on the table that links to an employee table. However not all wav files relate to an employee, for these records employeeid is null. We are using LinqToSQl to access the database, the query to pull out all non employee related wav file records is as follows: var results = from Wavs in db.WaveFiles where Wavs.employeeid == null; Except this returns no records, despite the fact that there are records where employeeid is null. On profiling sql server i discovered the reason no records are returned is because LinqToSQl is turning it into SQL that looks very much like: SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE 1=0 Obviously this returns no rows. However if I go into the DBML designer and remove the association and save. All of a sudden the exact same LINQ query turns into SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE EmployeeID IS NULL I.e. if there is an association then LinqToSql assumes that all records have a value for the foreign key (even though it is nullable and the property appears as a nullable int on the WaveFile entity) and as such deliverately constructs a where clause that will return no records. Does anyone know if there is a way to keep the association in LinqToSQL but stop this behaviour. A workaround i can think of quickly is to have a calculated field called IsSystemFile and set it to 1 if employeeid is null and 0 otherwise. However this seems like a bit of a hack to work around strange behaviour of LinqToSQl and i would rather do something in the DBML file or define something on the foreign key constraint that will prevent this behaviour.

  Read the article

• regexp target last main li in list

  - by veilig

  I need to target the starting tag of the last top level LI in a list that may or may-not contain sublists in various positions - without using CSS or Javascript. Is there a simple/elegant regexp that can help with this? I'm no guru w/ them, but it appears the need for greedy/non-greedy selectors when I'm selecting all the middle text (.*) / (.+) changes as nested lists are added and moved around in the list - and this is throwing me off. $pattern = '/^(<ul>.*)<li>(.+<\/li><\/ul>)$/'; $replacement = '$1<li id="lastLi">$3'; Perhaps there is an easier approach?? converting to XML to target the LI and then convert back? ie: Single Element <ul> <li>TARGET</li> </ul> Multiple Elements <ul> <li>foo</li> <li>TARGET</li> </ul> Nested Lists before end <ul> <li> foo <ul> <li>bar</li> </ul> <li> <li>TARGET</li> </ul> Nested List at end <ul> <li>foo</li> <li> TARGET <ul> <li>bar</li> </ul> </li> </ul>

  Read the article

• Shrinking the transaction log of a mirrored SQL Server 2005 database

  - by Peter Di Cecco

  I've been looking all over the internet and I can't find an acceptable solution to my problem, I'm wondering if there even is a solution without a compromise... I'm not a DBA, but I'm a one man team working on a huge web site with no extra funding for extra bodies, so I'm doing the best I can. Our backup plan sucks, and I'm having a really hard time improving it. Currently, there are two servers running SQL Server 2005. I have a mirrored database (no witness) that seems to be working well. I do a full backup at noon and at midnight. These get backed up to tape by our service provider nightly, and I burn the backup files to dvd weekly to keep old records on hand. Eventually I'd like to switch to log shipping, since mirroring seems kinda pointless without a witness server. The issue is that the transaction log is growing non-stop. From the research I've done, it seems that I can't truncate a log file of a mirrored database. So how do I stop the file from growing!? Based on this web page, I tried this: USE dbname GO CHECKPOINT GO BACKUP LOG dbname TO DISK='NULL' WITH NOFORMAT, INIT, NAME = N'dbnameLog Backup', SKIP, NOREWIND, NOUNLOAD GO DBCC SHRINKFILE('dbname_Log', 2048) GO But that didn't work. Everything else I've found says I need to disable the mirror before running the backup log command in order for it to work. My Question (TL;DR) How can I shrink my transaction log file without disabling the mirror?

  Read the article

• Function Returning Negative Value

  - by Geowil

  I still have not run it through enough tests however for some reason, using certain non-negative values, this function will sometimes pass back a negative value. I have done a lot of manual testing in calculator with different values but I have yet to have it display this same behavior. I was wondering if someone would take a look at see if I am missing something. float calcPop(int popRand1, int popRand2, int popRand3, float pERand, float pSRand) { return ((((((23000 * popRand1) * popRand2) * pERand) * pSRand) * popRand3) / 8); } The variables are all contain randomly generated values: popRand1: between 1 and 30 popRand2: between 10 and 30 popRand3: between 50 and 100 pSRand: between 1 and 1000 pERand: between 1.0f and 5500.0f which is then multiplied by 0.001f before being passed to the function above Edit: Alright so after following the execution a bit more closely it is not the fault of this function directly. It produces an infinitely positive float which then flips negative when I use this code later on: pPMax = (int)pPStore; pPStore is a float that holds popCalc's return. So the question now is, how do I stop the formula from doing this? Testing even with very high values in Calculator has never displayed this behavior. Is there something in how the compiler processes the order of operations that is causing this or are my values simply just going too high? If the later I could just increase the division to 16 I think.

  Read the article

• Merge computed data from two tables back into one of them

  - by Tyler McHenry

  I have the following situation (as a reduced example). Two tables, Measures1 and Measures2, each of which store an ID, a Weight in grams, and optionally a Volume in fluid onces. (In reality, Measures1 has a good deal of other data that is irrelevant here) Contents of Measures1: +----+----------+--------+ | ID | Weight | Volume | +----+----------+--------+ | 1 | 100.0000 | NULL | | 2 | 200.0000 | NULL | | 3 | 150.0000 | NULL | | 4 | 325.0000 | NULL | +----+----------+--------+ Contents of Measures2: +----+----------+----------+ | ID | Weight | Volume | +----+----------+----------+ | 1 | 75.0000 | 10.0000 | | 2 | 400.0000 | 64.0000 | | 3 | 100.0000 | 22.0000 | | 4 | 500.0000 | 100.0000 | +----+----------+----------+ These tables describe equivalent weights and volumes of a substance. E.g. 10 fluid ounces of substance 1 weighs 75 grams. The IDs are related: ID 1 in Measures1 is the same substance as ID 1 in Measures2. What I want to do is fill in the NULL volumes in Measures1 using the information in Measures2, but keeping the weights from Measures1 (then, ultimately, I can drop the Measures2 table, as it will be redundant). For the sake of simplicity, assume that all volumes in Measures1 are NULL and all volumes in Measures2 are not. I can compute the volumes I want to fill in with the following query: SELECT Measures1.ID, Measures1.Weight, (Measures2.Volume * (Measures1.Weight / Measures2.Weight)) AS DesiredVolume FROM Measures1 JOIN Measures2 ON Measures1.ID = Measures2.ID; Producing: +----+----------+-----------------+ | ID | Weight | DesiredVolume | +----+----------+-----------------+ | 4 | 325.0000 | 65.000000000000 | | 3 | 150.0000 | 33.000000000000 | | 2 | 200.0000 | 32.000000000000 | | 1 | 100.0000 | 13.333333333333 | +----+----------+-----------------+ But I am at a loss for how to actually insert these computed values into the Measures1 table. Preferably, I would like to be able to do it with a single query, rather than writing a script or stored procedure that iterates through every ID in Measures1. But even then I am worried that this might not be possible because the MySQL documentation says that you can't use a table in an UPDATE query and a SELECT subquery at the same time, and I think any solution would need to do that. I know that one workaround might be to create a new table with the results of the above query (also selecting all of the other non-Volume fields in Measures1) and then drop both tables and replace Measures1 with the newly-created table, but I was wondering if there was any better way to do it that I am missing.

  Read the article

• gcc -finline-functions behaviour?

  - by user176168

  I'm using gcc with the -finline-functions optimization for release builds. In order to combat code bloat because I work on an embedded system I want to say don't inline particular functions. The obvious way to do this would be through function attributes ie attribute(noinline). The problem is this doesn't seem to work when I switch on the global -finline-functions optimisation which is part of the -O3 switch. It also has something to do with it being templated as a non templated version of the same function doesn't get inlined which is as expected. Has anybody any idea of how to control inlining when this global switch is on? Here's the code: #include <cstdlib> #include <iostream> using namespace std; class Base { public: template<typename _Type_> static _Type_ fooT( _Type_ x, _Type_ y ) __attribute__ (( noinline )); }; template<typename _Type_> _Type_ Base::fooT( _Type_ x, _Type_ y ) { asm(""); return x + y; } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { int test = Base::fooT( 1, 2 ); printf( "test = %d\n", test ); system("PAUSE"); return EXIT_SUCCESS; }

  Read the article

• Problem convert column values from VARCHAR(n) to DECIMAL

  - by Kevin Babcock

  I have a SQL Server 2000 database with a column of type VARCHAR(255). All the data is either NULL, or numeric data with up to two points of precision (e.g. '11.85'). I tried to run the following T-SQL query but received the error 'Error converting data type varchar to numeric' SELECT CAST([MyColumn] AS DECIMAL) FROM [MyTable]; I tried a more specific cast, which also failed. SELECT CAST([MyColumn] AS DECIMAL(6,2)) FROM [MyTable]; I also tried the following to see if any data is non-numeric, and the only values returned were NULL. SELECT ISNUMERIC([MyColumn]), [MyColumn] FROM [MyTable] WHERE ISNUMERIC([MyColumn]) = 0; I tried to convert to other data types, such as FLOAT and MONEY, but only MONEY was successful. So I tried the following: SELECT CAST(CAST([MyColumn] AS MONEY) AS DECIMAL) FROM [MyTable]; ...which worked just fine. Any ideas why the original query failed? Will there be a problem if I first convert to MONEY and then to DECIMAL? Thanks!

  Read the article

• How to maintain form state after Post-Redirect-Get in ASP.net?

  - by Ian Boyd

  Imagine a page with a form input: Search Criteria: crackers                   From: [email protected]           To: [email protected]       Subject: How to maintain form state with PRG? Message: Imagine a page with form input:                         Send After the user clicks Send, the server will instruct to client to Redirect, as part of the Post-Redirect-Get pattern. POST /mail/u/compose HTTP/1.1 303 See Other Location: http://stackoverflow.com/mail/u/compose And the client will issue a GET of the new page. The problem is that some elements of the existing form are lost: Search Criteria:                    It gets worse when there are a few drop-downs, and checkboxes. How can i maintain form state in using Post-Redirect-Get in ASP.net, given that the viewstate is then non-existent. Bonus Reading ASP.NET: How to redirect, prefilling form data?

  Read the article

• Removing dotted border without setting NoFocus in Windows PyQt

  - by Cryptite

  There are a few questions on SO about this, all of which seem to say that the only way to remove the dotted border is to set the focusPolicy on widget/item in question to NoFocus. While this works as a temporary fix, this prevents further interaction with said widget/item in the realm of other necessary focusEvents. Said border in question: Here's an example of why this doesn't work. I have a Non-Modal widget popup, think a lightbox for an image. I want to detect a mousePressEvent outside of the widget and close the widget as a result. To do this, I should catch the focusOutEvent. However, if a vast majority of widgets in my program are set as NoFocus (to remove the border issue), then I cannot catch the focusOutEvent because, you guessed it, they have no focus policy. Here's another example: I have a QTreeWidget that is subclassed so I can catch keyPressEvents for various reasons. The QTreeWidget is also set as NoFocus to prevent the border. Because of this, however, the widget never has focus and therefore no keyPressEvents can be caught. A workaround for this (kludgy, imo) is to use the widget's grabKeyboard class, which is dangerous if I forget to releaseKeyboard later. This is not optimal. So then the question is, is there a way to remove this weird (mostly just ugly) dotted border without turning off focus for everything in my app? Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• Best Practice: Access form elements by HTML id or name attribute?

  - by seth

  As any seasoned JavaScript developer knows, there are many (too many) ways to do the same thing. For example, say you have a text field as follows: <form name="myForm"> <input type="text" name="foo" id="foo" /> There are many way to access this in JavaScript: [1] document.forms[0].elements[0]; [2] document.myForm.foo; [3] document.getElementById('foo'); [4] document.getElementById('myForm').foo; ... and so on ... Methods [1] and [3] are well documented in the Mozilla Gecko documentation, but neither are ideal. [1] is just too general to be useful and [3] requires both an id and a name (assuming you will be posting the data to a server side language). Ideally, it would be best to have only an id attribute or a name attribute (having both is somewhat redundant, especially if the id isn't necessary for any css, and increases the likelihood of typos, etc). [2] seems to be the most intuitive and it seems to be widely used, but I haven't seen it referenced in the Gecko documentation and I'm worried about both forwards compatibility and cross browser compatiblity (and of course I want to be as standards compliant as possible). So what's best practice here? Can anyone point to something in the DOM documentation or W3C specification that could resolve this? Note I am specifically interested in a non-library solution (jQuery/Prototype).

  Read the article

• Save Xml in an Excel cell value causes ComException

  - by mas_oz2k1

  I am trying to save an object (Class1) as string in a cell value. My issue is that from time to time I have a ComException: HRESULT: 0x8007000E (E_OUTOFMEMORY) (It is kind of random but I have not identified any particular pattern yet) when I write the value into a cell. Any ideas will be welcome For illustration purposes: Let Class1 be the class to be converted to an Xml string. (Notice that I removed the xml declaration at the start of the string to avoid having the preamble present- non printable character) <Class1 xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" <ElementID HL690375</ElementID </Class1" Class1 myClass = new Class1(); this class is converted to a string s. s= ConvertObjectToXmlString(myClass); then s is assigned to a cell Range r = Application.ActiveCell; r.Value2 = s; Note: (1) If the string is too big, I limit it to 32000 chars and split the string in chunks of 32000 chars and save the chunks in multiple cells. (2) I do not to quote the string before adding to a cell. Do I need to? If so how it can be done? (3) All object contents are English. (4) C# code sample will be great but VB.net code is OK.

  Read the article

• GWT - problems with constants in css

  - by hba

  Hi, I'm new to GWT; I'm building a small sample app. I have several CSS files. I'm able to successfully use the ClientBundle and CssResource to assign styles to the elements defined in my UiBinder script. Now I'd like to take it one step further and introduce CSS constants using @def css-rule. The @def works great when I define a constant and use it in the same CSS file. However I cannot use it in another CSS file. When I try to use the @eval rule to evaluate an existing constant the compiler throws an execption: "cannot make a static reference to the non-static method ". Here is an example of what I'm trying to do: ConstantStyle.css @def BACKGROUND red; ConstantStyle.java package abc; import ...; interface ConstantStyle extends cssResource { String BACKGROUND(); } MyStyle.css @eval BACKGROUND abc.ConstantStyle.BACKGROUND(); .myClass {background-color: BACKGROUND;} MyStyle.java package abc; import ...; interface ConstantStyle extends cssResource { String myClass; } MyResources.java package abc; import ...; interface MyResources extends ClientBundle { @Source("ConstantStyle.css") ConstantStyle constantStyle(); @Source("MyStyle.css") MyStyle myStyle(); } Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 507 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518  | Next Page >