Search Results

Search found 46896 results on 1876 pages for 'temporary class'.

Page 512/1876 | < Previous Page | 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519  | Next Page >

  • How to setPage() a JEditorPane with a localfile which is outside of the .jar file?

    - by Jaguar
    My program has the following path in the .jar file src/test/Program.class and my program is as follow... Program.java package test; import java.io.File; import java.io.IOException; import javax.swing.JEditorPane; import javax.swing.JFrame; public class Program { JEditorPane editorPane; public Program() { File file = new File("temp.htm"); try { file.createNewFile(); editorPane = new JEditorPane(); editorPane.setPage(Program.class.getResource("temp.htm")); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } public JEditorPane getEditorPane(){ return editorPane; } public static void main(String[] args) { JFrame frame = new JFrame(); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); frame.setSize(400, 400); frame.setVisible(true); Program p = new Program(); frame.getContentPane().add(p.getEditorPane()); } } The problem is that I have compiled the program in a .jar file. The file.createNewFile(); creates the temp.htm file outside the .jar file So when editorPane.setPage(Program.class.getResource("temp.htm")); is called the file is not found as it searches for file inside the test package. How to setPage() the temp.htm file whiich is outside the .jar file but in the same folder as the .jar file? As the temp.htm is a localfile and I want a relative path instead of an absolute path. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Asp.net mvc inheritance controllers

    - by Ris90
    Hi, I'm studing asp.net mvc and in my test project I have some problems with inheritance: In my model I use inheritanse in few entities: public class Employee:Entity { /* few public properties */ } It is the base class. And descendants: public class RecruitmentOfficeEmployee: Employee { public virtual RecruitmentOffice AssignedOnRecruitmentOffice { get; set; } } public class ResearchInstituteEmployee: Employee { public virtual ResearchInstitute AssignedOnResearchInstitute { get; set; } } I want to implement a simple CRUD operations to every descedant. What is the better way to inplement controllers and views in descendants: - One controller per every descendant; - Controller inheritance; - Generic controller; - Generic methods in one controller. Or maybe there is an another way? My ORM is NHibernate, I have a generic base repository and every repository is its descedant. Using generic controller, I think, is the best way, but in it I will use only generic base repository and extensibility of the system will be not very good. Please, help the newbie)

    Read the article

  • Call to a member function get_segment() error

    - by hogofwar
    I'm having this problem with this piece of PHP code: class Core { public function start() { require("funk/funks/libraries/uri.php"); $this->uri = new uri(); require("funk/core/loader.php"); $this->load = new loader(); if($this->uri->get_segment(1) != "" and file_exists("funk/pages/".$uri->get_segment(1).".php")){ Only a snippet of the code The best way I can explain it is that it is a class calling upon another class (uri.php) and i am getting the error: Fatal error: Call to a member function get_segment() on a non-object in /home/eeeee/public_html/private/funkyphp/funk/core/core.php on line 11 (the if($this-uri-get_segment(1) part) I'm having this problem a lot and it is really bugging me. the library code is: <?php class uri { private $server_path_info = ''; private $segment = array(); private $segments = 0; public function __construct() { $segment_temp = array(); $this->server_path_info = preg_replace("/\?/", "", $_SERVER["PATH_INFO"]); $segment_temp = explode("/", $this->server_path_info); foreach ($segment_temp as $key => $seg) { if (!preg_match("/([a-zA-Z0-9\.\_\-]+)/", $seg) || empty($seg)) unset($segment_temp[$key]); } foreach ($segment_temp as $k => $value) { $this->segment[] = $value; } unset($segment_temp); $this->segments = count($this->segment); } public function segment_exists($id = 0) { $id = (int)$id; if (isset($this->segment[$id])) return true; else return false; } public function get_segment($id = 0) { $id--; $id = (int)$id; if ($this->segment_exists($id) === true) return $this->segment[$id]; else return false; } } ?>

    Read the article

  • Conversion between different template instantiation of the same template

    - by Naveen
    I am trying to write an operator which converts between the differnt types of the same implementation. This is the sample code: template <class T = int> class A { public: A() : m_a(0){} template <class U> operator A<U>() { A<U> u; u.m_a = m_a; return u; } private: int m_a; }; int main(void) { A<int> a; A<double> b = a; return 0; } However, it gives the following error for line u.m_a = m_a;. Error 2 error C2248: 'A::m_a' : cannot access private member declared in class 'A' d:\VC++\Vs8Console\Vs8Console\Vs8Console.cpp 30 Vs8Console I understand the error is because A<U> is a totally different type from A<T>. Is there any simple way of solving this (may be using a friend?) other than providing setter and getter methods? I am using Visual studio 2008 if it matters.

    Read the article

  • C++ destructor problem with boost::scoped_ptr

    - by bb-generation
    I have a question about the following code: #include <iostream> #include <boost/scoped_ptr.hpp> class Interface { }; class A : public Interface { public: A() { std::cout << "A()" << std::endl; } virtual ~A() { std::cout << "~A()" << std::endl; } }; Interface* get_a() { A* a = new A; return a; } int main() { { std::cout << "1" << std::endl; boost::scoped_ptr<Interface> x(get_a()); std::cout << "2" << std::endl; } std::cout << "3" << std::endl; } It creates the following output: 1 A() 2 3 As you can see, it doesn't call the destructor of A. The only way I see to get the destructor of A being called, is to add a destructor for the Interface class like this: virtual ~Interface() { } But I really want to avoid any Implementation in my Interface class and virtual ~Interface() = 0; doesn't work (produces some linker errors complaining about a non existing implementation of ~Interface(). So my question is: What do I have to change in order to make the destructor being called, but (if possible) leave the Interface as an Interface (only abstract methods).

    Read the article

  • PHP what is faster to use

    - by user1631500
    What is faster / better to use? To put html into variables and print them later, or to just html print / echo print the content based on condition? EXAMPLE 1:(html into variables) if(!isset($_SESSION['daddy'])) { $var = "<span class='something'>Go here:<a href='#'>Click</a></span> <span class='something'>Go here:<a href='#'>Click</a></span>" } else { $one=$_SESSION["one"]; $two=$_SESSION["two"]; $three=$_SESSION["three"]; $var = You are cool enough to view the content; } echo $var; EXAMPLE 2:(print based on condition) if(!isset($_SESSION['daddy'])) { $var = 1; } else { $one=$_SESSION["one"]; $two=$_SESSION["two"]; $three=$_SESSION["three"]; $var = 0; } if ($var==1) { ?> <span class='something'>Go here:<a href='#'>Click</a></span> <span class='something'>Go here:<a href='#'>Click</a></span <?php } else { ?> You are cool enough to view the content. <?php } ?>

    Read the article

  • Chrome renders button links completely screwed up when placed inside a paragraph

    - by Ferdy
    I am fairly proficient in CSS but now I am running into a very strange rendering issue in Google Chrome 9. I am trying to create some fancy looking link buttons (basically heavily styled anchors). Here is some example markup: <a href="" class="button"> <figure class="sprite icon icon_back"></figure> Link button with icon</a> This markup may look a litte strange to you, there's a few things you should know: I am using HTML5's figure class to include an icon as part of the button. I have the proper reset CSS applied and Chrome can render this tag for sure. Instead of actually pointing to an image I am applying CSS classes to the figure element. Within the CSS I am using the spriting technique to show the correct portion of a single large sprite image. All of this is working fine in Firefox, and actually also in Chrome. The correct rendering can be seen in the following image: It renders like that in both Firefox and Chrome. Here comes the problem, if I place such a button within paragraph tags <p></p> this is what happens in Chrome only: Notice how the button is ripped apart? Only in Chrome and only when placed inside a paragraph. It gets even stranger: this only happens for the first button inside the paragraph, if I would place three buttons inside a paragraph, only the 1st one is screwed up. Your first question would probably be about the CSS. It is rather verbose so hereby a temporary link to the page in question: Edit: link to live page removed, was only temporary for problem inspection.

    Read the article

  • axis-java2wsdl task classpath setting problem

    - by qkrsppopcmpt
    Hey Guys, here is my build.xml <?xml version="1.0" standalone="yes"?> <path id='axis2.classpath'> <fileset dir='D:\Tools\axis2-1.5.1-bin\axis2-1.5.1\lib'> <include name='**/*.jar' /> </fileset> </path> <path id='compiled.class.path'> <fileset dir='./bin/pkg'> <include name='*.class' /> </fileset> </path> <taskdef resource="axis-tasks.properties" classpathref="axis2.classpath" /> <target name="run" > <axis-java2wsdl output="out/TestService.wsdl" location="http://localhost:8080/axis2/service/TestService" namespace="service" classname="TestService"> <classpath refid="compiled.class.path"/> <mapping namespace="TestService" package="pkg"/> </axis-java2wsdl> </target> here is my file structure: prj-bin-pkg-TestService.class/////////// prj-src-pkg-TestService.java/////////// prj-build.xml I get java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: TestService. Can anybody tell me how to fix it? Thanks so much. !!!!!!!!!!!!!

    Read the article

  • iBatis not populating object when there are no rows found.

    - by Omnipresent
    I am running a stored procedure that returns 2 cursors and none of them have any data. I have the following mapping xml: <resultMap id="resultMap1" class="HashMap"> <result property="firstName" columnIndex="2"/> </resultMap> <resultMap id="resultMap2" class="com.somePackage.MyBean"> <result property="unitStreetName" column="street_name"/> </resultMap> <parameterMap id="parmmap" class="map"> <parameter property="id" jdbcType="String" javaType="java.lang.String" mode="IN"/> <parameter property="Result0" jdbcType="ORACLECURSOR" javaType="java.sql.ResultSet" mode="OUT" resultMap="resultMap1"/> <parameter property="Result1" jdbcType="ORACLECURSOR" javaType="java.sql.ResultSet" mode="OUT" resultMap="resultMap2"/> </parameterMap> <procedure id="proc" parameterMap="parmmap"> { call my_sp (?,?,?) } </procedure> First result set is being put in a HashMap...second resultSet is being put in a MyBean class. code in my DAO follows: HashMap map = new HashMap() map.put("id", "1234"); getSqlMapClientTemplate().queryForList("mymap.proc", map); HashMap result1 = (HashMap)((List)parmMap.get("Result0")).get(0); MyBean myObject = (MyBean)((List)parmMap.get("Result1")).get(0);//code fails here in the last line above..my code fails. It fails because second cursor has no rows and thats why nothing is put into the list. However, first cursor returns nothing as well but since results are being put into a HashMap the list for first cursor atleast has HashMap object inside it.. Why this difference? is there a way to make iBatis put an object of MyBean inside the list even if there are no rows returned? Or should I be handling this in my DAO...I want to avoid handling it in the DAO because I have whole bunch of DAO's like these.

    Read the article

  • When to use @Singleton in a Jersey resource

    - by dexter
    I have a Jersey resource that access the database. Basically it opens a database connection in the initialization of the resource. Performs queries on the resource's methods. I have observed that when I do not use @Singleton, the database is being open at each request. And we know opening a connection is really expensive right? So my question is, should I specify that the resource be singleton or is it really better to keep it at per request especially when the resource is connecting to the database? My resource code looks like this: //Use @Singleton here or not? @Path(/myservice/) public class MyResource { private ResponseGenerator responser; private Log logger = LogFactory.getLog(MyResource.class); public MyResource() { responser = new ResponseGenerator(); } @GET @Path("/clients") public String getClients() { logger.info("GETTING LIST OF CLIENTS"); return responser.returnClients(); } ... // some more methods ... } And I connect to the database using a code similar to this: public class ResponseGenerator { private Connection conn; private PreparedStatement prepStmt; private ResultSet rs; public ResponseGenerator(){ Class.forName("org.h2.Driver"); conn = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:h2:testdb"); } public String returnClients(){ String result; try{ prepStmt = conn.prepareStatement("SELECT * FROM hosts"); rs = prepStmt.executeQuery(); ... //do some processing here ... } catch (SQLException se){ logger.warn("Some message"); } finally { rs.close(); prepStmt.close(); // should I also close the connection here (in every method) if I stick to per request // and add getting of connection at the start of every method // conn.close(); } return result } ... // some more methods ... } Some comments on best practices for the code will also be helpful.

    Read the article

  • jQuery slideDown + CSS Floats

    - by danilo
    I'm using a HTML Table with several rows. Every second row - containing details about the preceding row - is hidden using CSS. When clicking the first row, the second row gets showed using jQuery show(). This is quite nice, but I would prefer the slideDown-Effect. The problem is, inside the details row, there are two floating DIVs, one floating on the left, and one on the right. Now if i slideDown the previously hidden row, the contained DIVs behave strange and "jump around". See this animated gif to understand what I mean: http://ich-wars-nicht.ch/tmp/lunapic_127365879362365_.gif The markup: <tr class="row-vm"> <td>...</td> ... </tr> <tr class="row-details"> <td colspan="8"> <div class="vmdetail-left"> ... </div> <div class="vmdetail-right"> ... </div> </td> </tr> The CSS: .table-vmlist tr.row-details { display: none; } div.vmdetail-left { float: left; width: 50%; } div.vmdetail-right { float: right; width: 50%; } And the jQuery code: if ($(this).next().css('display') == 'none') { // Show details //$(this).next().show(); $(this).next().slideDown(); } else { // Hide details //$(this).next().hide(); $(this).next().slideUp(); } Is there a way to fix this behavior, and to implement a nice slideDown-effect?

    Read the article

  • Preserving timestamps on Clojure .clj files when building shaded jar via Maven Shade Plugin

    - by Dereference
    When using the maven-shade-plugin to package our jar artifact that contained a few Clojure libs and some Java. We were using AOT compilation for our Clojure code. When we loaded the jar, it was having very slow load times. AOT compilation is supposed to help this quite a bit, but that wasn't what we were seeing. We noticed in java jar -verbose output that there was a lot of JVM__DEFINE_CLASS calls happening when Clojure classes were being loaded. This didn't make sense, since more of our Clojure code was AOT compiled to .class files. Turns out the maven-shade-plugin creates all new files, with new timestamps in the final artifact Clojure uses the timestamp information on a .clj file vs. a .class file, to determine if the file needs to be recompiled. The maven-shade-plugin was causing the .clj file and it's associated .class file to have the same timestamp, so Clojure always chose to dynamically recompile the source. The only workaround that we have been able to figure out, at this point, is to write a script that would re-open the shaded jar and bump the .clj file timestamps back to some time in the past, so that they wouldn't be equal to the timestamps of their associated .class files. Does anyone know of a better approach?

    Read the article

  • Measuring how "heavily linked" a node is in a graph

    - by Eduardo León
    I have posted this question at MathOverflow.com as well. I am no mathematician and English is not my first language, so please excuse me if my question is too stupid, it is poorly phrased, or both. I am developing a program that creates timetables. My timetable-creating algorithm, besides creating the timetable, also creates a graph whose nodes represent each class I have already programmed, and whose arcs represent which pairs of classes should not be programmed at the same time, even if they have to be reprogrammed. The more "heavily linked" a node is, the more inflexible its associated class is with respect to being reprogrammed. Sometimes, in the middle of the process, there will be no option but to reprogram a class that has already been programmed. I want my program to be able to choose a class that, if reprogrammed, affects the least possible number of other already-programmed classes. That would mean choosing a node in the graph that is "not very heavily linked", subject to some constraints with respect to which nodes can be chosen. EDIT: The question was... Do you know any algorithm that measures how "heavily linked" a node is?

    Read the article

  • Pushing elements into array as copy

    - by koko
    In prototypejs, why does the following code remove the matching divs from the #test div? What confuses me is that this happens when they are being inserted in the #droparea, and not when they are being pushed in the array. <div id="test"> <div class="foo" id="22.1234"> 1 </div> <div class="foo" id="22.1235"> 2 </div> <div class="foo" id="53.2345"> 3 </div> <div class="foo" id="53.2346"> 4 </div> </div> <div id="droparea"> </div> js var elArray = []; var els = $('test').select('.foo'); els.each(function(x){ if(x.id.split('.')[0] == 22){ elArray.push(x); } }); elArray.each(function(y){ $('droparea').insert({ bottom: y }); });

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't the spring @Autowire work with java generics

    - by testing123
    Inspired by spring data awesomeness I wanted to create a abstract RESTController that I could extend for a lot of my controllers. I created the following class: @Controller public abstract class RESTController<E, PK extends Serializable, R extends PagingAndSortingRepository<E, PK>> { @Autowired private R repository; @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET, params={"id"}) @ResponseBody public E getEntity(@RequestParam PK id) { return repository.findOne(id); } ... } I was hoping that the generics would allow me to @Autowire in the repository but I get the following error: SEVERE: Allocate exception for servlet appServlet org.springframework.beans.factory.NoSuchBeanDefinitionException: No unique bean of type [org.springframework.data.repository.PagingAndSortingRepository] is defined: expected single matching bean but found 3: [groupRepository, externalCourseRepository, managedCourseRepository] at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory.doResolveDependency(DefaultListableBeanFactory.java:800) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory.resolveDependency(DefaultListableBeanFactory.java:707) at org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor$AutowiredFieldElement.inject(AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor.java:478) at org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.InjectionMetadata.inject(InjectionMetadata.java:87) at org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor.postProcessPropertyValues(AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor.java:284) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.populateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:1106) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.doCreateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:517) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.createBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:456) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory$1.getObject(AbstractBeanFactory.java:294) I understand what the error is telling me, there is more than one match for the @Autowire. I am confused because I thought by creating the following controller it would work: @Controller @RequestMapping(value="/managedCourse") public class ManagedCourseController extends RESTController<ManagedCourse, Long, ManagedCourseRepository> { ... } This is easy enough to work around by doing having a method like this in the RESTController: protected abstract R getRepository(); and then doing this in your implementing class: @Autowired private ManagedCourseRepository repository; @Override protected ManagedCourseRepository getRepository() { return repository; } I was just wondering if someone had any thoughts of how I could get this to work.

    Read the article

  • Random number generation in MVC applications

    - by SlimShaggy
    What is the correct way of generating random numbers in an ASP.NET MVC application if I need exactly one number per request? According to MSDN, in order to get randomness of sufficient quality, it is necessary to generate multiple numbers using a single System.Random object, created once. Since a new instance of a controller class is created for each request in MVC, I cannot use a private field initialized in the controller's constructor for the Random object. So in what part of the MVC app should I create and store the Random object? Currently I store it in a static field of the controller class and lazily initialize it in the action method that uses it: public class HomeController : Controller { ... private static Random random; ... public ActionResult Download() { ... if (random == null) random = new Random(); ... } } Since the "random" field can be accessed by multiple instances of the controller class, is it possible for its value to become corrupted if two instances attempt to initialize it simultaneously? And one more question: I know that the lifetime of statics is the lifetime of the application, but in case of an MVC app what is it? Is it from IIS startup till IIS shutdown?

    Read the article

  • How to face observable object containing an observable field

    - by iseek
    Hello, I need a hint concerning MVC and Observer-Pattern. For example a model contains the classes "Address" and "Person". The Address class contains the fields street:String, zipcode:String, location:String. Whereas the Person class contains the fields name:String, firstName:String, address:Address. My approach so far looks something like this: Both, Address and Person are observable. If one of their setters is being called, I validate whether the current value and new value differ. Only in this case an update event is fired. The event contains the source, the name of the changed field, the old and the new value. The class for the view contains text fields to display and edit the information of a person: name, firstname, street, zipcode, location. It knows the Person model and is an subscribed observer for the person. So it gets the update events from the person object. My questions concerns the address field from type Address in the person class, since an address is observable on its own. If the view gets an update event from person when a new address has been set, I can update all of the address related fields in the view. But what if a field of the address changes? Should the view also register for update events from the address? Any hints about common design approaches would be appreciated. Greetings.

    Read the article

  • Hibernate Search + Spring

    - by Zane
    I'm trying to integrate Hibernate Search with Spring, but I can't seem to index anything. I was able to get Hibernate Search to work without Spring, but I'm having a problem integrating it with Spring. Any help would be much appreciated. Below is my springmvc-servlet.xml: <bean id="transactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> <bean id="entityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="enewsclipsPersistenceUnit" /> </bean> And here is my DAO class: @Repository public class SearchDaoImpl implements SearchDao { JpaTemplate jpaTemplate; @Autowired public SearchDaoImpl(EntityManagerFactory entityManagerFactory) { this.jpaTemplate = new JpaTemplate(entityManagerFactory); } @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public void updateSearchIndex() { /* Implement the callback method */ jpaTemplate.execute(new JpaCallback() { public Object doInJpa(EntityManager em) throws PersistenceException { List<Article> articles = em.createQuery("select a from Article a").getResultList(); FullTextEntityManager ftEm = Search.getFullTextEntityManager(em); ftEm.getTransaction().begin(); for(Article article : articles) { System.out.println("Indexing Item " + article.getTitle()); ftEm.index(article); } ftEm.getTransaction().commit(); return null; } }); } } I think that it may have to do with the transactions but I'm not exactly sure. If you could just point me in the right direction, that would be helpful too! Thank you.

    Read the article

  • SWIG: From Plain C++ to working Wrapper

    - by duckworthd
    Hi everyone. I've been trying to create a SWIG wrapper for this tiny little C++ class for the better part of 3 hours with no success, so I was hoping one of you out there could lend me a small hand. I have the following class: #include <stdio.h> class Example { public: Example(); ~Example(); int test(); }; #include "example.h" Along with the implementation: Example::Example() { printf("Example constructor called\n"); } Example::~Example() { printf("Example destructor called\n"); } int Example::test() { printf("Holy shit, I work!\n"); return 42; } I've read through the introduction page ( www.swig.org/Doc1.3/Java.html ) a few times without gaining a whole lot of insight into the situation. My steps were Create an example.i file Compile original alongside example_wrap.cxx (no linking) link resulting object files together Create a little java test file (see below) javac all .java files there and run Well steps 4 and 5 have created a host of problems for me, starting with the basic ( library 'example' not found due to not being in java's path ) to the weird ( library not found even unless LD_LIBRARY_PATH is set to something, even if it's nothing at all). I've included my little testing code below public class test2 { static { String libpath = System.getProperty("java.library.path"); String currentDir = System.getProperty("user.dir"); System.setProperty("java.library.path", currentDir + ":" + libpath); System.out.println(System.getProperty("java.library.path")); System.loadLibrary("example"); } public static void main(String[] args){ System.out.println("It loads!"); } } Well, if anyone has navigated these murky waters of wrapping, I could not be happier than if you could light the way, particularly if you could provide the example.i and bash commands to go along with it.

    Read the article

  • ServiceStack razor default page

    - by Tom
    Say I have 2 pages /NotADefault.cshtml /Views/Default.cshtml Question 1. Now I run it, page A always gets called implicitly as start-up default page no matter what I name it. Page B will only be called when I explicitly call localhost/View/Default. How do I make page B (the one in View folder) my default page? Question 2. I also have NotADefaultService.cs and DefaultService.cs. I give each page a Service class at the back. However, when page A is called NotADefaultService.cs never gets called. Only DefaultService.cs gets called when page B is called... My observation is that only the pages in the View folder will get their back-end service class working. Outside of View folder it doesn't work. Combining Q1 and Q2. How do I: Option 1. get the backend service class working under / root outside "View" folder? OR Option 2. appoint /View/Default.schtml as my default at start-up where the service class can be hit?

    Read the article

  • How do I alias the scala setter method 'myvar_$(myval)' to something more pleasing when in java?

    - by feydr
    I've been converting some code from java to scala lately trying to tech myself the language. Suppose we have this scala class: class Person() { var name:String = "joebob" } Now I want to access it from java so I can't use dot-notation like I would if I was in scala. So I can get my var's contents by issuing: person = Person.new(); System.out.println(person.name()); and set it via: person = Person.new(); person.name_$eq("sallysue"); System.out.println(person.name()); This holds true cause our Person Class looks like this in javap: Compiled from "Person.scala" public class Person extends java.lang.Object implements scala.ScalaObject{ public Person(); public void name_$eq(java.lang.String); public java.lang.String name(); public int $tag() throws java.rmi.RemoteException; } Yes, I could write my own getters/setters but I hate filling classes up with that and it doesn't make a ton of sense considering I already have them -- I just want to alias the _$eq method better. (This actually gets worse when you are dealing with stuff like antlr because then you have to escape it and it ends up looking like person.name_\$eq("newname"); Note: I'd much rather have to put up with this rather than fill my classes with more setter methods. So what would you do in this situation?

    Read the article

  • IE8 problems with .animate() of opacity property - descendant remains opaque throughout

    - by Fabian
    Basically I have something like this: <ul> <li> <a> <div class="trigger-layer"></div> <div class="title-layer">Text here</div> <div class="hover-layer"></div> </a> </li> </ul> I use jQuery to animate the <ul> as follow: $ul = xxx (where I assign the selector to var $ul) $ul.animate({opacity: 0}, 1000, function() {$ul.css("display", "none")}); However in IE8, as the <ul> fades off, the <div class="title-layer">Text here</div> remains clear and opaque. Finally the animation ends, the display: none; property is applied onto the <ul> and the text disappears aburptly.

    Read the article

  • c# Why can't open generic types be passed as parameters?

    - by Rich Oliver
    Why can't open generic types be passed as parameters. I frequently have classes like: public class Example<T> where T: BaseClass { public int a {get; set;} public List<T> mylist {get; set;} } Lets say BaseClass is as follows; public BaseClass { public int num; } I then want a method of say: public int MyArbitarySumMethod(Example example)//This won't compile Example not closed { int sum = 0; foreach(BaseClass i in example.myList)//myList being infered as an IEnumerable sum += i.num; sum = sum * example.a; return sum; } I then have to write an interface just to pass this one class as a parameter as follows: public interface IExample { public int a {get; set;} public IEnumerable<BaseClass> myIEnum {get;} } The generic class then has to be modified to: public class Example<T>: IExample where T: BaseClass { public int a {get; set;} public List<T> mylist {get; set;} public IEnumerable<BaseClass> myIEnum {get {return myList;} } } That's a lot of ceremony for what I would have thought the compiler could infer. Even if something can't be changed I find it psychologically very helpful if I know the reasons / justifications for the absence of Syntax short cuts.

    Read the article

  • Silverlight Image Data Binding

    - by Alexander
    I am new to Silverlight, and have an issue with binding. I have a class ItemsManager, that has inside its scope another class Item. class ItemsManager { ... class Item : INotifyPropertyChanged { ... private BitmapImage bitmapSource; public BitmapImage BitmapSource { get { return bitmapSource; } set { bitmapSource = value; if(PropertyChanged != null )PropertyChanged("BitmapSource") } } } } I do the following in code to test binding: { ItemsManager.Instance.AddItem("123"); //Items manager started downloading item visual //part (in my case bitmap image png) Binding b = new Binding("Source"); b.Source = ItemsManager.Instance.GetItem("123").BitmapSource; b.BindsDirectlyToSource = true; Image img = new Image(); img.SetBinding(Image.SourceProperty, b); img.Width = (double)100.0; img.Height = (double)100.0; LayoutRoot.Children.Add(img); } Once image is loaded, image doesn't appear. Though, if I set directly after image has been loaded its source, it displays well. I also noticed that PropertyChanged("BitmapSource") never fires, because PropertyChanged is null, like Image never binded to it. I am looking forward to hearing from you!

    Read the article

  • Call event from original thread ??

    - by user311883
    Hi all, Here is my problem, I have a class which have a object who throw an event and in this event I throw a custom event from my class. But unfortunately the original object throw the event from another thread and so my event is also throw on another thread. This cause a exception when my custom event try to access from controls. Here is a code sample to better understand : class MyClass { // Original object private OriginalObject myObject; // My event public delegate void StatsUpdatedDelegate(object sender, StatsArgs args); public event StatsUpdatedDelegate StatsUpdated; public MyClass() { // Original object event myObject.AnEvent += new EventHandler(myObject_AnEvent); } // This event is called on another thread private void myObject_AnEvent(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Throw my custom event here StatsArgs args = new StatsArgs(..........); StatsUpdated(this, args); } } So when on my windows form I call try to update a control from the event StatsUpdated I get a cross thread exception cause it has been called on another thread. What I want to do is throw my custom event on the original class thread, so control can be used within it. Anyone can help me ?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519  | Next Page >