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  • Conversion failed when converting the varchar value to int

    - by onedaywhen
    Microsoft SQL Server 2008 (SP1), getting an unexpected 'Conversion failed' error. Not quite sure how to describe this problem, so below is a simple example. The CTE extracts the numeric portion of certain IDs using a search condition to ensure a numeric portion actually exists. The CTE is then used to find the lowest unused sequence number (kind of): CREATE TABLE IDs (ID CHAR(3) NOT NULL UNIQUE); INSERT INTO IDs (ID) VALUES ('A01'), ('A02'), ('A04'), ('ERR'); WITH ValidIDs (ID, seq) AS ( SELECT ID, CAST(RIGHT(ID, 2) AS INTEGER) FROM IDs WHERE ID LIKE 'A[0-9][0-9]' ) SELECT MIN(V1.seq) + 1 AS next_seq FROM ValidIDs AS V1 WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM ValidIDs AS V2 WHERE V2.seq = V1.seq + 1 ); The error is, 'Conversion failed when converting the varchar value 'RR' to data type int.' I can't understand why the value ID = 'ERR' should be being considered for conversion because the predicate ID LIKE 'A[0-9][0-9]' should have removed the invalid row from the resultset. When the base table is substituted with an equivalent CTE the problem goes away i.e. WITH IDs (ID) AS ( SELECT 'A01' UNION ALL SELECT 'A02' UNION ALL SELECT 'A04' UNION ALL SELECT 'ERR' ), ValidIDs (ID, seq) AS ( SELECT ID, CAST(RIGHT(ID, 2) AS INTEGER) FROM IDs WHERE ID LIKE 'A[0-9][0-9]' ) SELECT MIN(V1.seq) + 1 AS next_seq FROM ValidIDs AS V1 WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM ValidIDs AS V2 WHERE V2.seq = V1.seq + 1 ); Why would a base table cause this error? Is this a known issue? UPDATE @sgmoore: no, doing the filtering in one CTE and the casting in another CTE still results in the same error e.g. WITH FilteredIDs (ID) AS ( SELECT ID FROM IDs WHERE ID LIKE 'A[0-9][0-9]' ), ValidIDs (ID, seq) AS ( SELECT ID, CAST(RIGHT(ID, 2) AS INTEGER) FROM FilteredIDs ) SELECT MIN(V1.seq) + 1 AS next_seq FROM ValidIDs AS V1 WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM ValidIDs AS V2 WHERE V2.seq = V1.seq + 1 );

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  • C# Lists, Foreach, and Types

    - by user406470
    I was wondering if there is a version of foreach that checks only for a specific type and returns it. For example consider this class tree: org.clixel.ClxBasic - org.clixel.ClxObject - org.clixel.ClxSprite - WindowsGame1.test Then consider this code public List<ClxBasic> objects = new List<ClxBasic>(); foreach(GroupTester tester in objects) { tester.GroupTesterOnlyProperty = true; } tester.GroupTesterOnlyProperty is a property created in GroupTester. Is there some way to make something like this work, like an overload of foreach, or another snippet that might help me? I want to make it easy for a programmer to sort through the lists grabbing only what type they need.

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  • Stuck on conditionally enable or disable input with JQuery

    - by dmr
    I am attempting to conditionally enable or disable HTML input based on the value of a variable. The "disable" part is working well, but the "enable" isn't, and I can't figure out why. The code: <--if variable is true...--> <div id="disabledSearch" class="searchBox disabled"> <script type="text/javascript"> $('#disabledSearch :input').attr('disabled', true); </script> <--if variable is false--> <div id="enabledSearch" class="searchBox"> <script type="text/javascript"> //This line isn't working: $('#enabledSearch :input').removeAttr('disabled'); </script>

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  • SQL conditional Pivot

    - by Coov
    Yes, this is another Pivot question... I've read through nearly all the previous questions and I can't seem to hack together a query that does what I need. Here is what my table looks like: FirmName Account Balance Pmt Revolving Installment Mortgage Amex 12345 10000 2000 1 0 0 Discover 54321 20000 4000 1 0 0 Chase 13579 100000 1500 0 0 1 Wells Fargo 2468 40000 900 0 1 0 The last three bit columns (Revolving, Installment, & Mortgage) dictate how the columns should be rolled up into a type. Each result requires three columns based on the type and its row count. The outcome should be one row with many columns. Here is what the result should look like: Revolving1_Firm Revolving1_Balance Revolving1_Pmt Revolving2_Firm Revolving2_Balance Revolving2_Pmt Realestate1_Firm Realestate1_Balance Realestate1_Pmt Vehicle1_Firm Vehicle1_Balance Vehicle1_Pmt Amex 10000 2000 Discover 20000 4000 Chase 100000 1500 Wells Fargo 40000 900 How do you pivot based on the bit fields (Revolving, Installment, & Mortgage) and retain the proper count so that that each column gets count # appended to it?

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  • JAVA-how to manually compose a MIME multipart message

    - by Augusto Picciani
    I need to compose manually a MIME multipart message. I don't need to use any library to doing it. I'm trying this without success: out.println("From:myemail@mydomain"); out.flush(); out.println("To:myemail@mydomain"); out.flush(); out.println("Date:Thu, 25 Nov 2011 01:00:50 +0100"); out.flush(); out.println("Subject:manual test 269"); out.flush(); out.println("MIME-version:1.0"); out.flush(); out.print("Content-Type: multipart/mixed; boundary=\"1234567\"\n\n"); out.println("--1234567"); out.flush(); out.println("Content-Type: text/plain; charset:utf-8"); out.flush(); out.print("Content-Transfer-Encoding: 7bit\n\n"); out.flush(); out.print("test message\n\n"); out.flush(); out.println("--1234567"); out.flush(); out.println("Content-Type: text/html; charset:utf-8"); out.flush(); out.print("Content-Transfer-Encoding: 7bit\n\n"); out.flush(); out.print("<p><strong>test message in html</strong></p>\n\n"); out.flush(); out.println("--1234567--"); out.flush(); out.print("\r\n.\r\n"); out.flush(); Problem is that my mail client see the headers (from,subject,date,ecc.) but it doesn't see the message body. If i try without multipart it works fine. Maybe problem is in whitespaces character.

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  • JSF inner datatable not respecting rendered condition of outer table.

    - by Marc
    <h:dataTable cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" styleClass="list_table" id="OuterItems" value="#{valueList.values}" var="item" border="0"> <h:column rendered="#{item.typeA"> <h:dataTable cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" styleClass="list_table" id="InnerItems" value="#{item.options}" var="option" border="0"> <h:column > <h:outputText value="Option: #{option.displayValue}"/> </h:column> </h:dataTable> </h:column> <h:column rendered="#{item.typeB"> <h:dataTable cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" styleClass="list_table" id="InnerItems" value="#{item.demands}" var="demand" border="0"> <h:column > <h:outputText value="Demand: #{demand.displayValue}"/> </h:column> </h:dataTable> </h:column> </h:dataTable> public class Item{ ... public boolean isTypeA(){ return this instanceof TypeA; } public boolean isTypeB(){ return this instanceof TypeB; } ... } public class typeA extends Item(){ ... public List getOptions(){ .... } ... } public class typeB extends Item(){ ... public List getDemands(){ ... } .... } I'm having an issue with JSF. I've abstracted the problem out here, and I'm hoping someone can help me understand how what I'm doing fails. I'm looping over a list of Items. These Items are actually instances of the subclasses TypeA and TypeB. For Type A, I want to display the options, for Type B I want to display the demands. When rendering the page for the first time, this works fine. However, when I post back to the page for some action, I get an error: [3/26/10 12:52:32:781 EST] 0000008c SystemErr R javax.faces.FacesException: Error getting property 'options' from bean of type TypeB at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.ApplyRequestValuesPhase.execute(ApplyRequestValuesPhase.java:89) at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.LifecycleImpl.phase(LifecycleImpl.java(Compiled Code)) at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.LifecycleImpl.execute(LifecycleImpl.java:91) at com.ibm.faces.portlet.FacesPortlet.processAction(FacesPortlet.java:193) My grasp on the JSF lifecyle is very rough. At this point, i understand there is an error in the ApplyRequestValues Phases which is very early and so the previous state is restored and nothing changes. What I don't understand is that in order to fufill the condition for rendering "item.typeA" that object has to be an instance of TypeA. But here, it looks like that object passed the condition even though it was an instance of TypeB. It is like it is evaluating the inner dataTable (InnerItems) before evaluating the outer (outerItems). My working assumption is that I just don't understand how/when the rendered attribute is actually evaluated.

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  • Mapping one to one foreign key relationships in Entity Framework 4.0?

    - by John K.
    Hello all, I'm sure I'm missing something very simple, but let's say I have two entities, Employee and EmployeeType. Employee type would contain values like 'Full time', 'Contractor', 'Intern', etc. An Employee entity would contain one, and only one EmployeeType value. So I am designing a new .edmx model using the Model-First approach and generating my actual sql server data schema from the model. I want to add an integer type foreign key id into my Employee entity, EmployeeTypeId, which will map to the primary key of the EmployeeType entity. So I've gone ahead and done that in my Employee entity. Where I'm stuck is how, though the Entity Framework designer, to enforce the 1:1 referential constraint on that EmployeeTypeId property? Or does the EF handle that automatically behind the scenes? thanks in advance, John

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  • Applying a function to an arbitrarily long list of arguments

    - by alphomega
    I want to create a function apply that takes a function with an arbitrary amount of arguments as well as a list of integers, and returns the result of the function (Where each integer in the list is an argument in order. I was thinking something like: apply :: ([Int] -> Int) -> [Int] -> Int apply f x:xs = apply (f x) xs apply f [] = f But I know this won't work because the type signature is wrong - the function doesn't take a list of ints, it just takes some amount of int arguments. Additionally, when I get to the base case the f argument to apply should actually be an integer, violating the type signature anyway. Does anyone know how to deal with this sort of problem?

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  • Making a Login Work After Cache, Cookies, etc. Have Been Cleared

    - by John
    Hello, I am using the code below for a user login. The first I try to login after cache / cookies, etc. have been cleared, the browser refreshes and the user name is not logged in. After that, logging in works fine. Any idea how I can make it work the first time? Thanks in advance, John index.php: <?php if($_SERVER['REQUEST_METHOD'] == "POST"){header('Location: http://www...com/.../index.php?username='.$username.'&password='.$password.'');} require_once "header.php"; include "login.php"; require_once "footer.php"; ?> login.php: <?php if (!isLoggedIn()) { if (isset($_POST['cmdlogin'])) { if (checkLogin($_POST['username'], $_POST['password'])) { show_userbox(); } else { echo "Incorrect Login information !"; show_loginform(); } } else { show_loginform(); } } else { show_userbox(); } ?> show_loginform function: function show_loginform($disabled = false) { echo '<form name="login-form" id="login-form" method="post" action="./index.php?'.$_SERVER['QUERY_STRING'].'"> <div class="usernameformtext"><label title="Username">Username: </label></div> <div class="usernameformfield"><input tabindex="1" accesskey="u" name="username" type="text" maxlength="30" id="username" /></div> <div class="passwordformtext"><label title="Password">Password: </label></div> <div class="passwordformfield"><input tabindex="2" accesskey="p" name="password" type="password" maxlength="15" id="password" /></div> <div class="registertext"><a href="http://www...com/.../register.php" title="Register">Register</a></div> <div class="lostpasswordtext"><a href="http://www...com/.../lostpassword.php" title="Lost Password">Lost password?</a></div> <p class="loginbutton"><input tabindex="3" accesskey="l" type="submit" name="cmdlogin" value="Login" '; if ($disabled == true) { echo 'disabled="disabled"'; } echo ' /></p></form>'; }

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  • How to set html content in Moodialog

    - by Diego
    Hello, i've just downloaded Moodialog, a Mootools plugin for dialog, but i have a problem. If content is set via parameters it will be text and not html. Can you help me change the function to accept html? I suppose that this is the code to be edit. setContent: function(){ var content = Array.from(arguments); if (content.length == 1) content = content[0]; this.content.empty(); var type = typeOf(content); if (['string', 'number'].contains(type)) this.content.set('text', content); else this.content.adopt(content); return this; }, I tried to edit 'text' in 'html', but it will not work. Thanks for help (and sorry for my bad english).

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  • Mixing table per subclass and per hierarchy in hibernate

    - by Xelluloid
    In my database there are two three tables. The first one, table ABSTRACT, holds three columns id, type, someText This table contains all abstract information for the abstract class abstract. Now the two tables CONCRETEONE and CONCRETETWO contain all information for the concrete classes concreteOne and concreteTwo. Now I know I could use the table per subclass strategy from hibernate to create a mapping with inheritance. But as I have a column that marks the type of the concrete implementation could it be possible to create some mixed behaviour like a table per subclass strategy with an discriminator?

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  • How to remove the explicit dependencies to other projects' libraries in Eclipse launch configuration

    - by euluis
    In Eclipse it is possible to create launch configurations in a project, specifying the runtime dependencies from another project. A problem I found was that if you have a multiple project workspace, being possible that each project has its own libraries, it is easy to add explicit dependencies in a secondary project to libraries that are of another project and therefore subject to change. An example of this problem follows: proj1 +-- src +-- lib +-- jar1-v1.0.jar +-- jar2-v1.0.jar proj2 +-- src +-- proj2-tests.launch I don't have a dependency from the code in proj2/src to the libraries in proj1/lib. Nevertheless, I do have a dependency from proj2/src to proj1/src, although since there is an internal dependency in the code in proj1/src to its libraries jar1-v1.0.jar and jar2.v1.0.jar, I have to add a dependency in proj2-tests.launch to the libraries in proj1/lib. This translates to the following ugly lines in proj2-tests.launch: <listEntry value="<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <runtimeClasspathEntry path="3" projectName="proj1" type="1"/> "/> <listEntry value="<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <runtimeClasspathEntry internalArchive="/proj1/lib/jar1-v1.0.jar" path="3" type="2"/> "/> <listEntry value="<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <runtimeClasspathEntry internalArchive="/proj1/lib/jar2-v1.0.jar" path="3" type="2"/> "/> This wouldn't be a big problem if there wasn't the need from time to time to evolve the software, upgrade the libraries and etc. Consider the common need to upgrade the libraries jar1-v1.0.jar and jar2-v1.0.jar to their versions v1.1. Consider that you have about 10 projects in one workspace, having about 5 libraries each and about 4 launch configurations. You get a maintenance overhead in doing a simple upgrade of a library, which normally must imply changes in files for which there wasn't the need for. Or maybe I'm doing something wrong... What I would like to state is proj2 depends on proj1 and on its libraries and having this translated to simply that in the *.launch files. Is that possible?

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  • Improve a haskell script

    - by Hector Villalobos
    I'm a newbie in Haskell and I'd like some opinions about improving this script. This is a code generator and requires a command line argument to generate the sql script. ./GenCode "people name:string age:integer" Code: import Data.List import System.Environment (getArgs) create_table :: String -> String create_table str = "CREATE TABLE " ++ h (words str) where h (x:xs) = let cab = x final = xs in x ++ "( " ++ create_fields xs ++ ")" create_fields (x:xs) = takeWhile (/=':') x ++ type x ++ sig where sig | length xs > 0 = "," ++ create_fields xs | otherwise = " " ++ create_fields xs create_fields [] = "" type x | isInfixOf "string" x = " CHARACTER VARYING" | isInfixOf "integer" x = " INTEGER" | isInfixOf "date" x = " DATE" | isInfixOf "serial" x = " SERIAL" | otherwise = "" main = mainWith where mainWith = do args <- getArgs case args of [] -> putStrLn $ "You need one argument" (x:xs) -> putStrLn $ (create_table x)

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  • Google Map V3 Constants as Variables

    - by Beardy
    In the example below I am trying to update the map type depending on the value of the selected option type. Unfortunately it doesn't seem to load the maptype into the google.maps.MapTypeId which is frustrating. I have tried it as a string as well as var gmapsMapType = google.maps.MapTypeId.++maptype; and I feel I am missing something here. HTML <select id="maptype" name="maptype"> <option selected="selected" value="RoadMap">Road Map</option> <option value="Satellite">Satellite</option> <option value="Hybrid">Hybrid</option> <option value="Terrain">Terrain</option> </select> JQUERY var maptype = $('#maptype>option:selected').val().toUpperCase(); var gmapsMapType = google.maps.MapTypeId.+maptype; map.setMapTypeId(gmapsMapType); Help is appreciated.

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  • Read VB binary file with c# (knowing the structure)

    - by Kai
    I'd like to read a file that has been binary saved by a vb prog. the file should be read line by line, 'cause every single line represents an object with many attributes. a link looks the following: 999011011/10/1 ELW the structure of data types is: Public Type FahrzeugDAT Kennung As String * 8 Name As String * 30 Info As String * 50 StatusFzg As Integer DatumFzg As Date StatusLst As Integer DatumLst As Date TKI As Integer Folgetlg As Integer LstKurztext As String * 100 FME1 As String * 5 FME2 As String * 5 FME3 As String * 5 DME1 As String * 8 DME2 As String * 8 DME3 As String * 8 Bemerkung As String * 256 Art As Long Standort As Long End Type

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  • java.util.Date.toString() is printing out wrong format

    - by pacoverflow
    The following code prints out "vmtDataOrig.creationdate=2012-11-03" VmtData vmtDataOrig = VmtDataDao.getInstance().loadVmt(1); System.out.println("vmtDataOrig.creationdate=" + vmtDataOrig.getCreationDate().toString()); Here is the definition of the creationDate field in the VmtData class: private Date creationDate = null; Here is the hibernate mapping of the creationDate field to the database table column: <property name="creationDate" column="CREATIONDATE" type="date"/> The CREATIONDATE column in the MySQL database table is of type "date", and for the record retrieved it has the value "2012-11-03". The Javadoc for the java.util.Date.toString() method says it is supposed to print the Date object in the form "dow mon dd hh:mm:ss zzz yyyy". Anyone know why it is printing it out in the form "yyyy-MM-dd"?

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  • C# Late Binding for Parameterized Property

    - by optim
    I'm trying to use late binding to connect to a COM automation API provided by a program called Amibroker, using a C# WinForms project. So far I've been able to connect to everything in the API except one item, which I believe to be a "parameterized property" based on extensive Googling. Here's what the API specification looks like according to the docs (Full version here: http://www.amibroker.com/guide/objects.html): Property Filter(ByVal nType As Integer, ByVal pszCategory As String) As Long [r/w] A javascript snippet to update the value looks like this: AB = new ActiveXObject("Broker.Application"); AA = AB.Analysis; AA.Filter( 0, "market" ) = 0; Using the following C# late-binding code, I can get the value of the property, but I can't for the life of me figure out how to set the value: object[] parameter = new object[2]; parameter[0] = Number; parameter[1] = Type; object filters = _analysis.GetType().InvokeMember("Filter", BindingFlags.GetProperty, null, _analysis, parameter); So far I have tried: using BindingFlags.SetProperty, BindingFlags.SetField casting the returned object to a PropertyInfo object and trying to update the value using it adding extra object containing the value to the parameters object various other things as last-ditch efforts From what I can see, this should be straight-forward, but I'm finding the late binding in C# to be cumbersome at best. The property looks like a method call to me, which is what is throwing me off. How does one assign a value to a method, and what would the prototype for late-binding C# code look like for it? Hopefully that explains it well enough, but feel free to ask if I've left anything unclear. Thanks in advance for any help! Daniel

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  • Using Rails and Rspec, how do you test that the database is not touched by a method

    - by Will Tomlins
    So I'm writing a test for a method which for performance reasons should achieve what it needs to achieve without using SQL queries. I'm thinking all I need to know is what to stub: describe SomeModel do describe 'a_getter_method' do it 'should not touch the database' do thing = SomeModel.create something_inside_rails.should_not_receive(:a_method_querying_the_database) thing.a_getter_method end end end EDIT: to provide a more specific example: class Publication << ActiveRecord::Base end class Book << Publication end class Magazine << Publication end class Student << ActiveRecord::Base has_many :publications def publications_of_type(type) #this is the method I am trying to test. #The test should show that when I do the following, the database is queried. self.publications.find_all_by_type(type) end end describe Student do describe "publications_of_type" do it 'should not touch the database' do Student.create() student = Student.first(:include => :publications) #the publications relationship is already loaded, so no need to touch the DB lambda { student.publications_of_type(:magazine) }.should_not touch_the_database end end end So the test should fail in this example, because the rails 'find_all_by' method relies on SQL.

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  • Execute method with Action<T> argument using Reflection

    - by JGr
    How can i create a Action method to use as a argument to the following function? public void When(Action<T> action) { if (internalValue != null) action(internalValue); } I have the MethodInfo on the method, and the parameter type like so: var methods = value.GetType().GetMethods(); MethodInfo mInfo = methods.First(method => method.Name == "When"); Type parameterType = (mInfo.GetParameters()[0]).ParameterType; But after that i have no idea how to make the actual Action method to pass as argument, i also do not know how to define the Action method body.

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  • How can I implement a site with ASP.NET MVC without using Visual Studio?

    - by Cheeso
    I have seen ASP.NET MVC Without Visual Studio, which asks, Is it possible to produce a website based on ASP.NET MVC, without using Visual Studio? And the accepted answer is, yes. Ok, next question: how? Here's an analogy. If I want to create an ASP.NET Webforms page, I load up my favorite text editor, create a file named Something.aspx. Then I insert into that file, some boilerplate: <%@ Page Language="C#" Debug="true" Trace="false" Src="Sourcefile.cs" Inherits="My.Namespace.ContentsPage" %> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <title>Title goes here </title> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/style.css"></link> <style type="text/css"> #elementid { font-size: 9pt; color: Navy; ... more css ... } </style> <script type="text/javascript" language='javascript'> // insert javascript here. </script> </head> <body> <asp:Literal Id='Holder' runat='server'/> <br/> <div id='msgs'></div> </body> </html> Then I also create the Sourcefile.cs file: namespace My.Namespace { using System; using System.Web; using System.Xml; // etc... public class ContentsPage : System.Web.UI.Page { protected System.Web.UI.WebControls.Literal Holder; void Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) { // page load logic here } } } And that is a working ASPNET page, created in a text editor. Drop it into an IIS virtual directory, and it's working. What do I have to do, to make a basic, hello, World ASPNET MVC app, in a text editor? (without Visual Studio) Suppose I want a basic MVC app with a controller, one view, and a simple model. What files would I need to create, and what would go into them?

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  • Visual Studio Debugger Voodoo

    - by LoveMeSomeCode
    Ok, maybe this isn't so amazing considering I don't really understand how the debugger works in the first place, let alone Edit and Continue, which is totally amazing. But I was wondering if anyone knew what the debugger is doing with variable declarations in this scenario. I can be debugging through my code, move the line of execution ahead - past a variables initial declaration and assignment, and the code still runs ok. If it's a value type it will have it's default value, for a ref type, null. So if I create a function that uses a variable before it's declared it won't compile, but if I use the debugger to run it that way it will still run without error. Why is this? And is this related to the fact that you can't put a breakpoint on a declaration?

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  • Is there a cleaner way to Bind property to owner's DataContext?

    - by Dan Bryant
    I have some code that looks like this: <Expander Header="{Binding SelectedSlot.Name}" Visibility="{Binding ShowGroupSlot, Converter={StaticResource BooleanToVisibility}}"> <Controls:GroupPrototypeSlotControl Slot="{Binding DataContext.SelectedSlot, RelativeSource={RelativeSource Mode=FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type Expander}}}" /> </Expander> This works, but the ugliness of the Slot Binding bothers me. This is required because the GroupPrototypeSlotControl has a GroupPrototypeViewModel as its DataContext. If I simply use {Binding SelectedSlot}, it attempts to resolve it on the 'child' ViewModel, which fails. I get around this by explicitly looking at the DataContext of my parent control. Is there a cleaner way to do this type of binding?

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  • Ruby get inheriting class

    - by Brian D.
    I'm working on creating my first plugin for rails. I'm still pretty new to ruby and I was wondering if its possible to get the inheriting class? For example, I'm trying to create a plugin that will allow unit testing and functional testing when you are not using migrations. What I'm trying to do is initialize a class variable named controller to be initialized to the type of controller that is being tested. If I have a base class ControllerTest: class ControllerTest < Test::Unit::TestCase attr_accessor :controller def initialize super @controller = "call function that will find the inheriting classes name and create an instance of that controller type." end end So what I'm currently stuck on is getting the name of the inheriting class. Is this possible? And if not, does anyone know another way on how I could go about implementing this? Thanks in advance.

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  • Generics and Exposing .Net Types For COM Consumers?

    - by IbrarMumtaz
    I remember seeing a question on my official MS 70-536 exam that talked about a simple class that was designed to be exposed for COM calling clients and etc. of all the members defined in the classes I chose the answer D. The one that used a generic. My question to you guys is this: If you were designing a .net custom type that was to be eventually consumed by a com caller or a com type .... of all the guidelines I have read on this subject. Generics is the one .Net topic I would not include in a class for this purpose I would omit such a data member or use something else? Am I right in thinking this. As soon as I saw this question I knew it was generics but I can't seem to prove it. Surely I did not make this up ... generics is a .net feature right?

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