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• partial entity loading and management in silverlight / wcf ria

  - by Dan Wray

  I have a Silverlight 4 app which pulls entities down from a database using WCF RIA services. These data objects are fairly simple, just a few fields but one of those fields contains binary data of an arbitrarily size. The application needs access to this data basically asap after a user has logged in, to display in a list, enable selection etc. My problem is because of the size of this data, the load times are not acceptable and can approach the default timeout of the RIA service. I'd like to somehow partially load the objects into my local data context so that I have the IDs, names etc but not the binary data. I could then at a later point (ie when it's actually needed) populate the binary fields of those objects I need to display. Any suggestions on how to accomplish this would be welcome. Another approach which has occurred to me whilst writing this question (how often does that happen?!) is that I could move the binary data into a seperate database table joined to the original record 1:1 which would allow me to make use of RIA's lazy loading on that binary data. again.. comments welcome! Thanks.

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• SQL to get list of dates as well as days before and after without duplicates

  - by Nathan Koop

  I need to display a list of dates, which I have in a table SELECT mydate AS MyDate, 1 AS DateType FROM myTable WHERE myTable.fkId = @MyFkId; Jan 1, 2010 - 1 Jan 2, 2010 - 1 Jan 10, 2010 - 1 No problem. However, I now need to display the date before and the date after as well with a different DateType. Dec 31, 2009 - 2 Jan 1, 2010 - 1 Jan 2, 2010 - 1 Jan 3, 2010 - 2 Jan 9, 2010 - 2 Jan 10, 2010 - 1 Jan 11, 2010 - 2 I thought I could use a union SELECT MyDate, DateType FROM ( SELECT mydate - 1 AS MyDate, 2 AS DateType FROM myTable WHERE myTable.fkId = @MyFkId; UNION SELECT mydate + 1 AS MyDate, 2 AS DateType FROM myTable WHERE myTable.fkId = @MyFkId; UNION SELECT mydate AS MyDate, 1 AS DateType FROM myTable WHERE myTable.fkId = @MyFkId; ) AS myCombinedDateTable This however includes duplicates of the original dates. Dec 31, 2009 - 2 Jan 1, 2009 - 2 Jan 1, 2010 - 1 Jan 2, 2010 - 2 Jan 2, 2010 - 1 Jan 3, 2010 - 2 Jan 9, 2010 - 2 Jan 10, 2010 - 1 Jan 11, 2010 - 2 How can I best remove these duplicates? I am considering a temporary table, but am unsure if that is the best way to do it. This also appears to me that it may provide performance issues as I am running the same query three separate times. What would be the best way to handle this request?

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• Setting processor affinity on CSC.exe launched by CoreCompile MSBuild Task

  - by Hardy

  I am wondering if there is simple way to ensure that when a c# project is compiled the CSC.exe launched inherits the parent processor affinity settings, or perhaps of a way where by i can supply this. I have been trying to accomplish this by launching a bat file from vs.net cmd prompt like start /affinity 01 custombuild.cmd and inside my custombuild.cmd i have @echo off msbuild Libraries.sln /t:rebuild /p:Configuration=Release;platform=x64 /m:1 :END The command line call to Csc.exe this generates looks like the following C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30319\Csc.exe ... ignoring the rest for brevity. What i 'd like to see is the CSC.exe to inherit the processor affinity or a simple way to be able to override how csc.exe call is generated so i can make it into a start /affinity 01 C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30319\Csc.exe ... ignoring the rest for brevity. I also noticed that CoreCompile target is defined in Microsoft.CSharp.targets, should i be considering overriding MSBuildToolsPath variable so i can sneak in my own version. This feels rather hacky. Any help would be much appreciated.

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• Obtaining YouTube video ID in a URL and inputting selected video ID into a URL

  - by Dave

  I've been having trouble in trying to figure this out. What I am trying to do is, obtain the ID of a video from YouTube, and input the 11 character ID into the css of a div of a specific id by using jquery. I know the URL for the thumbnail of any video, but I just need to be able to change the ID to display different video thumbnails. <script> $(document).ready(function() { function(data){ videoID = data.split('www.youtube.com/v/')[1].split('&amp')[0]; $("#304817679").append(videoID); }); $("#304817679").replaceWith("<div id=\"304817679\" style=\"background: url(http://img.youtube.com/vi/"+ $.function(data) +"/0.jpg) no-repeat middle; width: 15px; height: 150px;\"></div>"); }); }); </script> <div id="304817679"> <div style="display: none;"><object width="248" height="222"><param name="movie" value="http://www.youtube.com/v/vy90n2nNRKQ&amp;rel=0&amp;egm=0&amp;showinfo=0&amp;fs=1"></param><param name="wmode" value="transparent"></param><param name="allowFullScreen" value="true"></param><embed src="http://www.youtube.com/v/vy90n2nNRKQ&amp;rel=0&amp;egm=0&amp;showinfo=0&amp;fs=1" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" width="248" height="222" allowFullScreen="true" wmode="transparent"></embed></object></div> </div> Trying to explain this better, I want the 11 Character YouTube Video ID from the embedded code, and put it into the URL of the thumbnail (http://img.youtube.com/vi/"+ function(data) +"/0.jpg). Which, would then also replace the original div (div id="304817679"). Am I on the right track with my script? I'm entirely new to this, and I would appreciate some of the help that's offered here.

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• Read from file hexadecimal number and change their representation style

  - by user576844

  I want to write a program changing the notation of all hexadecimal numbers found in an assembly source file from traditional (h) to C-style (0x). I have started the coding part but am not sure how can I detect the hexadecimal numbers and eventually change the style and save it back in the file... I have started writing the program.. ## Mips program - .data fin: .ascii "" # filename for input msg0: .asciiz "aaaa" msg1: .asciiz "Please enter the input file name:" buffer: .asciiz "" .text #----------------------- li $v0, 4 la $a0, msg1 syscall li $v0, 8 la $a0, fin li $a1, 21 syscall jal fileRead #read from file move $s1, $v0 #$t0 = total number of bytes li $t0, 0 # Loop counter loop: bge $t0, $s1, end #if end of file reached OR if there is an error in the file lb $t5, buffer($t0) #load next byte from file jal checkhexa #check for hexadecimal numbers addi $t0, $t0, 1 #increment loop counter j loop end: jal output jal fileClose li $v0, 10 syscall fileRead: # Open file for reading li $v0, 13 # system call for open file la $a0, fin # input file name li $a1, 0 # flag for reading li $a2, 0 # mode is ignored syscall # open a file move $s0, $v0 # save the file descriptor # reading from file just opened li $v0, 14 # system call for reading from file move $a0, $s0 # file descriptor la $a1, buffer # address of buffer from which to read li $a2, 100000 # hardcoded buffer length syscall # read from file jr $ra Any help would be appreciated.

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• Open a buffer as a vertical split in VIM

  - by alfredodeza

  If you are editing a file in VIM and then you need to open an existing buffer (e.g. from your buffer list: :buffers) how can you open it in a vertical split? I know that you already can open it with a normal split like: :sbuffer N Wehere N is the buffer number you want, however, the above opens that N buffer horizontally, not vertically. I'm also aware that you can change the window placement after opening and have a Vertical Split like so: Ctrl-W H Ctrl-W L Which will vertically split the window to the right or the left. It seems to me that if there is a sbuffer there should be a vsbuffer but that doesn't exist (not that I am aware of) Also, please note that I am not looking for a plugin to solve this question. I know about a wealth of plugins that will allow you to do this. I am sure I might be missing something that is already there. EDIT: In the best spirit of collaboration, I have created a simple Function with a Mapping if someone else stumbles across this issue and do not want to install a plugin: Function: " Vertical Split Buffer Function function VerticalSplitBuffer(buffer) execute "vert belowright sb" a:buffer endfunction Mapping: " Vertical Split Buffer Mapping command -nargs=1 Vbuffer call VerticalSplitBuffer(<f-args>) This accomplishes the task of opening a buffer in a right split, so for buffer 1, you would call it like: :Vbuffer 1

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• Why is a CoreData forceFetch required after a delete on the iPad but not the iPhone?

  - by alyoshak

  When the following code is run on the iPhone the count of fetched objects after the delete is one less than before the delete. But on the iPad the count remains the same. This inconsistency was causing a crash on the iPad because elsewhere in the code, soon after the delete, fetchedObjects is called and the calling code, trusting the count, attempts access to the just-deleted object's properties, resulting in a NSObjectInaccessibleException error (see below). A fix has been to use that commented-out call to performFetch, which when executed makes the second call to fetchObjects yield the same result as on the iPhone without it. My question is: Why is the iPad producing different results than the iPhone? This is the second of these differences that I've discovered and posted recently. -(NSError*)deleteObject:(NSManagedObject*)mo; { NSLog(@"\n\nNum objects in store before delete: %i\n\n", [[self.fetchedResultsController fetchedObjects] count]); [self.managedObjectContext deleteObject:mo]; // Save the context. NSError *error = nil; if (![self.managedObjectContext save:&error]) { } // [self.fetchedResultsController performFetch:&error]; // force a fetch NSLog(@"\n\nNum objects in store after delete (and save): %i\n\n", [[self.fetchedResultsController fetchedObjects] count]); return error; } (The full NSObjectInaccessibleException is: "Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSObjectInaccessibleException', reason: 'CoreData could not fulfill a fault for '0x1dcf90 <x-coredata://DC02B10D-555A-4AB8-8BC4-F419C4982794/Blueprint/p"

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• ContentControl + RenderTargetBitmap + empty image

  - by Kellls

  Im trying to create some chart images without ever displaying those charts on the screen. I'v been at this for quite a while and tried a lot of different things but nothing seems to work. The code works perfectly if I display the chart in a window first, but if I don't display it in a window, the bitmap is just white with a black border (no idea why). I have tried adding the chart to a border before rendering and giving the border a green borderBrush. In the bitmap, I see the green borderBrush then the black border and white background but no chart. I don't know where the black border is coming from as the chart is not contained in a black border. I have tried adding the chart to a window without calling window.Show() and again just the black boarder and white background. However if I call window.Show() the bitmap contains the chart. I have tried using a drawingVisual as explained here, same result. Here is the code (not including adding the element to a border or window): private static BitmapSource CreateElementScreenshot(FrameworkElement element, int dpi) { if (!element.IsMeasureValid) { Size size = new Size(element.Width, element.Height); element.Measure(size); element.Arrange(new Rect(size)); } element.UpdateLayout(); var scale = dpi/96.0; var renderTargetBitmap = new RenderTargetBitmap ( (int)(scale * element.RenderSize.Width),(int)(scale * element.RenderSize.Height),dpi,dpi,PixelFormats.Default ); // this is waiting for dispatcher to perform measure, arrange and render passes element.Dispatcher.Invoke(((Action)(() => renderTargetBitmap.Render(element))), DispatcherPriority.Render); return renderTargetBitmap; } Note: The chart is a ContentControl. Is there anyway I can get the chart to render without displaying it in a window first?

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• Why do IOExceptions occur in ReadableByteChannel.read()

  - by Steffen Heil

  Hi The specification of ReadableByteChannel.read() shows -1 as result value for end-of-stream. Moreover it specifies ClosedByInterruptExceptionas possible result if the thread is interrupted. Now I thought that would be all - and it is most of the time. However, now and then I get the following: java.io.IOException: Eine vorhandene Verbindung wurde vom Remotehost geschlossen at sun.nio.ch.SocketDispatcher.read0(Native Method) at sun.nio.ch.SocketDispatcher.read(SocketDispatcher.java:25) at sun.nio.ch.IOUtil.readIntoNativeBuffer(IOUtil.java:233) at sun.nio.ch.IOUtil.read(IOUtil.java:206) at sun.nio.ch.SocketChannelImpl.read(SocketChannelImpl.java:236) at ... I do not unterstand why I don't get -1 in this case. Also this is not a clean exception, as I cannot catch it without catching any possible IOException. So here are my questions: Why is this exception thrown in the first place? Is it safe to assume that ANY exception thrown by read are about the socket being closed? Is all this the same for write()? And by the way: If I call SocketChannel.close() do I have to call SocketChannel.socket().close() as well or is this implied by the earlier? Thanks, Steffen

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• Zend_Validate_Abstract custom validator not displaying correct error messages.

  - by Jeremy Dowell

  I have two text fields in a form that I need to make sure neither have empty values nor contain the same string. The custom validator that I wrote extends Zend_Validate_Abstract and works correctly in that it passes back the correct error messages. In this case either: isEmpty or isMatch. However, the documentation says to use addErrorMessages to define the correct error messages to be displayed. in this case, i have attached ->addErrorMessages(array("isEmpty"=>"foo", "isMatch"=>"bar")); to the form field. According to everything I've read, if I return "isEmpty" from isValid(), my error message should read "foo" and if i return "isMatch" then it should read "bar". This is not the case I'm running into though. If I return false from is valid, no matter what i set $this-_error() to be, my error message displays "foo", or whatever I have at index[0] of the error messages array. If I don't define errorMessages, then I just get the error code I passed back for the display and I get the proper one, depending on what I passed back. How do I catch the error code and display the correct error message in my form? The fix I have implemented, until I figure it out properly, is to pass back the full message as the errorcode from the custom validator. This will work in this instance, but the error message is specific to this page and doesn't really allow for re-use of code. Things I have already tried: I have already tried validator chaining so that my custom validator only checks for matches: ->setRequired("true") ->addValidator("NotEmpty") ->addErrorMessage("URL May Not Be Empty") ->addValidator([*customValidator]*) ->addErrorMessage("X and Y urls may not be the same") But again, if either throws an error, the last error message to be set displays, regardless of what the error truly is. I'm not entirely sure where to go from here. Any suggestions?

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• jQuery scrolling UL with hidden overflow

  - by papermate

  I have a UL with LI's set to display horizontally. The UL has a fixed width and it's set to hide the overflow. This is so I can display my images, which are to be used in a gallery, neatly. It works and looks nice. I want to, however, use jQuery to scroll the contents of the UL rather than set the overflow property to auto and be presented with those ugly scroll bars. I recycled some code I used to do the same thing a few weeks back but, back then, I was doing it in DIV's. Much easier, apparently. $('.gallery_container span').hover( function() { if ($(this).attr('class') == 'up') direction = '-='; else direction = '+='; var divOffset = $('ul.gallery').offset().top; $('ul.gallery').animate({scrollTop: direction + divOffset}, 5000); }, function() { $('ul.gallery').stop(); }); I saw a site that says the scrollTop property can be applied to UL's. So I'm not sure what exactly is causing this not to work. Any ideas? EDIT: Found what was causing it to not work at all but not it scrolls vertically - Kind of expected that. Is there any way to scroll it horizontally?

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• calling .ajax() from an eventHandler c# asp.ent

  - by ibininja

  Good day...! In the code behind (upload.aspx) I have an event that returns the number of bytes being streamed; and as I debug it, it works fine. I wanted to reflect the numbers returned from the eventHandler on a progress bar and this is where I got lost. I tried using jQuery's .ajax() function. this is how I implemented it: In the EventHandler in my code behind I added this code to call the .ajax() function: Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(this.GetType(), "UpdateProgress", "<script type='text/javascript'>updateProgress();</script>"); My plan is whenever the eventHandler function changes the values of bytes being streamed it calls the javascript function "updateProgress()" The .ajax() function "UpdateProgress()" is as: function updateProgress() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "upload.aspx/GetData", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", async: true, success: function (msg) { $("#progressbar").progressbar("option", "value", msg.d); } }); } I made sure that the function GetData() is [System.Web.Services.WebMethod] and that it is static as well. so the workflow of what I am trying to implement is as: - Click On Upload button - The Behind code starts executing and EventHandler triggers - The EventHandler calls .ajax() function - The .ajax() function retrieves the bytes being streamed and updates progress bar. When I ran the code; all runs well except that the .ajax() is only executed when upload is finished (and progress bar also updates only when finished upload); even though I call .ajax() function every time in the eventHandler function as reflected above... What am I doing wrong? Am I thinking of this right? is there anything else I should add maybe an updatePanel or something? thank you

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• Spring bean's DESTROY-METHOD attribute and web-application "prototype"d bean

  - by EugeneP

  Can get work the attribute "destroy-method". First, even if I type non-existing method name into "destroy-method" attribute, Spring initialization completes fine (already strange!). Next, when a bean has a "prototype" scope, then I suppose it must be destroyed before the application is closed. That not happens, it is simply never called in my case. Though, after extracting this bean I can call this method explicitly and it does its job. Could you explain why this method is never called in my Spring 2.5 case? p.s. The method exists, it is public and has no arguments. It seems to be a more difficult task then I thought. The problem is that this destroy method is called whenever the context is closed, and this is a rare case. My question is this: I have a web app. I have a "prototype"-scoped bean. What I need is when the current session is closed, this destroy method was automatically called by Spring. I can do it by hand, but is there any solution how to make Spring do this job? It destroys the bean after the session is destroyed, it might be possible for Spring to call a method on that bean before destroying it?

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• How can use the currently displayed node to filter a block-level view on that node's page?

  - by Deane

  I have parent/child relationship set up via Node Reference. A Child record can have a Parent record selected from a Node Reference field (this is optional -- I can have Parent-less Children as well). I've created a Views block to appear on the Parent pages, below the content. It's going to show a table of all the Child nodes for that Parent. Problem is, right now it shows every Child node. I need to filter it for just the Parent being displayed. What I need to be able to do is add a filter to this View to effectively say, "Only show the Child nodes that are assigned to the Parent being displayed on this page." So, somehow I need to be able to get the Nid of the currently displaying node (which will be a Parent, in all cases when this block is displayed), and use that in a filter in my View. How exactly can I do this? (Initially I used an attachment view for this (as this page instructs). I created a page view to display the Parent, then an attachment view to display all the Children, then attached that under the page view. This worked, but it was almost absurdly complicated to set up, and it was an undesirable for a number of other reasons -- primarily that my Parent now has two dedicated URLs, it's own node-level page, and the similar page created by this view.) Using Drupal 6.15.

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• Data Mappers, Models and Images

  - by James

  Hi, I've seen and read plenty of blog posts and forum topics talking about and giving examples of Data Mapper / Model implementations in PHP, but I've not seen any that also deal with saving files/images. I'm currently working on a Zend Framework based project and I'm doing some image manipulation in the model (which is being passed a file path), and then I'm leaving it to the mapper to save that file to the appropriate location - is this common practise? But then, how do you deal with creating say 3 different size images from the one passed in? At the moment I have a "setImage($path_to_tmp_name)" which checks the image type, resizes and then saves back to the original filename. A call to "getImagePath()" then returns the current file path which the data mapper can use and then change with a call to "setImagePath($path)" once it's saved it to the appropriate location, say "/content/my_images". Does this sound practical to you? Also, how would you deal with getting the URL to that image? Do you see that as being something that the model should be providing? It seems to me like that model should worry about where the images are being stored or ultimately how they're accessed through a browser and so I'm inclined to put that in the ini file and just pass the URL prefix to the view through the controller. Does that sound reasonable? I'm using GD for image manipulation - not that that's of any relevance. UPDATE: I've been wondering if the image resizing should be done in the model at all. The model could require that it's provided a "main" image and a "thumb" image, both of certain dimensions. I've thought about creating a "getImageSpecs()" function in the model that would return something that defines the required sizes, then a separate image manipulation class could carry out the resizing and (perhaps in the controller?) and just pass the final paths in to the model using something like "setImagePaths($images)". Any thoughts much appreciated :) James.

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• jQuery - Callback failing if there is no options parameter

  - by user249950

  Hi, I'm attempting to build a simple plugin like this (function($) { $.fn.gpSlideOut = function(options, callback) { // default options - these are used when no others are specified $.fn.gpSlideOut.defaults = { fadeToColour: "#ffffb3", fadeToColourSpeed: 500, slideUpSpeed: 400 }; // build main options before element iteration var o = $.extend({}, $.fn.gpSlideOut.defaults, options); this.each(function() { $(this) .animate({backgroundColor: o.fadeToColour},o.fadeToColourSpeed) .slideUp(o.SlideUpSpeed, function(){ if (typeof callback == 'function') { // make sure the callback is a function callback.call(this); // brings the scope to the callback } }); }); return this; }; // invoke the function we just created passing it the jQuery object })(jQuery); The confusion I'm having is that normally on jQuery plugins you can call something like this: $(this_moveable_item).gpSlideOut(function() { // Do stuff }); Without the options parameter, but it misses the callback if I do it like that so I have to always have var options = {} $(this_moveable_item).gpSlideOut(options, function() { // Do stuff }); Even if I only want to use the defaults. Is there anyway to make sure the callback function is called whether or not the options parameter is there? Cheers.

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• Sharing session variables from http and https versio

  - by tangurena

  I am trying to fix an ASP.NET site that a friend had botched converting from older technologies. To the user, the site appears to have public and secured sections. Behind the scenes, the public and private sites are separate web applications with separate app pools. The difficulty arises because it appears that the applications share the same session IDs (when going from the public to the secured pages, the session ID remains the same), yet none of the (InProc) session variables are getting passed from the public site to the private one. Basically, the workflow consists of the user checking a checkbox ("I agree" type of stuff) on the public site (let's call that page http://www.boring.gov/iAgree.aspx), then logging in on the secured site (let's call that page https://www.boring.gov/login.aspx). The commandments from the parent agency in DC are that the user may not bookmark the login page, the user has to click "I agree" every time they log in, and that the "I agree" stuff has to be on a separate page. What am I missing? How would you do it? Notes: 1 - This is getting hosted on a single Windows 2003 server. 2 - Yes, it is a government agency. 3 - I would have done things very differently if I was doing the conversion, but I wasn't brought in until the poop hit the fan, and it is too late to redo things. 4 - Two previous SO threads that appear to be related, yet don't apply are this and that

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• mod_rewrite with question marks and ampersands (with PHP)

  - by Chris

  I have a PHP-based web app that I'm trying to apply Apache's mod_rewrite to. Original URLs are of the form: http://example.com/index.php?page=home&x=5 And I'd like to transform these into: http://example.com/home?x=5 Note that while rewriting the page name, I'm also effectively "moving" the question mark. When I try to do this, Apache happily performs this translation: RewriteRule ^/([a-z]+)\?(.+)$ /index.php?page=$1&$2 [NC,L] But it messes up the $_GET variables in PHP. For example, a call to http://example.com/home?x=88 yields only one $_GET variable (page => home). Where did x => 88 go? However, when I change my rule to use an ampersand rather than a question mark: RewriteRule ^/([a-z]+)&(.+)$ /index.php?page=$1&$2 [NC,L] a call like http://example.com/home&x=88 will work just as I'd expect it to (i.e. both the page and x $_GET variables are set appropriately). The difference is minimal I know, but I'd like my URL variables to "start" with a question mark, if it's possible. I'm sure this reflects my own misunderstanding of how mod_rewrite redirects interact with PHP, but it seems like I should be able to do this (one way or another). Thanks in advance! Cheers, -Chris

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• Base class deleted before subclass during python __del__ processing

  - by Oddthinking

  Context I am aware that if I ask a question about Python destructors, the standard argument will be to use contexts instead. Let me start by explaining why I am not doing that. I am writing a subclass to logging.Handler. When an instance is closed, it posts a sentinel value to a Queue.Queue. If it doesn't, a second thread will be left running forever, waiting for Queue.Queue.get() to complete. I am writing this with other developers in mind, so I don't want a failure to call close() on a handler object to cause the program to hang. Therefore, I am adding a check in __del__() to ensure the object was closed properly. I understand circular references may cause it to fail in some circumstances. There's not a lot I can do about that. Problem Here is some simple example code: explicit_delete = True class Base: def __del__(self): print "Base class cleaning up." class Sub(Base): def __del__(self): print "Sub-class cleaning up." Base.__del__(self) x = Sub() if explicit_delete: del x print "End of thread" When I run this I get, as expected: Sub-class cleaning up. Base class cleaning up. End of thread If I set explicit_delete to False in the first line, I get: End of thread Sub-class cleaning up. Exception AttributeError: "'NoneType' object has no attribute '__del__'" in <bound method Sub.__del__ of <__main__.Sub instance at 0x00F0B698>> ignored It seems the definition of Base is removed before the x._del_() is called. The Python Documentation on _del_() warns that the subclass needs to call the base-class to get a clean deletion, but here that appears to be impossible. Can you see where I made a bad step?

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• PySide Qt script doesn't launch from Spyder but works from shell

  - by Maxim Zaslavsky

  I have a weird bug in my project that uses PySide for its Qt GUI, and in response I'm trying to test with simpler code that sets up the environment. Here is the code I am testing with: http://stackoverflow.com/a/6906552/130164 When I launch that from my shell (python test.py), it works perfectly. However, when I run that script in Spyder, I get the following error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "/home/test/Desktop/test/test.py", line 31, in <module> app = QtGui.QApplication(sys.argv) RuntimeError: A QApplication instance already exists. If it helps, I also get the following warning: /usr/lib/pymodules/python2.6/matplotlib/__init__.py:835: UserWarning: This call to matplotlib.use() has no effect because the the backend has already been chosen; matplotlib.use() must be called *before* pylab, matplotlib.pyplot, or matplotlib.backends is imported for the first time. Why does that code work when launched from my shell but not from Spyder? Update: Mata answered that the problem happens because Spyder uses Qt, which makes sense. For now, I've set up execution in Spyder using the "Execute in an external system terminal" option, which doesn't cause errors but doesn't allow debugging, either. Does Spyder have any built-in workarounds to this?

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• Dynamically created controls and the ASP.NET page lifecycle

  - by Dirk

  I'm working on an ASP.NET project in which the vast majority of the forms are generated dynamically at run time (form definitions are stored in a DB for customizability). Therefore, I have to dynamically create and add my controls to the Page every time OnLoad fires, regardless of IsPostBack. This has been working just fine and .NET takes care of managing ViewState for these controls. protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { base.OnLoad(e); RenderDynamicControls() } private void RenderDynamicControls(){ //1. call service layer to retrieve form definition //2. create and add controls to page container } I have a new requirement in which if a user clicks on a given button (this button is created at design time) the page should be re-rendered in a slightly different way. So in addition to the code that executes in OnLoad (i.e. RenderDynamicControls()), I have this code: protected void MyButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { RenderDynamicControlsALittleDifferently() } private void RenderDynamicControlsALittleDifferently() (){ //1. clear all controls from the page container added in RenderDynamicControls() //2. call service layer to retrieve form definition //3. create and add controls to page container } My question is, is this really the only way to accomplish what I'm after? It seems beyond hacky to effectively render the form twice simply to respond to a button click. I gather from my research that this is simply how the page-lifecycle works in ASP.NET: Namely, that OnLoad must fire on every Postback before child events are invoked. Still, it's worthwhile to check with the SO community before having to drink the kool-aid. On a related note, once I get this feature completed, I'm planning on throwing an UpdatePanel on the page to perform the page updates via Ajax. Any code/advice that make that transition easier would be much appreciated. Thanks

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• Handling Errors in PHP

  - by Mike

  I have a custom class that, when called, will redirect to a page and send a 'message_type' and 'message' variable via GET. When the page opens it checks for these variables and displays a 'success', 'warning', or 'error' message depending on the 'message_type' variable. I made it so the user thinks they stay on the same page. It also allows for other variables to be passed along with the message. Is this good practice, or should I just start using exceptions? Example: //Call a static function that will redirect to a page, with an error message RedirectWithMessage::go('somepage.php', MessageType::ERROR, 'Error message here.'); The following checkMessage() function is an include file: function checkMessage() { if((isset($_GET['message_type']) && strlen($_GET['message_type'])) && (isset($_GET['message']) && strlen($_GET['message_type']))) { DisplayMessage::display($_GET['message_type'], $_GET['message']); return true; } return false; } On the page that is redirected to, call checkMessage(); //If a message is received, display it. If not, do nothing checkMessage(); I know this might be vague, and I can supply more code if necessary. I guess the issue is that I don't have much experience using exceptions, but I think they seem cumbersome (writing try-catch blocks everywhere). Please let me know if I am making this more difficult for myself or if there is a better solution. Thanks! Mike

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• img onload doesn't work well in IE7

  - by rmeador

  I have an img tag in my webapp that uses the onload handler to resize the image: <img onLoad="SizeImage(this);" src="foo" > This works fine in Firefox 3, but fails in IE7 because the image object being passed to the SizeImage() function has a width and height of 0 for some reason -- maybe IE calls the function before it finishes loading?. In researching this, I have discovered that other people have had this same problem with IE. I have also discovered that this isn't valid HTML 4. This is our doctype, so I don't know if it's valid or not: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> Is there a reasonable solution for resizing an image as it is loaded, preferably one that is standards-compliant? The image is being used for the user to upload a photo of themselves, which can be nearly any size, and we want to display it at a maximum of 150x150. If your solution is to resize the image server-side on upload, I know that is the correct solution, but I am forbidden from implementing it :( It must be done client side, and it must be done on display. Thanks. Edit: Due to the structure of our app, it is impractical (bordering on impossible) to run this script in the document's onload. I can only reasonably edit the image tag and the code near it (for instance I could add a <script> right below it). Also, we already have Prototype and EXT JS libraries... management would prefer to not have to add another (some answers have suggested jQuery). If this can be solved using those frameworks, that would be great. Edit 2: Unfortunately, we must support Firefox 3, IE 6 and IE 7. It is desirable to support all Webkit-based browsers as well, but as our site doesn't currently support them, we can tolerate solutions that only work in the Big 3.

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• Javascript: Error 'Object Required.'

  - by javascripthelp

  The following is the error popup message I get when I click "Finalize" button on my website: "Line: 298 Char: 5 Error: Object required: 'lobi_c_selected(...)' Code: 0 URL: http://10.128.23.50/i-prostage/AP/w_ap_check_reconciliation.asp?" Normally, when I click "Finalize" button, it'll generate and show a report in a popup window. However, I'd get this error message instead. Can any of you help me locate the error in the following source code for the page that I'm running in IE 6? sub cb_finalize dim ll_loop, ll_found, lobj_c_selected of_SetHourGlass(True) rpt_link.innerHTML = "" rpt_link.href = "" 'Process only if at least one record was selected if rds1.Recordset.Recordcount 0 then lb_found = false if rds1.Recordset.Recordcount = 1 then if c_selected.checked then lb_found = true else Set lobj_c_selected = document.all.item("c_selected") for ll_loop = 1 to rds1.Recordset.Recordcount if lobj_c_selected(ll_loop - 1).checked then lb_found = true exit for end if next end if if not lb_found then msgbox "Please select a record to be posted.", vbInformation, "ProStage Accounting" of_SetHourGlass(False) else window.setTimeout "ue_process()", 100, vbscript 'Post Event end if else msgbox "There's no record to be posted." + vbcrlf + "Please select a record to be posted.", vbInformation, "ProStage Accounting" of_SetHourGlass(False) end if end sub Sub ue_process dim ll_loop, ll_count, ls_ret, ls_trxid, ls_r1 'Get only selected records redim ls_trxid(rds1.Recordset.Recordcount) for ll_loop = 1 to rds1.Recordset.Recordcount rds1.Recordset.AbsolutePosition = ll_loop if not isnull(rds1.Recordset("clrdt")) then 'Add to TRXID array if selected ll_count = ll_count + 1 ls_trxid(ll_count) = rds1.Recordset("trxid") end if next 'Process reconciliation rds1.Recordset.MarshalOptions = 1 ls_ret = iBO_Update.of_update_1(is_dbsrc, rds1.Recordset, "GLTRX", is_sql) if ls_ret < "1" then msgbox "Update Failed ! " + ls_ret, vbExclamation + vbOKonly, document.title of_SetHourGlass(False) else 'Display Posting Journal & clear screen ue_posting_journal ls_trxid, ll_count Set rds1.SourceRecordset = iBO_Company.of_validate(is_dbsrc, "SELECT 1 FROM DUAL WHERE 1 = 2") ib_query = false 'Not to process RetrieveEnd end if End Sub Sub ue_posting_journal(as_trxid, al_count) dim ll_argseq, ls_argtyp, ls_argmnt, ll_sargseq of_setreport() ' Start service 'Prepare arguments for report in RPTMSTR table for ll_loop = 1 to al_count + 1 select case ll_loop case 1 'Range displayed as report title ll_argseq = 800 ls_argtyp = null ls_argmnt = "st_title.text = 'Bank: " + bnkid_name.value + ", As of Date: " + _ of_date_stringtodate(id_trxdt) + "'" ll_sargseq = 0 case else 'TRXID array ll_argseq = 1 ll_sargseq = ll_loop - 1 ls_argtyp = "S" ls_argmnt = as_trxid(ll_loop - 1) end select of_report_register_array "d_rpt_ap_check_reconciliation_register", ll_argseq, ls_argtyp, ls_argmnt, ll_sargseq next of_report_process "d_rpt_ap_check_reconciliation_register", true, true 'Display report of_sethourglass(False) End Sub

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• How do I add a comment to an image using jQuery

  - by marcamillion

  So I am trying to replicate Facebook's picture tagging functionality, and I have the functionality that onClick, a box is created and there is a comment box. Now the issue is that I want to be able to (without doing any back-end processing) take the input from the input field and add it in some form to the underlying image area that they have selected. I would also like to add a small image to that area, that shows that a comment is there. How do I do that? See the code below for what I have for the comment box: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { var tag_box = $("<div>").appendTo("body").css({ "width": "40px", "height":"40px", "border":"4px solid #000000", "position":"absolute", "display":"none", "padding":"15px" }); var comment_box = $("<form action='#'><input id='comment' type='text' name='comment' placeholder='Add comment'></form>").appendTo(tag_box).css({"position":"absolute"}); $("#image-wrapper").live('click', function(e){ tag_box.css({ "left": e.pageX - 40, "top": e.pageY - 40, "display": "block" }) .after(comment_box.css({ "left": e.pageX - 65, "top": e.pageY + 40 })); }); }); </script> Now...whenever the user presses enter, the info in the comment box is appended to the URL like so: .html?comment=comment value# Thanks

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