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  • Changing URI suffix in Joomla when adding child php pages

    - by Sleem
    I have added a new directory in my joomla website: http://sitedomain.tld/xxx/ then I have added index.php in that directory here is the code define( '_JEXEC', 1 ); define('JPATH_BASE', '..' ); define( 'DS', DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR ); require_once ( '../includes/defines.php' ); require_once ( '../includes/framework.php' ); //JDEBUG ? $_PROFILER->mark( 'afterLoad' ) : null; /** * CREATE THE APPLICATION * * NOTE : */ $mainframe =& JFactory::getApplication('site'); $template_name = $mainframe->getTemplate();; $mainframe->initialise(); JPluginHelper::importPlugin('system'); /** * ROUTE THE APPLICATION * * NOTE : */ $mainframe->route(); // authorization $Itemid = JRequest::getInt( 'Itemid'); $mainframe->authorize($Itemid); // trigger the onAfterRoute events //JDEBUG ? $_PROFILER->mark('afterRoute') : null; //$mainframe->triggerEvent('onAfterRoute'); /** * DISPATCH THE APPLICATION * * NOTE : */ $option = JRequest::getCmd('option'); //$mainframe->dispatch($option); // trigger the onAfterDispatch events //JDEBUG ? $_PROFILER->mark('afterDispatch') : null; //$mainframe->triggerEvent('onAfterDispatch'); /** * RENDER THE APPLICATION * * NOTE : */ $mainframe->render(); /** * RETURN THE RESPONSE */ var_dump($document->getHeadData()); echo JResponse::toString($mainframe->getCfg('gzip')); sdwdwd wdwd When I view this page in the browser, all the dynamic links like CSS, JS and images were suffixed by the /xxx/ path which make them broken ! How can I drop this suffix or how do I change this suffix from /xxx to / to it points to the original files location? I have tried setting the JDocument::setBase and also tried to play with the JURI object and changed its _path and _uri without any change Thanks

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  • How to code a URL shortener?

    - by marco92w
    I want to create a URL shortener service where you can write a long URL into an input field and the service shortens the URL to "http://www.example.org/abcdef". Instead of "abcdef" there can be any other string with six characters containing a-z, A-Z and 0-9. That makes 56 trillion possible strings. My approach: I have a database table with three columns: id, integer, auto-increment long, string, the long URL the user entered short, string, the shortened URL (or just the six characters) I would then insert the long URL into the table. Then I would select the auto-increment value for "id" and build a hash of it. This hash should then be inserted as "short". But what sort of hash should I build? Hash algorithms like MD5 create too long strings. I don't use these algorithms, I think. A self-built algorithm will work, too. My idea: For "http://www.google.de/" I get the auto-increment id 239472. Then I do the following steps: short = ''; if divisible by 2, add "a"+the result to short if divisible by 3, add "b"+the result to short ... until I have divisors for a-z and A-Z. That could be repeated until the number isn't divisible any more. Do you think this is a good approach? Do you have a better idea?

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  • Parsing Lisp S-Expressions with known schema in C#

    - by Drew Noakes
    I'm working with a service that provides data as a Lisp-like S-Expression string. This data is arriving thick and fast, and I want to churn through it as quickly as possible, ideally directly on the byte stream (it's only single-byte characters) without any backtracking. These strings can be quite lengthy and I don't want the GC churn of allocating a string for the whole message. My current implementation uses CoCo/R with a grammar, but it has a few problems. Due to the backtracking, it assigns the whole stream to a string. It's also a bit fiddly for users of my code to change if they have to. I'd rather have a pure C# solution. CoCo/R also does not allow for the reuse of parser/scanner objects, so I have to recreate them for each message. Conceptually the data stream can be thought of as a sequence of S-Expressions: (item 1 apple)(item 2 banana)(item 3 chainsaw) Parsing this sequence would create three objects. The type of each object can be determined by the first value in the list, in the above case "item". The schema/grammar of the incoming stream is well known. Before I start coding I'd like to know if there are libraries out there that do this already. I'm sure I'm not the first person to have this problem.

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  • Should a Perl constructor return an undef or a "invalid" object?

    - by DVK
    Question: What is considered to be "Best practice" - and why - of handling errors in a constructor?. "Best Practice" can be a quote from Schwartz, or 50% of CPAN modules use it, etc...; but I'm happy with well reasoned opinion from anyone even if it explains why the common best practice is not really the best approach. As far as my own view of the topic (informed by software development in Perl for many years), I have seen three main approaches to error handling in a perl module (listed from best to worst in my opinion): Construct an object, set an invalid flag (usually "is_valid" method). Often coupled with setting error message via your class's error handling. Pros: Allows for standard (compared to other method calls) error handling as it allows to use $obj->errors() type calls after a bad constructor just like after any other method call. Allows for additional info to be passed (e.g. 1 error, warnings, etc...) Allows for lightweight "redo"/"fixme" functionality, In other words, if the object that is constructed is very heavy, with many complex attributes that are 100% always OK, and the only reason it is not valid is because someone entered an incorrect date, you can simply do "$obj->setDate()" instead of the overhead of re-executing entire constructor again. This pattern is not always needed, but can be enormously useful in the right design. Cons: None that I'm aware of. Return "undef". Cons: Can not achieve any of the Pros of the first solution (per-object error messages outside of global variables and lightweight "fixme" capability for heavy objects). Die inside the constructor. Outside of some very narrow edge cases, I personally consider this an awful choice for too many reasons to list on the margins of this question. UPDATE: Just to be clear, I consider the (otherwise very worthy and a great design) solution of having very simple constructor that can't fail at all and a heavy initializer method where all the error checking occurs to be merely a subset of either case #1 (if initializer sets error flags) or case #3 (if initializer dies) for the purposes of this question. Obviously, choosing such a design, you automatically reject option #2.

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  • JAVASCRIPT changing on click

    - by Webby
    Hello, Id like some help changing this javascript onclick event to just load the data on page the page load... Preferably not using the body on load tag... So obviously I'd pre set the var for term inside the script term rather than the excisting on click event.. Hope that made sense <p><a id="keywordlink" href="?term=wombats">Get keywords for wombats</a></p> <script type="text/javascript" src="keywords.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var x = document.getElementById('keywordlink'); if(x){ x.onclick = function(){ var term = this.href.split('=')[1]; this.innerHTML += ' (loading...)'; KEYWORDS.get(term,seed); return false; } } function seed(o){ var div = document.createElement('div'); var head = document.createElement('h2'); head.innerHTML = 'Keywords for '+o.term; div.appendChild(head); var p = document.createElement('p'); p.innerHTML = o.toplist; div.appendChild(p); var head = document.createElement('h3'); head.innerHTML = 'Details:'; div.appendChild(head); var list = document.createElement('ol'); for(var i=0,j=o.keywords.length;i<j;i++){ var li = document.createElement('li'); li.innerHTML = o.keywords[i].term + '('+o.keywords[i].amount+')'; list.appendChild(li); } div.appendChild(list); x.parentNode.replaceChild(div,x); } </script>

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  • Android : Customizing tabs on state : How do I make a selector a drawable

    - by Chrispix
    I know how to put the icon on each tab, that is no problem. I also ran across this : Stack Overflow thread on pretty much same thing I followed one of the links from that question, and found this Pretty much, it said use a selector defined in the xml, sure, did that. But there is no id associated w/ it so I am not sure how to get the selector function as a drawable so I can use it as the icon for the tabs. Maybe I am going about this the wrong way.. But this is what I have, and obviously missing something. <selector android:id="@+id/myselector" xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <!-- Non focused states --> <item android:state_focused="false" android:state_selected="false" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/darklogo" /> <item android:state_focused="false" android:state_selected="true" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/lightlogo" /> <!-- Focused states --> <item android:state_focused="true" android:state_selected="false" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/lightlogo" /> <item android:state_focused="true" android:state_selected="true" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/lightlogo" /> <!-- Pressed --> <item android:state_pressed="true" android:drawable="@drawable/lightlogo" /> </selector> In my code, an example tab is generated using : host.addTab(host.newTabSpec("three") .setIndicator("map",drawables) .setContent(new Intent(this, Map.class))); Right now drawables is just a reference to an drawable image resource. How do I make the selector a drawable? * This is my question *

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  • Asp.net Login Status Question: It Aint Working

    - by contactmatt
    I'm starting to use Role Management in my website, and I'm current following along on the tutorial from http://www.asp.net/Learn/Security/tutorial-02-vb.aspx . I'm having a problem with the asp:LoginStatus control. It is not telling me that I am currently logged in after a successful login. This can't be true because after successfully logging in, my LoggedInTemplate is shown. The username and passwords are simply stored in a array. Heres the Login.aspx page code. Protected Sub btnLogin_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) _ Handles btnLogin.Click ' Three valid username/password pairs: Scott/password, Jisun/password, and Sam/password. Dim users() As String = {"Scott", "Jisun", "Sam"} Dim passwords() As String = {"password", "password", "password"} For i As Integer = 0 To users.Length - 1 Dim validUsername As Boolean = (String.Compare(txtUserName.Text, users(i), True) = 0) Dim validPassword As Boolean = (String.Compare(txtPassword.Text, passwords(i), False) = 0) If validUsername AndAlso validPassword Then FormsAuthentication.RedirectFromLoginPage(txtUserName.Text, chkRemember.Checked) End If Next ' If we reach here, the user's credentials were invalid lblInvalid.Visible = True End Sub Here is the content place holder on the master page specifically designed to hold Login Information. On successfull login, the page is redirected to '/Default.aspx', and the LoggedIn Template below is shown...but the status says Log In. <asp:ContentPlaceHolder Id="LoginContent" runat="server"> <asp:LoginView ID="LoginView1" runat="server"> <LoggedInTemplate> Welcome back, <asp:LoginName ID="LoginName1" runat="server" />. </LoggedInTemplate> <AnonymousTemplate> Hello, stranger. </AnonymousTemplate> </asp:LoginView> <br /> <asp:LoginStatus ID="LoginStatus1" runat="server" LogoutAction="Redirect" LogoutPageUrl="~/Logout.aspx" /> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> Forms authentication is enabled. I'm not sure what to do about this :o.

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  • Having trouble adding jquery to charisma

    - by kira423
    I am trying to add some jquery to this Charisma admin panel and have been having nothing but trouble. I am trying to add it to the charisma.js file. This is what I am adding // add multiple select / deselect functionality $("#selectall").click(function () { $('.checkbox').attr('checked', this.checked); }); // if all checkbox are selected, check the selectall checkbox // and viceversa $(".checkbox").click(function(){ if($(".checkbox").length == $(".checkbox:checked").length) { $("#selectall").attr("checked", "checked"); } else { $("#selectall").removeAttr("checked"); } }); I have tried this code wrapped in the anonymous $(function(){ as well as without, and I have inserted it into both $(document).ready(function(){ and docReady() as well as in the head of my code but I am not really "trained" on jquery so I am a bit lost as to what I am doing wrong. My class and div tags are correct for the code, as I have checked them several times for misspellings. I am not sure what I am doing wrong. Is there a better "check" all code I can use here, or am I just putting this all in the wrong place? UPDATE: I think the actual code may be working, I cannot tell, after I click the select all box it seems that I have to click the other boxes 3 times to get the check mark back into the box, so it seems like it is having trouble actually showing that the box is marked. This may be a problem with styling, but I don't know how to correct it.

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  • Converting John Resig's JavaScript Templating Engine to work with PHP Templates

    - by Serhiy
    I'm trying to convert the John Resig's Templating Engine to work with PHP. Essentially what I would like to achieve is the ability to use certain Kohana Views via a JavaScript templating engine, that way I can use the same views for both a standard PHP request and a jQuery AJAX request. I'm starting with the basics and would like to be able to convert http://github.com/nje/jquery-tmpl/blob/master/jquery.tmpl.js To work with php like so... ### From This ### <li><a href="{%= link %}">{%= title %}</a> - {%= description %}</li> ### Into This ### <li><a href="<?= $link ?>"><?= $title ?></a> - <?= description ?></li> The RexEx in it is a bit over my head and it's apparently not as easy as changing the %} to ? in lines 148 to 158. Any help would be highly appreciated. I'm also not sure of how to take care of the $ difference that PHP variables have. Thanks, Serhiy

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  • Am I under risk of CSRF attacks in a POST form that doesn't require the user to be logged in?

    - by Monika Sulik
    I'm probably being a total noob here, but I'm still uncertain about what a CSRF (Cross-Site Request Forgery) attack is exactly. So lets look at three situations... 1) I have a POST form that I use to edit data on my site. I want this data to be edited only by users that are logged in. 2) I have a site, which can be used by both users who are logged in as well as guests. Parts of the site are for logged in users only, but there are also POST forms that can be used by all users - anonymous and not (for example a standard contact form). Should the contact form be safeguarded against CSRF attacks? 3) I have a site which doesn't have an authentication system at all (well, perhaps that's unrealistic, so lets say it has an admin site which is separate from the rest of it and the admin part is properly safeguarded). The main part of the site is only used by anonymous users. Do the POST forms on it need to be safeguarded? In the case of 1) the answer is clearly yes. But in the case of 2 and 3 I don't know (and is the difference between 2 and 3 even significant?).

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  • Javascript Square bracket notation for global variables

    - by Yousuf Haider
    I ran into an interesting issue the other day and was wondering if someone could shed light on why this is happening. Here is what I am doing (for the purposes of this example I have dumbed down the example somewhat): I am creating a globally scoped variable using the square bracket notation and assigning it a value. Later I declare a var with the same name as the one I just created above. Note I am not assigning a value. Since this is a redeclaration of the same variable the old value should not be overriden as described here: http://www.w3schools.com/js/js_variables.asp //create global variable with square bracket notation window['y'] = 'old'; //redeclaration of the same variable var y; if (!y) y = 'new'; alert(y); //shows New instead of Old The problem is that the old value actually does get overriden and in the above eg. the alert shows 'new' instead of 'old'. Why ? I guess another way to state my question is how is the above code different in terms of semantics from the code below: //create global variable var y = 'old'; //redeclaration of the same variable var y; if (!y) y = 'new'; alert(y); //shows New instead of Old

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  • How to call Ajax function recursively.

    - by MAS1
    Hi guys, I want to know how to call Ajax function Recursively. My ajax code is like this, <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var step='1'; $.ajax ( { url: 'test1.php', data: {step: step}, success: function(output) { step=eval(output); alert(step); } } ); </script> </head> </html> And php code is like this <?php function writeName() { echo "step=2"; } function ReadName() { echo "In Read Name Function"; } if(isset($_REQUEST['step']) && !empty($_REQUEST['step'])) { $step = $_REQUEST['step']; switch($step) { case '1' : writeName(); break; case '2' : ReadName(); break; default : echo "Empty String"; } } ?> first time this function is get called with value of step variable equal to 1 and Function Write name modified it as 2. Now i want to call this Ajax function with Step variable value equal to 2. So that 2nd php function gets called.

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  • Creating an AJAX Searchable Database.

    - by Austin
    Currently I am using MySQLi to parse a CSV file into a Database, that step has been accomplished. However, My next step would be to make this Database searchable and automatically updated via jQuery.ajax(). Some people suggest that I print out the Database in another page and access it externally. I'm quite new to jquery + ajax so if anyone could point me in the right direction that would be greatly appreciated. I understand that the documentation on ajax should be enough to tell me what I'm looking for but it appears to talk only about retrieving data from an external file, what about from a mysql database? The code so far stands: <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4/jquery.min.js"></script> </head> <body> <input type="text" id="search" name="search" /> <input type="submit" value="submit"> <?php show_source(__FILE__); error_reporting(E_ALL);ini_set('display_errors', '1'); $category = NULL; $mc = new Memcache; $mc->addServer('localhost','11211'); $sql = new mysqli('localhost', 'user', 'pword', 'db'); $cache = $mc->get("updated_DB"); $query = 'SELECT cat,name,web,kw FROM infoDB WHERE cat LIKE ? OR name LIKE ? OR web LIKE ? OR kw LIKE ?'; $results = $sql->prepare($query); $results->bind_param('ssss', $query, $query, $query, $query); $results->execute(); $results->store_result(); ?> </body> </html>

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  • MooTools/JavaScript variable scope

    - by 827
    I am trying to make each number displayed clickable. "1" should alert() 80, "2" should produce 60, etc. However, when the alert(adjust) is called, it only shows 0, not the correct numbers. However, if the commented out alert(adjust) is uncommented, it produces the correct number on page load, but not on clicking. I was wondering why the code inside addEvents cannot access the previously defined variable adjust. <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8" src="mootools.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> window.addEvent('domready', function() { var id_numbers = [1,2,3,4,5]; for(var i = 0; i<id_numbers.length; i++) { var adjust = (20 * (5 - id_numbers[i])); // alert(adjust); $('i_' + id_numbers[i]).addEvents({ 'click': function() { alert(adjust); } }); } }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="i_1">1</div> <div id="i_2">2</div> <div id="i_3">3</div> <div id="i_4">4</div> <div id="i_5">5</div> </body> </html> Thanks.

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  • Developmnet process for an embedded project with significant Hardware change

    - by pierr
    Hi, I have a good idea about Agile development process but it seems it does not fit well with a embedded project with significant hardware change. I will describe below what we are currently doing (Ad-hoc way , no defined process yet). The change are divided to three categories and different process are used for them : complete hardware change example : use a different video codec IP a) Study the new IP b) RTL/FPGA simulation c) Implement the leagcy interface - go to b) d) Wait until hardware (tape out) is ready f) Test on the real Hardware hardware improvement example : enhance the image display quaulity by improving the underlie algorithm a)RTL/FPGA simulation b)Wait until hardware and test on the hardware Mino change exmaple : only change hardware register mapping a)Wait until hardware and test on the hardware The worry is it seems we don't have too much control and confidence about software maturity for the hardware change as the bring up schedule is always very tight and the customer desired a seemless change when updating to a new version hardware. How did you manage this kind of hardware hardware change? Did you solve that by a Hardware Abstraction Layer (HAL)? Did you have a automatical test for the HAL layer? How did you test when the hardware platform is not even ready? Do you have well documented process for this kind of change? Thanks for your insight.

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  • acts_as_solr isn't updating associated models in Rails

    - by Trey Bean
    I'm using acts_as_solr for searching in a project. Unfortunately, the index doesn't seem to be updated for the associated models when a model is saved. Example: I have three models: class Merchant < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_solr :fields => [:name, :domain, :description], :include => [:coupons, :tags] ... end class Coupon < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_solr :fields => [:store_name, :url, :code, :description] ... end class Tag < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_solr :fields => [:name] ... end I use the following line to perform a search: Merchant.paginate_by_solr(params[:q], :per_page => PER_PAGE, :page => [(params[:page] || 1).to_i, 1].max) For some reason though, after I add a coupon that contains the word 'shoes' in the description, a query for 'shoes' doesn't return the merchant associated with the coupon. The association all work and if I run rake solr:reindex, the search then returns the new coupon. Do I need to update the index for Merchant each time a new coupon is created? Do I have to update the index for the whole class or can I just update the associated merchant? Shouldn't this be done automatically? Thanks for any input.

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  • LINQ Normalizing data

    - by Brennan Mann
    I am using an OMS that stores up to three line items per record in the database. Below is an example of an order containing five line items. Order Header Order Detail Prod 1 Prod 2 Prod 3 Order Detail Prod 4 Prod 5 One order header record and two detail records. My goal is have a one to one relation for details records(i.e., one detail record per line item). In the past, I used an UNION ALL SQL statement to extract the data. Is there a better approcach to this problem using LINQ? Below is my first attempt at using LINQ. Any feedback, suggestions or recommendations would greatly be appreciated. For what I have read, an UNION statement can tax the process? var orderdetail = (from o in context.ORDERSUBHEADs select new { edpNo = o.EDPNOS_001, price = o.EXTPRICES_001, qty = o.ITEMQTYS_001 } ).Union(from o in context.ORDERSUBHEADs select new { edpNo = o.EDPNOS_002, price = o.EXTPRICES_002, qty = o.ITEMQTYS_002 } ).Union(from o in context.ORDERSUBHEADs select new { edpNo = o.EDPNOS_003, price = o.EXTPRICES_003, qty = o.ITEMQTYS_003 });

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  • Securely erasing a file using simple methods?

    - by Jason
    Hello, I am using C# .NET Framework 2.0. I have a question relating to file shredding. My target operating systems are Windows 7, Windows Vista, and Windows XP. Possibly Windows Server 2003 or 2008 but I'm guessing they should be the same as the first three. My goal is to securely erase a file. I don't believe using File.Delete is secure at all. I read somewhere that the operating system simply marks the raw hard-disk data for deletion when you delete a file - the data is not erased at all. That's why there exists so many working methods to recover supposedly "deleted" files. I also read, that's why it's much more useful to overwrite the file, because then the data on disk actually has to be changed. Is this true? Is this generally what's needed? If so, I believe I can simply write the file full of 1's and 0's a few times. I've read: http://www.codeproject.com/KB/files/NShred.aspx http://blogs.computerworld.com/node/5756 http://blogs.computerworld.com/node/5687 http://stackoverflow.com/questions/4147775/securely-deleting-a-file-in-c-net

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  • wxWidgets EVT_KILL_FOCUS

    - by Wallter
    Q1:I am using wxWidgets (C++) and have come accost a problem that i can not locate any help. I have created several wxTextCtrl boxes and would like the program to update the simple calculations in them when the user 'kills the focus.' I could not find any documentation on this subject on the wxWidgets webpage and Googling it only brought up wxPython. The two events i have found are: EVT_COMMAND_KILL_FOCUS - EVT_KILL_FOCUS for neither of which I could find any snippet for. Could anyone give me a short example or lead me to a page that would be helpful? Q2:Would i have to create an event to handle the focus being killed for each of my 8 wxTextCtrl boxes? In the case that i have to create a different event: How would i get each event to differentiate from each other? Will i have to create new wxID's for each of the wxTextCtrl boxes? class BasicPanel : public wxPanel { ... wxTextCtrl* one; wxTextCtrl* two; wxTextCtrl* three; wxTextCtrl* four; ... }

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  • ubuntu: sem_timedwait not waking (C)

    - by gillez
    I have 3 processes which need to be synchronized. Process one does something then wakes process two and sleeps, which does something then wakes process three and sleeps, which does something and wakes process one and sleeps. The whole loop is timed to run around 25hz (caused by an external sync into process one before it triggers process two in my "real" application). I use sem_post to trigger (wake) each process, and sem_timedwait() to wait for the trigger. This all works successfully for several hours. However at some random time (usually after somewhere between two and four hours), one of the processes starts timing out in sem_timedwait(), even though I am sure the semaphore is being triggered with sem_post(). To prove this I even use sem_getvalue() immediately after the timeout, and the value is 1, so the timedwait should have been triggered. Please see following code: #include <stdio.h> #include <time.h> #include <string.h> #include <errno.h> #include <semaphore.h> sem_t trigger_sem1, trigger_sem2, trigger_sem3; // The main thread process. Called three times with a different num arg - 1, 2 or 3. void *thread(void *arg) { int num = (int) arg; sem_t *wait, *trigger; int val, retval; struct timespec ts; struct timeval tv; switch (num) { case 1: wait = &trigger_sem1; trigger = &trigger_sem2; break; case 2: wait = &trigger_sem2; trigger = &trigger_sem3; break; case 3: wait = &trigger_sem3; trigger = &trigger_sem1; break; } while (1) { // The first thread delays by 40ms to time the whole loop. // This is an external sync in the real app. if (num == 1) usleep(40000); // print sem value before we wait. If this is 1, sem_timedwait() will // return immediately, otherwise it will block until sem_post() is called on this sem. sem_getvalue(wait, &val); printf("sem%d wait sync sem%d. val before %d\n", num, num, val); // get current time and add half a second for timeout. gettimeofday(&tv, NULL); ts.tv_sec = tv.tv_sec; ts.tv_nsec = (tv.tv_usec + 500000); // add half a second if (ts.tv_nsec > 1000000) { ts.tv_sec++; ts.tv_nsec -= 1000000; } ts.tv_nsec *= 1000; /* convert to nanosecs */ retval = sem_timedwait(wait, &ts); if (retval == -1) { // timed out. Print value of sem now. This should be 0, otherwise sem_timedwait // would have woken before timeout (unless the sem_post happened between the // timeout and this call to sem_getvalue). sem_getvalue(wait, &val); printf("!!!!!! sem%d sem_timedwait failed: %s, val now %d\n", num, strerror(errno), val); } else printf("sem%d wakeup.\n", num); // get value of semaphore to trigger. If it's 1, don't post as it has already been // triggered and sem_timedwait on this sem *should* not block. sem_getvalue(trigger, &val); if (val <= 0) { printf("sem%d send sync sem%d. val before %d\n", num, (num == 3 ? 1 : num+1), val); sem_post(trigger); } else printf("!! sem%d not sending sync, val %d\n", num, val); } } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { pthread_t t1, t2, t3; // create semaphores. val of sem1 is 1 to trigger straight away and start the whole ball rolling. if (sem_init(&trigger_sem1, 0, 1) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_listman semaphore"); if (sem_init(&trigger_sem2, 0, 0) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_comms semaphore"); if (sem_init(&trigger_sem3, 0, 0) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_vws semaphore"); pthread_create(&t1, NULL, thread, (void *) 1); pthread_create(&t2, NULL, thread, (void *) 2); pthread_create(&t3, NULL, thread, (void *) 3); pthread_join(t1, NULL); pthread_join(t2, NULL); pthread_join(t3, NULL); } The following output is printed when the program is running correctly (at the start and for a random but long time after). The value of sem1 is always 1 before thread1 waits as it sleeps for 40ms, by which time sem3 has triggered it, so it wakes straight away. The other two threads wait until the semaphore is received from the previous thread. [...] sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 1 sem1 wakeup. sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 sem2 wakeup. sem2 send sync sem3. val before 0 sem2 wait sync sem2. val before 0 sem3 wakeup. sem3 send sync sem1. val before 0 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 1 sem1 wakeup. sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 [...] However, after a few hours, one of the threads begins to timeout. I can see from the output that the semaphore is being triggered, and when I print the value after the timeout is is 1. So sem_timedwait should have woken up well before the timeout. I would never expect the value of the semaphore to be 1 after the timeout, save for the very rare occasion (almost certainly never but it's possible) when the trigger happens after the timeout but before I call sem_getvalue. Also, once it begins to fail, every sem_timedwait() on that semaphore also fails in the same way. See the following output, which I've line-numbered: 01 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 02 sem1 wakeup. 03 sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 04 sem2 wakeup. 05 sem2 send sync sem3. val before 0 06 sem2 wait sync sem2. val before 0 07 sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 0 08 !!!!!! sem3 sem_timedwait failed: Connection timed out, val now 1 09 sem3 send sync sem1. val before 0 10 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 1 11 sem3 wakeup. 12 !! sem3 not sending sync, val 1 13 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 14 sem1 wakeup. [...] On line 1, thread 3 (which I have confusingly called sem1 in the printf) waits for sem3 to be triggered. On line 5, sem2 calls sem_post for sem3. However, line 8 shows sem3 timing out, but the value of the semaphore is 1. thread3 then triggers sem1 and waits again (10). However, because the value is already 1, it wakes straight away. It doesn't send sem1 again as this has all happened before control is given to thread1, however it then waits again (val is now 0) and sem1 wakes up. This now repeats for ever, sem3 always timing out and showing that the value is 1. So, my question is why does sem3 timeout, even though the semaphore has been triggered and the value is clearly 1? I would never expect to see line 08 in the output. If it times out (because, say thread 2 has crashed or is taking too long), the value should be 0. And why does it work fine for 3 or 4 hours first before getting into this state? This is using Ubuntu 9.4 with kernel 2.6.28. The same procedure has been working properly on Redhat and Fedora. But I'm now trying to port to ubuntu! Thanks for any advice, Giles

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  • Is it possible to have a SeekBar's thumb image extend outside the bar?

    - by Poko
    I have set negative paddings on my custom seekbar so that the round thumb image can go outside the bar, but the thumb isn't rendered out there, is there anyway to force the thumb to be drawn outside those bounds? Sorry guys, I'm new to Android development, and have been tasked with fixing an existing application. The problem is that we have a custom rounded looking track bar, which consists of two rounded 'end cap' images and a 1 px background that is tiled to create the seekbar. As far as I can tell there was never one image that could be set as the background of a normal SeekBar, which is why a custom one was created. The thumb is a circle and needs to 'fit' into the end caps - the three pieces of the bar are in a relative layout. Right now I'm kind of unclear as to how the 1 px background png gets stretched as the seekbar bg, otherwise I would try to tack on the two endcaps onto that drawable some how ... ? Please let me know if this was unclear and I'll try to post any followup info. Thanks in advance for any advice!! Oh, I'm using Android 2.1 if that's relevant to anyone's interests :)

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  • jQuery ajax success chaining Internet Explorer Issues

    - by Nickd
    I have a jQuery ajax function that retrieves JSON data. In the success block I call another function to parse the data and update the page. At the end of this parsing/updating function a different ajax call is made. This works perfectly in all browsers except Internet Explorer (7 and 8). The problem is Internet explorer thinks the script is taking too long to process because the success block from the first ajax call doesn't complete until the 2nd ajax call finishes. I get the message: "Stop running this script? A script on this page is causing your web browser to run slowly. If it continues to run, your computer might become unresponsive." My jQuery code: $("#id_select").bind("change", function(e){ $.ajax({ url: "/retrieve_data.js", data: {id:$(e.target).children(":selected").attr("value")}, type: "get", dataType:"json", success: function(data, status, form){ processData(data); }, error: function(response, status){ alert(response.responseText); } }); }) Any suggestions on how to get IE to stop timing out or to accomplish this task without rewriting all my jQuery functions would be appreciated.

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  • Amazon S3 and swfaddress

    - by justinbach
    I recently migrated a large AS3 site (lots of swfs, lots of flvs) to Amazon S3. Pretty much everything but HTML and JS files is being stored/served from Amazon, and it's working well. The only problem I'm having is that I built the site using SWFaddress (actually, via the Gaia framework which uses SWFaddress), and for some reason, SWFaddress is no longer updating the address bar correctly as users navigate from page to page. In other words, the URL persistently remains http://www.mysite.com, not http://www.mysite.com/#/section as would be the case were SWFaddress functioning correctly (and as it was functioning prior to the migration). Stranger yet, if I go to (e.g.) http://www.mysite.com/#/section directly, the deeplinking functions as you'd expect--I arrive directly at the correct section. However, navigating away from that section doesn't have any effect on the address bar, despite the fact that it should be dynamically updated. I've got a crossdomain.xml file set up on the site that allows access from all domains, so that's not the issue, and I don't know what else might be. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated! P.S. I integrated S3 by putting pretty much the entire site in an S3 bucket and then just changing the initial swfobject embed to point to the S3 instance of main.swf, passing in the S3 path as the "base" param to the embedded swf so that all dynamically loaded assets and swfs would also be sourced from s3. Dunno if that's related to the troubles I'm having.

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  • Javascript redeclared global variable overrides old value

    - by Yousuf Haider
    I ran into an interesting issue the other day and was wondering if someone could shed light on why this is happening. Here is what I am doing (for the purposes of this example I have dumbed down the example somewhat): I am creating a globally scoped variable using the square bracket notation and assigning it a value. Later I declare a var with the same name as the one I just created above. Note I am not assigning a value. Since this is a redeclaration of the same variable the old value should not be overriden as described here: http://www.w3schools.com/js/js_variables.asp //create global variable with square bracket notation window['y'] = 'old'; //redeclaration of the same variable var y; if (!y) y = 'new'; alert(y); //shows New instead of Old The problem is that the old value actually does get overriden and in the above eg. the alert shows 'new' instead of 'old'. Why ? I guess another way to state my question is how is the above code different in terms of semantics from the code below: //create global variable var y = 'old'; //redeclaration of the same variable var y; if (!y) y = 'new'; alert(y); //shows Old

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  • Adding custom valiadtion to ASP.NET controls

    - by Brian
    We're trying to build a simple asp control for some clients where they can just drop in a single block - i.e. <captcha:CaptchaControl ID="CaptchaControl1" runat="server" Server="http://localhost:51947/" /> and have it render the control. The catch is that I can't get this to include custom validation. Right now I'm using the RenderContents function to display the layout of the control itself as well as hook it up the to Javascript. The problem is that I don't know how to get custom validation to fire when used as part of a control. protected override void RenderContents(HtmlTextWriter output) { output.Write(@" <script type=""text/javascript"" src=""http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3/jquery.min.js""></script> <link rel=""stylesheet"" type=""text/css"" href=""/Layout/CaptchaLayout.css"" /> //etc <asp:Textbox id=""text1"" runat=""server"" text=""""></asp:Textbox> <asp:CustomValidator id=""CustomValidator2"" runat=""server"" ControlToValidate = ""text1"" ErrorMessage = ""You must enter at least 8 characters!"" ClientValidationFunction=""validateLength"" > </asp:CustomValidator>" ); } Any suggestions for a better way to do this?

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