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  • jquery event namespace bubbling issue

    - by Adrian Adkison
    Hi, I stumbled upon an issue with event namespacing while developing a jQuery plugin. here is the html <div class="parent"> <div class="child"> </div> </div> <a class="btn-a">trigger a</a> <a class="btn-b">trigger b</a> <a class="btn-c">trigger c</a> Here is the jQuery jQuery('#content div.child') .bind('child.a',function(){alert('a-child');}) .bind('child.b',function(){alert('b-child');}) .bind('child.c',function(){alert('c-child');}); jQuery('#content div.parent') .bind('child.b',function(){alert('b-parent');}) .bind('child.c',function(){alert('c-parent');}); jQuery('a.btn-a') .click(function(){ jQuery('#content div.child').trigger('a.a'); }); jQuery('a.btn-b') .click(function(){ jQuery('#content div.child').trigger('a.b'); }); jQuery('a.btn-c') .click(function(){ jQuery('#content div.child').trigger('a.c'); }); In sum, I have attached a namespaced event listener to the child and parent and created three buttons that trigger each of the events(a.a, a.b, a.c). Note the parent is only listening to a.b and a.c. When I click on the button that triggers a.a on the child, only the div.child listener for a.a is fired, but the entire 'a' namespace event bubbles up to div.parent listeners, a.b and a.c, and triggers them. My question is, how would I still use event namespacing but only have the intended event bubble up(i.e. a.a is the only event that fires for both child and parent). I am aware of stopPropagation and stopImmediatePropagation. I would not want to put these on the child a.b and a.c listeners because there are times when i do want them to bubble. For instance when I trigger 'a.b' on the child, I would expect the 'a.b' and only the 'a.b' event to be handled by the child and the parent. Thanks

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  • Help With LINQ: Mixed Joins and Specifying Default Values

    - by Corey O.
    I am trying to figure out how to do a mixed-join in LINQ with specific access to 2 LINQ objects. Here is an example of how the actual TSQL query might look: SELECT * FROM [User] AS [a] INNER JOIN [GroupUser] AS [b] ON [a].[UserID] = [b].[UserID] INNER JOIN [Group] AS [c] ON [b].[GroupID] = [c].[GroupID] LEFT JOIN [GroupEntries] AS [d] ON [a].[GroupID] = [d].[GroupID] WHERE [a].[UserID] = @UserID At the end, basically what I would like is an enumerable object full of GroupEntry objects. What am interested is the last two tables/objects in this query. I will be displaying Groups as a group header, and all of the Entries underneath their group heading. If there are no entries for a group, I still want to see that group as a header without any entries. Here's what I have so far: So from that I'd like to make a function: public void DisplayEntriesByUser(int user_id) { MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); IEnumberable<GroupEntries> entries = ( from user in db.Users where user.UserID == user_id join group_user in db.GroupUsers on user.UserID = group_user.UserID into a from join1 in a join group in db.Groups on join1.GroupID equals group.GroupID into b from join2 in b join entry in db.Entries.DefaultIfEmpty() on join2.GroupID equals entry.GroupID select entry ); Group last_group_id = 0; foreach(GroupEntry entry in entries) { if (last_group_id == 0 || entry.GroupID != last_group_id) { last_group_id = entry.GroupID; System.Console.WriteLine("---{0}---", entry.Group.GroupName.ToString().ToUpper()); } if (entry.EntryID) { System.Console.WriteLine(" {0}: {1}", entry.Title, entry.Text); } } } The example above does not work quite as expected. There are 2 problems that I have not been able to solve: I still seem to be getting an INNER JOIN instead of a LEFT JOIN on the last join. I am not getting any empty results, so groups without entries do not appear. I need to figure out a way so that I can fill in the default values for blank sets of entries. That is, if there is a group without an entry, I would like to have a mostly blank entry returned, except that I'd want the EntryID to be null or 0, the GroupID to be that of of the empty group that it represents, and I'd need a handle on the entry.Group object (i.e. it's parent, empty Group object). Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Note: Table names and real-world representation were derived purely for this example, but their relations simplify what I'm trying to do.

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  • def constrainedMatchPair(firstMatch,secondMatch,length):

    - by smart
    matches of a key string in a target string, where one of the elements of the key string is replaced by a different element. For example, if we want to match ATGC against ATGACATGCACAAGTATGCAT, we know there is an exact match starting at 5 and a second one starting at 15. However, there is another match starting at 0, in which the element A is substituted for C in the key, that is we match ATGC against the target. Similarly, the key ATTA matches this target starting at 0, if we allow a substitution of G for the second T in the key string. consider the following steps. First, break the key string into two parts (where one of the parts could be an empty string). Let's call them key1 and key2. For each part, use your function from Problem 2 to find the starting points of possible matches, that is, invoke starts1 = subStringMatchExact(target,key1) and starts2 = subStringMatchExact(target,key2) The result of these two invocations should be two tuples, each indicating the starting points of matches of the two parts (key1 and key2) of the key string in the target. For example, if we consider the key ATGC, we could consider matching A and GC against a target, like ATGACATGCA (in which case we would get as locations of matches for A the tuple (0, 3, 5, 9) and as locations of matches for GC the tuple (7,). Of course, we would want to search over all possible choices of substrings with a missing element: the empty string and TGC; A and GC; AT and C; and ATG and the empty string. Note that we can use your solution for Problem 2 to find these values. Once we have the locations of starting points for matches of the two substrings, we need to decide which combinations of a match from the first substring and a match of the second substring are correct. There is an easy test for this. Suppose that the index for the starting point of the match of the first substring is n (which would be an element of starts1), and that the length of the first substring is m. Then if k is an element of starts2, denoting the index of the starting point of a match of the second substring, there is a valid match with one substitution starting at n, if n+m+1 = k, since this means that the second substring match starts one element beyond the end of the first substring. finally the question is Write a function, called constrainedMatchPair which takes three arguments: a tuple representing starting points for the first substring, a tuple representing starting points for the second substring, and the length of the first substring. The function should return a tuple of all members (call it n) of the first tuple for which there is an element in the second tuple (call it k) such that n+m+1 = k, where m is the length of the first substring.

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  • How to use Facebook graph API to retrieve fan photos uploaded to wall of fan page?

    - by Joe
    I am creating an external photo gallery using PHP and the Facebook graph API. It pulls thumbnails as well as the large image from albums on our Facebook Fan Page. Everything works perfect, except I'm only able to retrieve photos that an ADMIN posts to our page. (graph.facebook.com/myalbumid/photos) Is there a way to use graph api to load publicy uploaded photos from fans? I want to retrieve the pictures from the "Photos from" album, but trying to get the ID for the graph query is not like other albums... it looks like this: http://www.facebook.com/media/set/?set=o.116860675007039 Another note: The only way i've come close to retreiving this data is by using the "feed" option.. ie: graph.facebook.com/pageid/feed EDIT: This is about as far as I could get- it works, but has certain issues stated below. Maybe someone could expand on this, or provide a better solution. (Using FB PHP SDK) <?php require_once ('config.php'); // get all photos for album $photos = $facebook->api("/YourID/tagged"); $maxitem =10; $count = 0; foreach($photos['data'] as $photo) { if ($photo['type'] == "photo"): echo "<img src='{$photo['picture']}' />", "<br />"; endif; $count+= 1; if ($count >= "$maxitem") break; } ?> Issues with this: 1) The fact that I don't know a method for graph querying specific "types" of Tags, I had to run a conditional statement to display photos. 2) You cannot effectively use the "?limit=#" with this, because as I said the "tagged" query contains all types (photo, video, and status). So if you are going for a photo gallery and wish to avoid running an entire query by using ?limit, you will lose images. 3) The only content that shows up in the "tagged" query is from people that are not Admins of the page. This isn't the end of the world, but I don't understand why Facebook wouldn't allow yourself to be shown in this data as long as you posted it "as yourself" and not as the page.

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  • How to find the one Label in DataList that is set to True

    - by Doug
    In my .aspx page I have my DataList: <asp:DataList ID="DataList1" runat="server" DataKeyField="ProductSID" DataSourceID="SqlDataSource1" onitemcreated="DataList1_ItemCreated" RepeatColumns="3" RepeatDirection="Horizontal" Width="1112px"> <ItemTemplate> ProductSID: <asp:Label ID="ProductSIDLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("ProductSID") %>' /> <br /> ProductSKU: <asp:Label ID="ProductSKULabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("ProductSKU") %>' /> <br /> ProductImage1: <asp:Label ID="ProductImage1Label" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("ProductImage1") %>' /> <br /> ShowLive: <asp:Label ID="ShowLiveLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("ShowLive") %>' /> <br /> CollectionTypeID: <asp:Label ID="CollectionTypeIDLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("CollectionTypeID") %>' /> <br /> CollectionHomePage: <asp:Label ID="CollectionHomePageLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("CollectionHomePage") %>' /> <br /> <br /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:DataList> And in my code behind using the ItemCreated event to find and set the label.backcolor property. (Note:I'm using a recursive findControl class) protected void DataList1_ItemCreated(object sender, DataListItemEventArgs e) { foreach (DataListItem item in DataList1.Items) { if (e.Item.ItemType == ListItemType.Item || e.Item.ItemType == ListItemType.AlternatingItem) { Label itemLabel = form1.FindControlR("CollectionHomePageLabel") as Label; if (itemLabel !=null || itemLabel.Text == "True") { itemLabel.BackColor = System.Drawing.Color.Yellow; } } When I run the page, the itemLabel is found, and the color shows. But it sets the itemLabel color to the first instance of the itemLabel found in the DataList. Of all the itemLabels in the DataList, only one will have it's text = True - and that should be the label picking up the backcolor. Also: The itemLabel is picking up a column in the DB called "CollectionHomePage" which is True/False bit data type. I must be missing something simple... Thanks for your ideas.

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  • How to implement a tagging plugin for jQuery

    - by anxiety
    Goal: To implement a jQuery plugin for my rails app (or write one myself, if necessary) that creates a "box" around text after a delimiter is typed. Example: With tagging on SO, the user begins typing a tag, then selects one from the drop-down list provided. The input field recognizes that a tag has been selected, puts a space and then is ready for the next tag. Similarly, I am attempting to use this plugin to put a box around the previously entered tag before moving to to accept the next tag/input. The instructions in the README.txt seem simple enough, however I have been receiving a $(".tagbox").tagbox is not a function error when debugging my app with firebug. Here is what I have in my application.js: $(document).ready( function(){ $('.tagbox').tagbox({ separator: /\[,]/, // specifying comma separation for <code>tags</code> }); }); And here is my _form.html.erb: <% form_for @tag do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <p> <%= f.label :name %><br /> <%= text_field :tag, :name, { :method => :get, :class => "tagbox" } %> </p> <p><%= f.submit "Submit" %></p> <% end %> I have omitted some other code (namely the implementation of an autocomplete plugin) existing within my _form.html.erb and application.js for sake of readability. The inclusion or exclusion of this omitted code does not affect the performance of this plugin. I have included all of the necessary files for the tagbox plugin (as well as application.js after all other included JS files) within the javascript_include_tag in my application.html.erb file. I'm pretty much confused as to why I'd be getting this "not a function" error when jquery.tagbox.js clearly defines the function and is included in the head of my html page in question. I've been struggling with this plugin for longer than I'd like to admit, so any help would really be appreciated. And, of course, I'm open to any other plugins or from-scratch suggestions you may have in mind.. This tagbox plugin does not seem to have a wealth of documentation or any currently working examples. Also to note, I'm trying to avoid using jrails. Thanks for your time

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  • Remote Postgresql - extremely slow

    - by Muffinbubble
    Hi, I have setup PostgreSQL on a VPS I own - the software that accesses the database is a program called PokerTracker. PokerTracker logs all your hands and statistics whilst playing online poker. I wanted this accessible from several different computers so decided to installed it on my VPS and after a few hiccups I managed to get it connecting without errors. However, the performance is dreadful. I have done tons of research on 'remote postgresql slow' etc and am yet to find an answer so am hoping someone is able to help. Things to note: The query I am trying to execute is very small. Whilst connecting locally on the VPS, the query runs instantly. While running it remotely, it takes about 1 minute and 30 seconds to run the query. The VPS is running 100MBPS and then computer I'm connecting to it from is on an 8MB line. The network communication between the two is almost instant, I am able to remotely connect fine with no lag whatsoever and am hosting several websites running MSSQL and all the queries run instantly, whether connected remotely or locally so it seems specific to PostgreSQL. I'm running their newest version of the software and the newest compatible version of PostgreSQL with their software. The database is a new database, containing hardly any data and I've ran vacuum/analyze etc all to no avail, I see no improvements. I don't understand how MSSQL can query almost instantly yet PostgreSQL struggles so much. I am able to telnet to the post 5432 on the VPS IP with no problems, and as I say the query does execute it just takes an extremely long time. What I do notice is on the router when the query is running that hardly any bandwidth is being used - but then again I wouldn't expect it to for a simple query but am not sure if this is the issue. I've tried connecting remotely on 3 different networks now (including different routers) but the problem remains. Connecting remotely via another machine via the LAN is instant. I have also edited the postgre conf file to allow for more memory/buffers etc but I don't think this is the problem - what I am asking it to do is very simple - it shouldn't be intensive at all. Thanks, Ricky

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  • DRY-ing very similar specs for ASP.NET MVC controller action with MSpec (BDD guidelines)

    - by spapaseit
    Hi all, I have two very similar specs for two very similar controller actions: VoteUp(int id) and VoteDown(int id). These methods allow a user to vote a post up or down; kinda like the vote up/down functionality for StackOverflow questions. The specs are: VoteDown: [Subject(typeof(SomeController))] public class When_user_clicks_the_vote_down_button_on_a_post : SomeControllerContext { Establish context = () => { post = PostFakes.VanillaPost(); post.Votes = 10; session.Setup(s => s.Single(Moq.It.IsAny<Expression<Func<Post, bool>>>())).Returns(post); session.Setup(s => s.CommitChanges()); }; Because of = () => result = controller.VoteDown(1); It should_decrement_the_votes_of_the_post_by_1 = () => suggestion.Votes.ShouldEqual(9); It should_not_let_the_user_vote_more_than_once; } VoteUp: [Subject(typeof(SomeController))] public class When_user_clicks_the_vote_down_button_on_a_post : SomeControllerContext { Establish context = () => { post = PostFakes.VanillaPost(); post.Votes = 0; session.Setup(s => s.Single(Moq.It.IsAny<Expression<Func<Post, bool>>>())).Returns(post); session.Setup(s => s.CommitChanges()); }; Because of = () => result = controller.VoteUp(1); It should_increment_the_votes_of_the_post_by_1 = () => suggestion.Votes.ShouldEqual(1); It should_not_let_the_user_vote_more_than_once; } So I have two questions: How should I go about DRY-ing these two specs? Is it even advisable or should I actually have one spec per controller action? I know I Normally should, but this feels like repeating myself a lot. Is there any way to implement the second It within the same spec? Note that the It should_not_let_the_user_vote_more_than_once; requires me the spec to call controller.VoteDown(1) twice. I know the easiest would be to create a separate spec for it too, but it'd be copying and pasting the same code yet again... I'm still getting the hang of BDD (and MSpec) and many times it is not clear which way I should go, or what the best practices or guidelines for BDD are. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Problem Fetching JSON Result with jQuery in Firefox and Chrome (IE8 Works)

    - by senfo
    I'm attempting to parse JSON using jQuery and I'm running into issues. Using the code below, the data keeps coming back null: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <title>JSON Test</title> </head> <body> <div id="msg"></div> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-latest.js"></script> <script> $.ajax({ url: 'http://datawarehouse.hrsa.gov/ReleaseTest/HGDWDataWebService/HGDWDataService.aspx?service=HC&zip=20002&radius=10&filter=8357&format=JSON', type: 'GET', dataType: 'json', success: function(data) { $('#msg').html(data[0].title); // Always null in Firefox/Chrome. Works in IE8. }, error: function(data) { alert(data); } }); </script> </body> </html> The JSON results look like the following: {"title":"HEALTHPOINT TYEE CAMPUS","link":"http://www.healthpointchc.org","id":"tag:datawarehouse.hrsa.gov,2010-04-29:/8357","org":"HEALTHPOINT TYEE CAMPUS","address":{"street-address":"4424 S. 188TH St.","locality":"Seatac","region":"Washington","postal-code":"98188-5028"},"tel":"206-444-7746","category":"Service Delivery Site","location":"47.4344818181818 -122.277672727273","update":"2010-04-28T00:00:00-05:00"} If I replace my URL with the Flickr API URL (http://api.flickr.com/services/feeds/photos_public.gne?tags=cat&tagmode=any&format=json&jsoncallback=?), I get back a valid JSON result that I am able to make use of. I have successfully validated my JSON at JSONLint, so I've run out of ideas as to what I might be doing wrong. Any thoughts? Update: I had the client switch the content type to application/json. Unfortunately, I'm still experiencing the exact same problem. I also updated my HTML and included the live URL I've been working with. Update 2: I just gave this a try in IE8 and it works fine. For some reason, it doesn't work in either Firefox 3.6.3 or Chrome 4.1.249.1064 (45376). I did notice a mistake with the data being returned (the developer is returning a collection of data, even for queries that will always return a single record), but it still baffles me why it doesn't work in other browsers. It might be important to note that I am working from an HTML file on my local file system. I thought it might be a XSS issue, but that doesn't explain why Flickr works.

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  • Displaying pic for user through a question's answer

    - by bgadoci
    Ok, I am trying to display the profile pic of a user. The application I have set up allows users to create questions and answers (I am calling answers 'sites' in the code) the view in which I am trying to do so is in the /views/questions/show.html.erb file. It might also be of note that I am using the Paperclip gem. Here is the set up: Associations Users class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :questions, :dependent => :destroy has_many :sites, :dependent => :destroy has_many :notes, :dependent => :destroy has_many :likes, :through => :sites , :dependent => :destroy has_many :pics, :dependent => :destroy has_many :likes, :dependent => :destroy end Questions class Question < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :sites, :dependent => :destroy has_many :notes, :dependent => :destroy has_many :likes, :dependent => :destroy belongs_to :user end Answers (sites) class Site < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :question belongs_to :user has_many :notes, :dependent => :destroy has_many :likes, :dependent => :destroy has_attached_file :photo, :styles => { :small => "250x250>" } end Pics class Pic < ActiveRecord::Base has_attached_file :profile_pic, :styles => { :small => "100x100" } belongs_to :user end The /views/questions/show.html.erb is rendering the partial /views/sites/_site.html.erb which is calling the Answer (site) with: <% div_for site do %> <%=h site.description %> <% end %> I have been trying to do things like: <%=image_tag site.user.pic.profile_pic.url(:small) %> <%=image_tag site.user.profile_pic.url(:small) %> etc. But that is obviously wrong. My error directs me to the Questions#show action so I am imagining that I need to define something in there but not sure what. Is is possible to call the pic given the current associations, placement of the call, and if so what Controller additions do I need to make, and what line of code will call the pic? UPDATE: Here is the QuestionsController#show code: def show @question = Question.find(params[:id]) @sites = @question.sites.all(:select => "sites.*, SUM(likes.like) as like_total", :joins => "LEFT JOIN likes AS likes ON likes.site_id = sites.id", :group => "sites.id", :order => "like_total DESC") respond_to do |format| format.html # show.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @question } end end

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  • help Implementing Object Oriented ansi-C approach??

    - by No Money
    Hey there, I am an Intermediate programmer in Java and know some of the basics in C++. I recently started to scam over "C language" [please note that i emphasized on C language and want to stick with C as i found it to be a perfect tool, so no need for suggestions focusing on why should i move back to C++ or Java]. Moving on, I code an Object Oriented approach in C but kindda scramble with the pointers part. Please understand that I am just a noob trying to extend my knowledge beyond what i learned in High School. Here is my code..... #include <stdio.h> typedef struct per{ int privateint; char *privateString; struct per (*New) (); void (*deleteperOBJ) (struct t_person *); void (*setperNumber) ((struct*) t_person,int); void (*setperString) ((struct*) t_person,char *); void (*dumpperState) ((struct*) t_person); }t_person; void setperNumber(t_person *const per,int num){ if(per==NULL) return; per->privateint=num; } void setperString(t_person *const per,char *string){ if(per==NULL) return; per->privateString=string; } void dumpperState(t_person *const per){ if(per==NULL) return; printf("value of private int==%d\n", per->privateint); printf("value of private string==%s\n", per->privateString); } void deleteperOBJ(struct t_person *const per){ free((void*)t_person->per); t_person ->per = NULL; } main(){ t_person *const per = (struct*) malloc(sizeof(t_person)); per = t_person -> struct per -> New(); per -> setperNumber (t_person *per, 123); per -> setperString(t_person *per, "No money"); dumpperState(t_person *per); deleteperOBJ(t_person *per); } Just to warn you, this program has several errors and since I am a beginner I couldn't help except to post this thread as a question. I am looking forward for assistance. Thanks in advance.

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  • Opening Macro definitions: tdfx_span.c: lvalue required as left operand of assignment

    - by anttir
    Hi, I'm trying to compile X11R6-7.0 under Ubuntu maverick and got some weird compilation errors I'm unable to resolve myself. I needed X11R6-7.0 as ati catalyst drivers don't support newer xorg and oss drivers don't support 3d acceleration of my hardware. Anyone know what this error message means? I know some C but I got a bit confused. Does it mean GET_FB_DATA macro returned NULL or some method/property not set? Any further insight how to "debug" preprocessor definitions at this point would be great. I don't think I can print anything useful with #error. The error I get: tdfx_span.c: In function ‘tdfxDDWriteDepthPixels’: tdfx_span.c:976: error: lvalue required as left operand of assignment tdfx_span.c:1008: error: lvalue required as left operand of assignment tdfx_span.c: In function ‘write_stencil_pixels’: tdfx_span.c:1242: error: lvalue required as left operand of assignment the Code: 958- switch (depth_size) { 959- case 16: 960- GetBackBufferInfo(fxMesa, &backBufferInfo); 961- /* 962- * Note that the _LOCK macro adds a curly brace, 963- * and the UNLOCK macro removes it. 964- */ 965- WRITE_FB_SPAN_LOCK(fxMesa, info, 966- GR_BUFFER_AUXBUFFER, GR_LFBWRITEMODE_ANY); 967- { 968- LFBParameters ReadParams; 969- GetFbParams(fxMesa, &info, &backBufferInfo, 970- &ReadParams, sizeof(GLushort)); 971- for (i = 0; i < n; i++) { 972- if (mask[i] && visible_pixel(fxMesa, x[i], y[i])) { 973- xpos = x[i] + fxMesa->x_offset; 974- ypos = bottom - y[i]; 975- d16 = depth[i]; 976: PUT_FB_DATA(&ReadParams, GLushort, xpos, ypos, d16); 977- } 978- } 979- } 980- WRITE_FB_SPAN_UNLOCK(fxMesa, GR_BUFFER_AUXBUFFER); 981- break; 982- case 24: And relative macros: #define GET_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y) \ (((x) < (ReadParamsp)->firstWrappedX) \ ? (((type *)((ReadParamsp)->lfbPtr)) \ [(y) * ((ReadParamsp)->LFBStrideInElts) \ + (x)]) \ : (((type *)((ReadParamsp)->lfbWrapPtr)) \ [((y)) * ((ReadParamsp)->LFBStrideInElts) \ + ((x) - (ReadParamsp)->firstWrappedX)])) #define GET_ORDINARY_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y) \ (((type *)((ReadParamsp)->lfbPtr)) \ [(y) * ((ReadParamsp)->LFBStrideInElts) \ + (x)]) #define GET_WRAPPED_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y) \ (((type *)((ReadParamsp)->lfbWrapPtr)) \ [((y)) * ((ReadParamsp)->LFBStrideInElts) \ + ((x) - (ReadParamsp)->firstWrappedX)]) #define PUT_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y, value) \ (GET_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y) = (type)(value)) #define PUT_ORDINARY_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y, value) \ (GET_ORDINARY_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y) = (type)(value)) #define PUT_WRAPPED_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y, value) \ (GET_WRAPPED_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y) = (type)(value)) The LFBParameters Struct 483-typedef struct 484-{ 485- void *lfbPtr; 486- void *lfbWrapPtr; 487- FxU32 LFBStrideInElts; 488- GLint firstWrappedX; 489-} 490:LFBParameters; Thanks for looking.

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  • Slow MySQL query....only sometimes

    - by Shane N
    I have a query that's used in a reporting system of ours that sometimes runs quicker than a second, and other times takes 1 to 10 minutes to run. Here's the entry from the slow query log: # Query_time: 543 Lock_time: 0 Rows_sent: 0 Rows_examined: 124948974 use statsdb; SELECT count(distinct Visits.visitorid) as 'uniques' FROM Visits,Visitors WHERE Visits.visitorid=Visitors.visitorid and candidateid in (32) and visittime>=1275721200 and visittime<=1275807599 and (omit=0 or omit>=1275807599) AND Visitors.segmentid=9 AND Visits.visitorid NOT IN (SELECT Visits.visitorid FROM Visits,Visitors WHERE Visits.visitorid=Visitors.visitorid and candidateid in (32) and visittime<1275721200 and (omit=0 or omit>=1275807599) AND Visitors.segmentid=9); It's basically counting unique visitors, and it's doing that by counting the visitors for today and then substracting those that have been here before. If you know of a better way to do this, let me know. I just don't understand why sometimes it can be so quick, and other times takes so long - even with the same exact query under the same server load. Here's the EXPLAIN on this query. As you can see it's using the indexes I've set up: id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 PRIMARY Visits range visittime_visitorid,visitorid visittime_visitorid 4 NULL 82500 Using where; Using index 1 PRIMARY Visitors eq_ref PRIMARY,cand_visitor_omit PRIMARY 8 statsdb.Visits.visitorid 1 Using where 2 DEPENDENT SUBQUERY Visits ref visittime_visitorid,visitorid visitorid 8 func 1 Using where 2 DEPENDENT SUBQUERY Visitors eq_ref PRIMARY,cand_visitor_omit PRIMARY 8 statsdb.Visits.visitorid 1 Using where I tried to optimize the query a few weeks ago and came up with a variation that consistently took about 2 seconds, but in practice it ended up taking more time since 90% of the time the old query returned much quicker. Two seconds per query is too long because we are calling the query up to 50 times per page load, with different time periods. Could the quick behavior be due to the query being saved in the query cache? I tried running 'RESET QUERY CACHE' and 'FLUSH TABLES' between my benchmark tests and I was still getting quick results most of the time. Note: last night while running the query I got an error: Unable to save result set. My initial research shows that may be due to a corrupt table that needs repair. Could this be the reason for the behavior I'm seeing? In case you want server info: Accessing via PHP 4.4.4 MySQL 4.1.22 All tables are InnoDB We run optimize table on all tables weekly The sum of both the tables used in the query is 500 MB MySQL config: key_buffer = 350M max_allowed_packet = 16M thread_stack = 128K sort_buffer = 14M read_buffer = 1M bulk_insert_buffer_size = 400M set-variable = max_connections=150 query_cache_limit = 1048576 query_cache_size = 50777216 query_cache_type = 1 tmp_table_size = 203554432 table_cache = 120 thread_cache_size = 4 wait_timeout = 28800 skip-external-locking innodb_file_per_table innodb_buffer_pool_size = 3512M innodb_log_file_size=100M innodb_log_buffer_size=4M

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  • Spring MVC, REST, and HATEOAS

    - by SingleShot
    I'm struggling with the correct way to implement Spring MVC 3.x RESTful services with HATEOAS. Consider the following constraints: I don't want my domain entities polluted with web/rest constructs. I don't want my controllers polluted with view constructs. I want to support multiple views. Currently I have a nicely put together MVC app without HATEOAS. Domain entities are pure POJOs without any view or web/rest concepts embedded. For example: class User { public String getName() {...} public String setName(String name) {...} ... } My controllers are also simple. They provide routing and status, and delegate to Spring's view resolution framework. Note my application supports JSON, XML, and HTML, yet no domain entities or controllers have embedded view information: @Controller @RequestMapping("/users") class UserController { @RequestMapping public ModelAndView getAllUsers() { List<User> users = userRepository.findAll(); return new ModelAndView("users/index", "users", users); } @RequestMapping("/{id}") public ModelAndView getUser(@PathVariable Long id) { User user = userRepository.findById(id); return new ModelAndView("users/show", "user", user); } } So, now my issue - I'm not sure of a clean way to support HATEOAS. Here's an example. Let's say when the client asks for a User in JSON format, it comes out like this: { firstName: "John", lastName: "Smith" } Let's also say that when I support HATEOAS, I want the JSON to contain a simple "self" link that the client can then use to refresh the object, delete it, or something else. It might also have a "friends" link indicating how to get the user's list of friends: { firstName: "John", lastName: "Smith", links: [ { rel: "self", ref: "http://myserver/users/1" }, { rel: "friends", ref: "http://myserver/users/1/friends" } ] } Somehow I want to attach links to my object. I feel the right place to do this is in the controller layer as the controllers all know the correct URLs. Additionally, since I support multiple views, I feel like the right thing to do is somehow decorate my domain entities in the controller before they are converted to JSON/XML/whatever in Spring's view resolution framework. One way to do this might be to wrap the POJO in question with a generic Resource class that contains a list of links. Some view tweaking would be required to crunch it into the format I want, but its doable. Unfortunately nested resources could not be wrapped in this way. Other things that come to mind include adding links to the ModelAndView, and then customizing each of Spring's out-of-the-box view resolvers to stuff links into the generated JSON/XML/etc. What I don't want is to be constantly hand-crafting JSON/XML/etc. to accommodate various links as they come and go during the course of development. Thoughts?

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  • Unlimited SMS API/Gateway (Sending and Receiving)

    - by Naif
    I am creating a chat application which requires that users be able to send and receive sms messages through a web interface. It would be somewhat similar to the text messaging service available in yahoo mail or in aol instant messenger. The situation is this: Given the high quantity of messages that would be sent and received, paying on a per message basis is not economically feasible. How is it that sites such as yahoo, aim, and twitter can send and receive unlimited sms messages? Essentially, I am looking for a way to send and receive unlimited sms from my computer. Below is a list of some approaches I've come up with but have run into problems with as well. If just one of the approaches can be utilized effectively, then I am fine. As a note on the nature of my application: I will only be sending messages to users that explicitly sign up for the service and permit the receiving of messages. They can unsubscribe at any time. This is to prevent spam. I am aware of software such as Kannel which allows one to connect to a providers smsc gateway. However, this adds the risk of not being approved by the provider which would be unacceptable. Is there any way to significantly mitigate this risk? Utilizing a gateway provider eliminates this risk, but adds the issue of per message pricing. I am also aware of email to sms. However, I have done some testing with that and it appears that this method results in many messages being undelivered or delivered VERY late. If it weren't for that, this approach would have been ideal. Is there any way to negotiate with carriers to remove me from their filters (considering the nature of my service as stated before)? I could use a gsm modem, but even with an "unilimited" plan on a sim card, there are still limits (around 100,000 messages or so). Furthermore, from my understanding, gsm modems are capable of only sending out around a dozen messages per minute. I need to be able to send out as much as several hundred messages per second. During the first 2 months, around 10 messages per second would suffice. There are ways to send out ads with messages to cover the per message costs. However, this is a deal-breaker since it has a high chance of tarnishing the quality of service. Furthermore, I know it is possible to do it without such ads since yahoo, aim, and twitter do not send ads with their messages.

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  • How should I handle the case in which a username is already in use?

    - by idealmachine
    I'm a JavaScript programmer and new to PHP and MySQL (want to get into server-side coding). Because I'm trying to learn PHP by building a simple online game (more specifically, correspondence chess), I'm starting by implementing a simple user accounts system. Of course, user registration comes first. What are the best practices for: How I should handle the (likely) possibility that when a user tries to register, the username he has chosen is already in use, particularly when it comes to function return values?($result === true is rather ugly, and I'm not sure whether checking the MySQL error code is the best way to do it either) How to cleanly handle varying page titles?($gPageTitle = '...'; require_once 'bgsheader.php'; is also rather ugly) Anything else I'm doing wrong? In some ways, PHP is rather different from JavaScript... Here is a (rather large) excerpt of the code I have written so far. Note that this is a work in progress and is missing security checks that I will add as my next step. function addUser( $username, $password ) { global $gDB, $gPasswordSalt; $stmt = $gDB->prepare( 'INSERT INTO user(user_name, user_password, user_registration) VALUES(?, ?, NOW())' ); $stmt || trigger_error( 'Failed to prepare statement: ' . htmlspecialchars( $gDB->error ) ); $hashedPassword = hash_hmac( 'sha256', $password, $gPasswordSalt, true ); $stmt->bind_param( 'ss', $username, $hashedPassword ); if( $stmt->execute() ) { return true; } elseif( $stmt->errno == 1062) { return 'exists'; } else { trigger_error( 'Failed to execute statement: ' . htmlspecialchars( $stmt->error ) ); } } $username = $_REQUEST['username']; $password = $_REQUEST['password']; $result = addUser( $username, $password ); if( $result === true ) { $gPageTitle = 'Registration successful'; require_once 'bgsheader.php'; echo '<p>You have successfully registered as ' . htmlspecialchars( $username ) . ' on this site.</p>'; } elseif( $result == 'exists' ) { $gPageTitle = 'Username already taken'; require_once 'bgsheader.php'; echo '<p>Someone is already using the username you have chosen. Please try using another one instead.'; } else { trigger_error('This should never happen'); } require_once 'bgsfooter.php';

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  • asp:Button is not calling server-side function

    - by Richard Neil Ilagan
    Hi guys, I know that there has been much discussion here about this topic, but none of the threads I got across helped me solve this problem. I'm hoping that mine is somewhat unique, and may actually merit a different solution. I'm instantiating an asp:Button inside a data-bound asp:GridView through template fields. Some of the buttons are supposed to call a server-side function, but for some weird reason, it doesn't. All the buttons do when you click them is fire a postback to the current page, doing nothing, effectively just reloading the page. Below is a fragment of the code: <asp:GridView ID="gv" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false" CssClass="l2 submissions" ShowHeader="false"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate><asp:Panel ID="swatchpanel" CssClass='<%# Bind("status") %>' runat="server"></asp:Panel></ItemTemplate> <ItemStyle Width="50px" CssClass="sw" /> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:BoundField DataField="description" ReadOnly="true"> </asp:BoundField> <asp:BoundField DataField="owner" ReadOnly="true"> <ItemStyle Font-Italic="true" /> </asp:BoundField> <asp:BoundField DataField="last-modified" ReadOnly="true"> <ItemStyle Width="100px" /> </asp:BoundField> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Button ID="viewBtn" cssclass='<%# Bind("sid") %>' runat="server" Text="View" OnClick="viewBtnClick" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> The viewBtn above should call the viewBtnClick() function on server-side. I do have that function defined, along with a proper signature (object,EventArgs). One thing that may be of note is that this code is actually inside an ASCX, which is loaded in another ASCX, finally loaded into an ASPX. Any help or insight into the matter will be SO appreciated. Thanks! (oh, and please don't mind my trashy HTML/CSS semantics - this is still in a very,very early stage :p)

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  • SQL Native Client 10 Performance miserable (due to server-side cursors)

    - by namezero
    we have an application that uses ODBC via CDatabase/CRecordset in MFC (VS2010). We have two backends implemented. MSSQL and MySQL. Now, when we use MSSQL (with the Native Client 10.0), retrieving records with SELECT is dramatically slow via slow links (VPN, for example). The MySQL ODBC driver does not exhibit this nasty behavior. For example: CRecordset r(&m_db); r.Open(CRecordset::snapshot, L"SELECT a.something, b.sthelse FROM TableA AS a LEFT JOIN TableB AS b ON a.ID=b.Ref"); r.MoveFirst(); while(!r.IsEOF()) { // Retrieve CString strData; crs.GetFieldValue(L"a.something", strData); crs.MoveNext(); } Now, with the MySQL driver, everything runs as it should. The query is returned, and everything is lightning fast. However, with the MSSQL Native Client, things slow down, because on every MoveNext(), the driver communicates with the server. I think it is due to server-side cursors, but I didn't find a way to disable them. I have tried using: ::SQLSetConnectAttr(m_db.m_hdbc, SQL_ATTR_ODBC_CURSORS, SQL_CUR_USE_ODBC, SQL_IS_INTEGER); But this didn't help either. There are still long-running exec's to sp_cursorfetch() et al in SQL Profiler. I have also tried a small reference project with SQLAPI and bulk fetch, but that hangs in FetchNext() for a long time, too (even if there is only one record in the resultset). This however only happens on queries with LEFT JOINS, table-valued functions, etc. Note that the query doesn't take that long - executing the same SQL via SQL Studio over the same connection returns in a reasonable time. Question1: Is is possible to somehow get the native client to "cache" all results locally use local cursors in a similar fashion as the MySQL driver seems to do it? Maybe this is the wrong approach altogether, but I'm not sure how else to do this. All we want is to retrieve all data at once from a SELECT, then never talk the server again until the next query. We don't care about recordset updates, deletes, etc or any of that nonsense. We only want to retrieve data. We take that recordset, get all the data, and delete it. Question2: Is there a more efficient way to just retrieve data in MFC with ODBC?

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  • compressed archive with quick access to individual file

    - by eric.frederich
    I need to come up with a file format for new application I am writing. This file will need to hold a bunch other text files which are mostly text but can be other formats as well. Naturally, a compressed tar file seems to fit the bill. The problem is that I want to be able to retrieve some data from the file very quickly and getting just a particular file from a tar.gz file seems to take longer than it should. I am assumeing that this is because it has to decompress the entire file even though I just want one. When I have just a regular uncompressed tar file I can get that data real quick. Lets say the file I need quickly is called data.dat For example the command... tar -x data.dat -zf myfile.tar.gz ... is what takes a lot longer than I'd like. MP3 files have id3 data and jpeg files have exif data that can be read in quickly without opening the entire file. I would like my data.dat file to be available in a similar way. I was thinking that I could leave it uncompressed and seperate from the rest of the files in myfile.tar.gz I could then create a tar file of data.dat and myfile.tar.gz and then hopefully that data would be able to be retrieved faster because it is at the head of outer tar file and is uncompressed. Does this sound right?... putting a compressed tar inside of a tar file? Basically, my need is to have an archive type of file with quick access to one particular file. Tar does this just fine, but I'd also like to have that data compressed and as soon as I do that, I no longer have quick access. Are there other archive formats that will give me that quick access I need? As a side note, this application will be written in Python. If the solution calls for a re-invention of the wheel with my own binary format I am familiar with C and would have no problem writing the Python module in C. Idealy I'd just use tar, dd, cat, gzip, etc though. Thanks, ~Eric

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  • Is a Multi-DAL Approach the way to go here?

    - by Krisc
    Working on the data access / model layer in this little MVC2 project and trying to think things out to future projects. I have a database with some basic tables and I have classes in the model layer that represent them. I obviously need something to connect the two. The easiest is to provide some sort of 'provider' that can run operations on the database and return objects. But this is for a website that would potentially be used "a lot" (I know, very general) so I want to cache results from the data layer and keep the cache updated as new data is generated. This question deals with how best to approach this problem of dual DALS. One that returns cached data when possible and goes to the data layer when there is a cache miss. But more importantly, how to integrate the core provider (thing that goes into database) with the caching layer so that it too can rely on cached objects rather than creating new ones. Right now I have the following interfaces: IDataProvider is used to reach the database. It doesn't concern itself with the meaning of the objects it produces, but simply the way to produce them. interface IDataProvider{ // Select, Update, Create, et cetera access IEnumerable<Entry> GetEntries(); Entry GetEntryById(int id); } IDataManager is a layer that sits on top of the IDataProvider layer and manages the cache interface IDataManager : IDataProvider{ void ClearCache(); } Note that in practice the IDataManager implementation will have useful helper functions to add objects to their related cache stores. (In the future I may define other functions on the interface) I guess what I am looking for is the best way to approach a loop back from the IDataProvider implementations so that they can access the cache. Or a different approach entirely may be in order? I am not very interested in 3rd party products at the moment as I am interested in the design of these things much more than this specific implementation. Edit: I realize the title may be a bit misleading. I apologize for that... not sure what to call this question.

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  • Subband decomposition using Daubechies filter

    - by misha
    I have the following two 8-tap filters: h0 ['-0.010597', '0.032883', '0.030841', '-0.187035', '-0.027984', '0.630881', '0.714847', '0.230378'] h1 ['-0.230378', '0.714847', '-0.630881', '-0.027984', '0.187035', '0.030841', '-0.032883', '-0.010597'] Here they are on a graph: I'm using it to obtain the approximation (lower subband of an image). This is a(m,n) in the following diagram: I got the coefficients and diagram from the book Digital Image Processing, 3rd Edition, so I trust that they are correct. The star symbol denotes one dimensional convolution (either over rows or over columns). The down arrow denotes downsampling in one dimension (either over rows, or columns). My problem is that the filter coefficients for h0 and h1 sum to greater than 1 (approximately 1.4 or sqrt(2) to be exact). Naturally, if I convolve any image with the filter, the image will get brighter. Indeed, here's what I get (expected result on right): Can somebody suggest what the problem is here? Why should it work if the convolution filter coefficients sum to greater than 1? I have the source code, but it's quite long so I'm hoping to avoid posting it here. If it's absolutely necessary, I'll put it up later. EDIT What I'm doing is: Decompose into subbands Filter one of the subbands Recompose subbands into original image Note that the point isn't just to have a displayable subband-decomposed image -- I have to be able to perfectly reconstruct the original image from the subbands as well. So if I scale the filtered image in order to compensate for my decomposition filter making the image brighter, this is what I will have to do: Decompose into subbands Apply intensity scaling Filter one of the subbands Apply inverse intensity scaling Recompose subbands into original image Step 2 performs the scaling. This is what @Benjamin is suggesting. The problem is that then step 4 becomes necessary, or the original image will not be properly reconstructed. This longer method will work. However, the textbook explicitly says that no scaling is performed on the approximation subband. Of course, it's possible that the textbook is wrong. However, what's more possible is I'm misunderstanding something about the way this all works -- this is why I'm asking this question.

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  • Best way to return result from business layer to presentation layer when using LINQ-to-SQL

    - by samsur
    I have a business layer that has DTOs that are used in the presentation layer. This application uses entity framework. Here is an example of a class called RoleDTO: public class RoleDTO { public Guid RoleId { get; set; } public string RoleName { get; set; } public string RoleDescription { get; set; } public int? OrganizationId { get; set; } } In the BLL I want to have a method that returns a list of DTO. I would like to know which is the better approach: returning IQueryable or list of DTOs. Although I feel that returning IQueryable is not a good idea because the connection needs to be open. Here are the 2 different methods using the different approaches: First approach public class RoleBLL { private servicedeskEntities sde; public RoleBLL() { sde = new servicedeskEntities(); } public IQueryable<RoleDTO> GetAllRoles() { IQueryable<RoleDTO> role = from r in sde.Roles select new RoleDTO() { RoleId = r.RoleID, RoleName = r.RoleName, RoleDescription = r.RoleDescription, OrganizationId = r.OrganizationId }; return role; } Note: in the above method the DataContext is a private attribute and set in the constructor, so that the connection stays opened. Second approach public static List<RoleDTO> GetAllRoles() { List<RoleDTO> roleDTO = new List<RoleDTO>(); using (servicedeskEntities sde = new servicedeskEntities()) { var roles = from pri in sde.Roles select new { pri.RoleID, pri.RoleName, pri.RoleDescription }; //Add the role entites to the DTO list and return. This is necessary as anonymous types can be returned acrosss methods foreach (var item in roles) { RoleDTO roleItem = new RoleDTO(); roleItem.RoleId = item.RoleID; roleItem.RoleDescription = item.RoleDescription; roleItem.RoleName = item.RoleName; roleDTO.Add(roleItem); } return roleDTO; } } Please let me know, if there is a better approach.

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  • Is "Systems Designer" the job title that best describes what I do? [closed]

    - by ivo-rossi
    After having worked as Java developer for almost 3 years in the same company that I currently work at, I moved to a new position associated with the development of the same application. I’m in this new position for more than 1 year now. My official job title is Systems Designer, but I’m not sure this is a title that expresses well what I do. So my question here is what would be the most appropriate job title for me? I see this question as important for my career development. After all, I should be able to explain in one word what I do. And it’s no longer “Java Developer”. Well, in more than one word, this is what I do: The business analysts gather requirements / business problems to be solved with the clients and then discuss these requirements with me. Given the requirements, I design the high level solutions to be implemented in our system (e.g. a new screen on the client application, modifications to existing reports, extension to the XML export format of some objects, etc). I base my decision on the current capabilities of the system, the overall impact that the solutions would have on the system and the estimated effort to implement them (as I was a developer of this same application for almost 3 years before I moved to this position, I’m confident in my estimates). The solutions are discussed iteratively with the business analysts until we agree that they are good. The outcome of this analysis is what we call the “requirements design” document, which is written by me, shared with clients for approval and then also with the team that is going to implement the solutions and test them. Note that there are a few problems that I need to find a solution for that are non-functional. If the users are unhappy with the performance of a certain tool, I will investigate what can be done to speed it up. I will do some research – often based in the Java code itself - to identify possibilities of optimizations. But in this new position I no longer code, the main outcome of my work is really the “requirements design”. Is “Systems Designer” really the most appropriate job title?

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  • Why do I get a WCF timeout even though my service call and callback are successful?

    - by KallDrexx
    I'm playing around with hooking up an in-game console to a WCF interface, so an external application can send console commands and receive console output. To accomplish this I created the following service contracts: public interface IConsoleNetworkCallbacks { [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] void NewOutput(IEnumerable<string> text, string category); } [ServiceContract(SessionMode = SessionMode.Required, CallbackContract = typeof(IConsoleNetworkCallbacks))] public interface IConsoleInterface { [OperationContract] void ProcessInput(string input); [OperationContract] void ChangeCategory(string category); } On the server I implemented it with: public class ConsoleNetworkInterface : IConsoleInterface, IDisposable { public ConsoleNetworkInterface() { ConsoleManager.Instance.RegisterOutputUpdateHandler(OutputHandler); } public void Dispose() { ConsoleManager.Instance.UnregisterOutputHandler(OutputHandler); } public void ProcessInput(string input) { ConsoleManager.Instance.ProcessInput(input); } public void ChangeCategory(string category) { ConsoleManager.Instance.UnregisterOutputHandler(OutputHandler); ConsoleManager.Instance.RegisterOutputUpdateHandler(OutputHandler, category); } protected void OutputHandler(IEnumerable<string> text, string category) { var callbacks = OperationContext.Current.GetCallbackChannel<IConsoleNetworkCallbacks>(); callbacks.NewOutput(text, category); } } On the client I implemented the callback with: public class Callbacks : IConsoleNetworkCallbacks { public void NewOutput(IEnumerable<string> text, string category) { MessageBox.Show(string.Format("{0} lines received for '{1}' category", text.Count(), category)); } } Finally, I establish the service host with the following class: public class ConsoleServiceHost : IDisposable { protected ServiceHost _host; public ConsoleServiceHost() { _host = new ServiceHost(typeof(ConsoleNetworkInterface), new Uri[] { new Uri("net.pipe://localhost") }); _host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IConsoleInterface), new NetNamedPipeBinding(), "FrbConsolePipe"); _host.Open(); } public void Dispose() { _host.Close(); } } and use the following code on my client to establish the connection: protected Callbacks _callbacks; protected IConsoleInterface _proxy; protected void ConnectToConsoleServer() { _callbacks = new Callbacks(); var factory = new DuplexChannelFactory<IConsoleInterface>(_callbacks, new NetNamedPipeBinding(), new EndpointAddress("net.pipe://localhost/FrbConsolePipe")); _proxy = factory.CreateChannel(); _proxy.ProcessInput("Connected"); } So what happens is that my ConnectToConsoleServer() is called and then it gets all the way to _proxy.ProcessInput("Connected");. In my game (on the server) I immediately see the output caused by the ProcessInput call, but the client is still stalled on the _proxy.ProcessInput() call. After a minute my client gets a JIT TimeoutException however at the same time my MessageBox message appears. So obviously not only is my command being sent immediately, my callback is being correctly called. So why am I getting a timeout exception? Note: Even removing the MessageBox call, I still have this issue, so it's not an issue of the GUI blocking the callback response.

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  • C#: My callback function gets called twice for every Sent Request

    - by Madi D.
    I've Got a program that uploads/downloads files into an online server,Has a callback to report progress and log it into a textfile, The program is built with the following structure: public void Upload(string source, string destination) { //Object containing Source and destination to pass to the threaded function KeyValuePair<string, string> file = new KeyValuePair<string, string>(source, destination); //Threading to make sure no blocking happens after calling upload Function Thread t = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(amazonHandler.TUpload)); t.Start(file); } private void TUpload(object fileInfo) { KeyValuePair<string, string> file = (KeyValuePair<string, string>)fileInfo; /* Some Magic goes here,Checking The file and Authorizing Upload */ var ftiObject = new FtiObject () { FileNameOnHDD = file.Key, DestinationPath = file.Value, //Has more data used for calculations. }; //Threading to make sure progress gets callback gets called. Thread t = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(amazonHandler.UploadOP)); t.Start(ftiObject); //Signal used to stop progress untill uploadCompleted is called. uploadChunkDoneSignal.WaitOne(); /* Some Extra Code */ } private void UploadOP(object ftiSentObject) { FtiObject ftiObject = (FtiObject)ftiSentObject; /* Some useless code to create the uri and prepare the ftiObject. */ // webClient.UploadFileAsync will open a thread that // will upload the file and report // progress/complete using registered callback functions. webClient.UploadFileAsync(uri, "PUT", ftiObject.FileNameOnHDD, ftiObject); } I got a callback that is registered to the Webclient's UploadProgressChanged event , however it is getting called twice per sent request. void UploadProgressCallback(object sender, UploadProgressChangedEventArgs e) { FtiObject ftiObject = (FtiObject )e.UserState; Logger.log(ftiObject.FileNameOnHDD, (double)e.BytesSent ,e.TotalBytesToSend); } Log Output: Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:1024 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:1024 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:2048 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:2048 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:3072 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:3072 TotalFileSize: 665241 Etc... I am watching the Network Traffic using a watcher, and only 1 request is being sent. Some how i cant Figure out why the callback is being called twice, my doubt was that the callback is getting fired by each thread opened(the main Upload , and TUpload), however i dont know how to test if thats the cause. Note: The reason behind the many /**/ Comments is to indicate that the functions do more than just opening threads, and threading is being used to make sure no blocking occurs (there a couple of "Signal.WaitOne()" around the code for synchronization)

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