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  • PHP - complete url parser help

    - by Mark
    I have been trying to find an effective url parser, php's own does not include subdomain or extension. On php.net a number of users had contributed and made this: function parseUrl($url) { $r = "^(?:(?P<scheme>\w+)://)?"; $r .= "(?:(?P<login>\w+):(?P<pass>\w+)@)?"; $r .= "(?P<host>(?:(?P<subdomain>[-\w\.]+)\.)?" . "(?P<domain>[-\w]+\.(?P<extension>\w+)))"; $r .= "(?::(?P<port>\d+))?"; $r .= "(?P<path>[\w/]*/(?P<file>\w+(?:\.\w+)?)?)?"; $r .= "(?:\?(?P<arg>[\w=&]+))?"; $r .= "(?:#(?P<anchor>\w+))?"; $r = "!$r!"; // Delimiters preg_match ( $r, $url, $out ); return $out; } Unfortunately it fails on paths with a '-' and I can't for the life of me workout how to amend it to accept '-' in the path name. Thanks

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  • How do I refer to a client_deploy.wsdd file that's in WEB-INF?

    - by Paul
    A basic question, but I can't seem to find the answer. I have an Axis-generated web service that also calls another web service (for which the stubs are also generated with Axis). It's deployed in weblogic 9.2 That called web service requires authentication. I've googled for the code to set up authentication. It requires that I set up a client_deploy.wsdd file which I've done, and added it to WEB-INF. I need to specify this flle to Axis. There seem to be several ways of doing this, including System.setProperty("axis.ClientConfigFile", "client_deploy.wsdd") or EngineConfiguration config = new FileProvider("client_deploy.wsdd"); but these aren't working for me. Is the issue the path for the client_deploy.wsdd file? How do I refer to a file that's at the top level of the WEB-INF directory? Googling tells me how to access it as a stream, but I don't want that, I need to pass a file name to these functions... Please point out the obvious that I have missed

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  • Extra NotifyIcon shown in system tray

    - by Kettch19
    I'm having an issue with an app where my NotifyIcon displays an extra icon. The steps to reproduce it are easy, but the problem is that the extra icon shows up after any of the actual codebehind we've added fires. Put simply, clicking a button triggers execution of method FooBar() which runs all the way through fine but its primary duty is to fire a backgroundworker to log into another of our apps. It only appears if this particular button is clicked. Strangely enough, we have a WndProc method override and if I step through until the extra NotifyIcon appears, it always appears during this method so something else beyond the codebehind must be triggering the behavior. Our WndProc method is currently (although I don't think it's caused by the WndProc): Protected Overrides Sub WndProc(ByRef m As System.Windows.Forms.Message) 'Check for WM_COPYDATA message from other app or drag/drop action and handle message If m.Msg = NativeMethods.WM_COPYDATA Then ' get the standard message structure from lparam Dim CD As NativeMethods.COPYDATASTRUCT = m.GetLParam(GetType(NativeMethods.COPYDATASTRUCT)) 'setup byte array Dim B(CD.cbData) As Byte 'copy data from memory into array Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.Copy(New IntPtr(CD.lpData), B, 0, CD.cbData) 'Get message as string and process ProcessWMCopyData(System.Text.Encoding.Default.GetString(B)) 'empty array Erase B 'set message result to 'true', meaning message handled m.Result = New IntPtr(1) End If 'pass on result and all messages not handled by this app MyBase.WndProc(m) End Sub The only place in the code where the NotifyIcon in question is manipulated at all is in the following event handler (again, don't think this is the culprit, but just for more info): Private Sub TrayIcon_MouseDoubleClick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.MouseEventArgs) Handles TrayIcon.MouseDoubleClick If Me.Visible Then Me.Hide() Else PositionBottomRight() Me.Show() End If End Sub The backgroundworker's DoWork is as follows (just a class call to log in to our other app, but again just for info): Private Sub LoginBackgroundWorker_DoWork(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.ComponentModel.DoWorkEventArgs) Handles LoginBackgroundWorker.DoWork Settings.IsLoggedIn = _wdService.LogOn(Settings.UserName, Settings.Password) End Sub Does anyone else have ideas on what might be causing this or how to possibly further debug this? I've been banging my head on this without seeing a pattern so another set of eyes would be extremely appreciated. :) I've posted this on MSDN winforms forums as well and have had no luck there so far either.

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  • Trouble accessing Mutable array

    - by Jared Gross
    Im having trouble with my for loop where I am trying to index user names. I am able to separate my original array into individual objects but am not able to send the value to a new array that I need to reference later on. The value and count for userNames in my self.userNamesArray = userNames; line is correct. But right after that when I log self.userNamesArray, I get (null). Any tips cause I'm not completely sure I'm cheers! .h @property (nonatomic, copy) NSMutableArray *userNamesArray; .m - (void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { self.friendsRelation = [[PFUser currentUser] objectForKey:@"friendsRelation"]; PFQuery *query = [self.friendsRelation query]; [query orderByAscending:@"username"]; [query findObjectsInBackgroundWithBlock:^(NSArray *objects, NSError *error) { if (error) { NSLog(@"Error: %@ %@", error, [error userInfo]); } else { self.friends = objects; NSArray *users = [self.friends valueForKey:@"username"]; NSLog(@"username:%@", users); //Create an array of name wrappers and pass to the root view controller. NSMutableArray *userNames = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:[self.friends count]]; for (NSString *user in users) { componentsSeparatedByCharactersInSet:charSet]; NSArray *nameComponents = [user componentsSeparatedByString:@" "]; UserNameWrapper *userNameWrapper = [[UserNameWrapper alloc] initWithUserName:nil nameComponents:nameComponents]; [userNames addObject:userNameWrapper]; } self.userNamesArray = userNames; NSLog(@"userNamesArray:%@",self.userNamesArray); [self.tableView reloadData]; } Here's the code where I need to reference the self.userNamesArray where again, it is comping up nil. - (void)setUserNamesArray:(NSMutableArray *)newDataArray { if (newDataArray != self.userNamesArray) { self.userNamesArray = [newDataArray mutableCopy]; if (self.userNamesArray == nil) { self.sectionsArray = nil; NSLog(@"user names empty"); } else { [self configureSections]; } } }

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  • Passing mix of T and T[] to a Java varargs method

    - by rfalke
    Suppose you have a Java method void foobar(int id, String ... args) and want to pass both String arrays and Strings into the method. Like this String arr1[]={"adas", "adasda"}; String arr2[]={"adas", "adasda"}; foobar(0, "adsa", "asdas"); foobar(1, arr1); foobar(2, arr1, arr2); foobar(3, arr1, "asdas", arr2); In Python there is "*" for this. Is there some way better than such rather ugly helper method: static String[] concat(Object... args) { List<String> result = new ArrayList<String>(); for (Object arg : args) { if (arg instanceof String) { String s = (String) arg; result.add(s); } else if (arg.getClass().isArray() && arg.getClass().getComponentType().equals(String.class)) { String arr[] = (String[]) arg; for (String s : arr) { result.add(s); } } else { throw new RuntimeException(); } } return result.toArray(new String[result.size()]); } which allows foobar(4, concat(arr1, "asdas", arr2));

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  • Custom PHP Framework Feedback

    - by Jascha
    I've been learning OOP programming for about a year and a half now and have developed a fairly standard framework to which I generally abide by. I'd love some feedback or input on how I might improve some functionality or if there are some things I'm overlooking. VIEW MODE 1) Essentially everything starts at the Index.php page. The first thing I do is require my "packages.php" file that is basically a config file that imports all of the classes and function lists I'll be using. 2) I have no direct communication between my index.php file and my classes, what I've done is "pretty them up" with my viewfunctions.php file which is essentially just a conduit to the classes so that in my html I can write <?php get_title('page'); ?> instead of <?php echo $pageClass->get_title('page'); ?> Plus, I can run a couple small booleans and what not in the view function script that can better tailor the output of the class. 3) Any information brought in via the database is started from it's corresponding class that has direct communication with the database class, the only class that is allowed direct to communicate with the database (allowed in the sense that I run all of my queries with custom class code). INPUT MODE 1) Any user input is sent to my userFunctions.php. 2) My security class is then instantiated where I send whatever user input that has been posted for verification and validation. 3) If the input passes my security check, I then pass it to my DB class for input into my Database. FEEDBACK I'm wondering if there are any glaringly obvious pitfalls to the general structure, or ways I can improve this. Thank you in advance for your input. I know there is real no "right" answer for this, but I imagine a couple up votes would be in order for some strong advice regarding building frameworks. -J

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  • How can I create an instance of a class that I can use is more than one place in c#

    - by user1743574
    So I've been working on a class that details students of a university. I have one button that sets the details to a new instance of a class, and another to check if the student passed, through a method in my Class. The problem is that I create an instance of a class in the first button to add the values from what the user input, but I cannot use the second button to access the instance of the class created in the first button. private void button3_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Student student1 = new Student(); label1.Text = student1.text(); if (student1.hasPassed() == true) { passfailtextbox.Text = "Pass"; } else { passfailtextbox.Text = "Fail"; } } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Student student1 = new Student(); student1.FirstName = firstnamebox.Text; student1.SecondName = secondnamebox.Text; student1.DateofBirth = DateTime.Parse(dobtextbox.Text).Date; student1.Course = coursetextbox.Text; student1.MatriculationNumber = int.Parse(matriculationtextbox.Text); student1.YearMark = double.Parse(yearmarktextbox.Text); } public Boolean hasPassed() { if (YearMark < 40) { return false; } else { return true; } } public string text() { return "Student" + " " + firstname + " " + secondname + " " + course + " " + dob.ToString() + " " + matriculationnumber.ToString() + " " + yearmark.ToString() ; }

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  • JDBC with JSP fails to insert

    - by StrykeR
    I am having some issues right now with JDBC in JSP. I am trying to insert username/pass ext into my MySQL DB. I am not getting any error or exception, however nothing is being inserted into my DB either. Below is my code, any help would be greatly appreciated. <% String uname=request.getParameter("userName"); String pword=request.getParameter("passWord"); String fname=request.getParameter("firstName"); String lname=request.getParameter("lastName"); String email=request.getParameter("emailAddress"); %> <% try{ String dbURL = "jdbc:mysql:localhost:3306/assi1"; String user = "root"; String pwd = "password"; String driver = "com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"; String query = "USE Users"+"INSERT INTO User (UserName, UserPass, FirstName, LastName, EmailAddress) " + "VALUES ('"+uname+"','"+pword+"','"+fname+"','"+lname+"','"+email+"')"; Class.forName(driver); Connection conn = DriverManager.getConnection(dbURL, user, pwd); Statement statement = conn.createStatement(); statement.executeUpdate(query); out.println("Data is successfully inserted!"); } catch(SQLException e){ for (Throwable t : e) t.printStackTrace(); } %> DB script here: CREATE DATABASE Users; use Users; CREATE TABLE User ( UserID INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, UserName VARCHAR(20), UserPass VARCHAR(20), FirstName VARCHAR(30), LastName VARCHAR(35), EmailAddress VARCHAR(50), PRIMARY KEY (UserID) );

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  • Using map() on a _set in a template?

    - by Stuart Grimshaw
    I have two models like this: class KPI(models.Model): """KPI model to hold the basic info on a Key Performance Indicator""" title = models.CharField(blank=False, max_length=100) description = models.TextField(blank=True) target = models.FloatField(blank=False, null=False) group = models.ForeignKey(KpiGroup) subGroup = models.ForeignKey(KpiSubGroup, null=True) unit = models.TextField(blank=True) owner = models.ForeignKey(User) bt_measure = models.BooleanField(default=False) class KpiHistory(models.Model): """A historical log of previous KPI values.""" kpi = models.ForeignKey(KPI) measure = models.FloatField(blank=False, null=False) kpi_date = models.DateField() and I'm using RGraph to display the stats on internal wallboards, the handy thing is Python lists get output in a format that Javascript sees as an array, so by mapping all the values into a list like this: def f(x): return float(x.measure) stats = map(f, KpiHistory.objects.filter(kpi=1) then in the template I can simply use {{ stats }} and the RGraph code sees it as an array which is exactly what I want. [87.0, 87.5, 88.5, 90] So my question is this, is there any way I can achieve the same effect using Django's _set functionality to keep the amount of data I'm passing into the template, up until now I've been passing in a single KPI object to be graphed but now I want to pass in a whole bunch so is there anything I can do with _set {{ kpi.kpihistory_set }} dumps the whole model out, but I just want the measure field. I can't see any of the built in template methods that will let me pull out just the single field I want. How have other people handled this situation?

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  • how to fetch data from Plist in Label

    - by SameSung Vs Iphone
    I have a RegistrationController screen to store email-id ,password,DOB,Height,Weight and logininController screen to match email-id and password to log-in purpose. Now In some third screen I have to fetch only the Height,Weight from the plist of the logged-in user to display it on the label.now if I Store the values of email-id and password in from LoginViewController in string and call it in the new screen to match if matches then gives Height,Weight ..if it corrects then how to fetch Height,Weight from the plist of the same one. how can i fetch from the stored plist in a string... the code which i used to match in LoginController -(NSArray*)readFromPlist { NSArray *documentPaths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [documentPaths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *documentPlistPath = [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"XYZ.plist"]; NSDictionary *dict = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithContentsOfFile:documentPlistPath]; NSArray *valueArray = [dict objectForKey:@"title"]; return valueArray; } - (void)authenticateCredentials { NSMutableArray *plistArray = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray:[self readFromPlist]]; for (int i = 0; i< [plistArray count]; i++) { id object = [plistArray objectAtIndex:i]; if ([object isKindOfClass:[NSDictionary class]]) { NSDictionary *objDict = (NSDictionary *)object; if ([[objDict objectForKey:@"pass"] isEqualToString:emailTextFeild.text] && [[objDict objectForKey:@"title"] isEqualToString:passwordTextFeild.text]) { NSLog(@"Correct credentials"); return; } NSLog(@"INCorrect credentials"); } else { NSLog(@"Error! Not a dictionary"); } } }

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  • Design issue when having classes implement different interfaces to restrict client actions

    - by devoured elysium
    Let's say I'm defining a game class that implements two different views: interface IPlayerView { void play(); } interface IDealerView { void deal(); } The view that a game sees when playing the game, and a view that the dealer sees when dealing the game (this is, a player can't make dealer actions and a dealer can't make player actions). The game definition is as following: class Game : IPlayerView, IDealerView { void play() { ... } void deal() { ... } } Now assume I want to make it possible for the players to play the game, but not to deal it. My original idea was that instead of having public Game GetGame() { ... } I'd have something like public IPlayerView GetGame() { ... } But after some tests I realized that if I later try this code, it works: IDealerView dealerView = (IDealerView)GameClass.GetGame(); this works as lets the user act as the dealer. Am I worrying to much? How do you usually deal with this patterns? I could instead make two different classes, maybe a "main" class, the dealer class, that would act as factory of player classes. That way I could control exactly what I would like to pass on the the public. On the other hand, that turns everything a bit more complex than with this original design. Thanks

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  • File IO with Streams - Best Memory Buffer Size

    - by AJ
    I am writing a small IO library to assist with a larger (hobby) project. A part of this library performs various functions on a file, which is read / written via the FileStream object. On each StreamReader.Read(...) pass, I fire off an event which will be used in the main app to display progress information. The processing that goes on in the loop is vaired, but is not too time consuming (it could just be a simple file copy, for example, or may involve encryption...). My main question is: What is the best memory buffer size to use? Thinking about physical disk layouts, I could pick 2k, which would cover a CD sector size and is a nice multiple of a 512 byte hard disk sector. Higher up the abstraction tree, you could go for a larger buffer which could read an entire FAT cluster at a time. I realise with today's PC's, I could go for a more memory hungry option (a couple of MiB, for example), but then I increase the time between UI updates and the user perceives a less responsive app. As an aside, I'm eventually hoping to provide a similar interface to files hosted on FTP / HTTP servers (over a local network / fastish DSL). What would be the best memory buffer size for those (again, a "best-case" tradeoff between perceived responsiveness vs. performance).

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  • How can I get a list of modified records from a SQL Server database?

    - by Pixelfish
    I am currently in the process of revamping my company's management system to run a little more lean in terms of network traffic. Right now I'm trying to figure out an effective way to query only the records that have been modified (by any user) since the last time I asked. When the application starts it loads the job information and caches it locally like the following: SELECT * FROM jobs. I am writing out the date/time a record was modified ala UPDATE jobs SET Widgets=@Widgets, LastModified=GetDate() WHERE JobID=@JobID. When any user requests the list of jobs I query all records that have been modified since the last time I requested the list like the following: SELECT * FROM jobs WHERE LastModified>=@LastRequested and store the date/time of the request to pass in as @LastRequest when the user asks again. In theory this will return only the records that have been modified since the last request. The issue I'm running into is when the user's date/time is not quite in sync with the server's date/time and also of server load when querying an un-indexed date/time column. Is there a more effective system then querying date/time information?

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  • Testing paginated UIScrollView on iPad

    - by Piotr Czapla
    I'm creating a magazine reader (something like iGizmo on iPad). I have two scrollviews one that paginate over articles and second to paginate inside of an article through pages. I'd like to check memory usage of my app after scrolling through 20 pages. To do so I decided to create an automated ui test that scrolls 20 times right and the check the memory foot print at the end of the test. I need that info to have some metrics before I start optimizing the memory usage And Here is the thing: I can't make the ui automation to pass to the second page. My automation code looks like that: var window = UIATarget.localTarget().frontMostApp().mainWindow(); var articleScrollView = window.scrollViews()[0]; articleScrollView.scrollRight(); // do you know any command to wait until first scrolls ends? articleScrollView.scrollRight(); // this one doesn't work I guess that I need to wait for the first scorlling to end before I can run another one, but I don't know how to do that as each page is just an image. (I don't have anything else on pages yet) Any idea?

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  • How can I split abstract testcases in JUnit?

    - by Willi Schönborn
    I have an abstract testcase "AbstractATest" for an interface "A". It has several test methods (@Test) and one abstract method: protected abstract A unit(); which provides the unit under testing. No i have multiple implementations of "A", e.g. "DefaultA", "ConcurrentA", etc. My problem: The testcase is huge (~1500 loc) and it's growing. So i wanted to split it into multiple testcases. How can organize/structure this in Junit 4 without the need to have a concrete testcase for every implementation and abstract testcase. I want e.g. "AInitializeTest", "AExectueTest" and "AStopTest". Each being abstract and containing multiple tests. But for my concrete "ConcurrentA", i only want to have one concrete testcase "ConcurrentATest". I hope my "problem" is clear. EDIT Looks like my description was not that clear. Is it possible to pass a reference to a test? I know parameterized tests, but these require static methods, which is not applicable to my setup. Subclasses of an abstract testcase decide about the parameter.

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  • C++ and its type system: How to deal with data with multiple types?

    - by sub
    "Introduction" I'm relatively new to C++. I went through all the basic stuff and managed to build 2-3 simple interpreters for my programming languages. The first thing that gave and still gives me a headache: Implementing the type system of my language in C++ Think of that: Ruby, Python, PHP and Co. have a lot of built-in types which obviously are implemented in C. So what I first tried was to make it possible to give a value in my language three possible types: Int, String and Nil. I came up with this: enum ValueType { Int, String, Nil }; class Value { public: ValueType type; int intVal; string stringVal; }; Yeah, wow, I know. It was extremely slow to pass this class around as the string allocator had to be called all the time. Next time I've tried something similar to this: enum ValueType { Int, String, Nil }; extern string stringTable[255]; class Value { public: ValueType type; int index; }; I would store all strings in stringTable and write their position to index. If the type of Value was Int, I just stored the integer in index, it wouldn't make sense at all using an int index to access another int, or? Anyways, the above gave me a headache too. After some time, accessing the string from the table here, referencing it there and copying it over there grew over my head - I lost control. I had to put the interpreter draft down. Now: Okay, so C and C++ are statically typed. How do the main implementations of the languages mentioned above handle the different types in their programs (fixnums, bignums, nums, strings, arrays, resources,...)? What should I do to get maximum speed with many different available types? How do the solutions compare to my simplified versions above?

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  • Call instance method with objc_msgSend

    - by user772349
    I'm trying to use the objc_msgSend method to call some method dynamically. Say I want call some method in Class B from Class A and there are two methods in class B like: - (void) instanceTestWithStr1:(NSString *)str1 str2:(NSString *)str1; + (void) methodTestWithStr1:(NSString *)str1 str2:(NSString *)str1; And I can call the class method like this in Class A successfully: objc_msgSend(objc_getClass("ClassB"), sel_registerName("methodTestWithStr1:str2:"), @"111", @"222"); And I can call the instance method like this in Class A successfully as well: objc_msgSend([[objc_getClass("ClassB") alloc] init], sel_registerName("instanceTestWithStr1:str2:"), @"111", @"222"); But the thing is to get a instance of Class B I have to call "initWithXXXXX:XXXXXX:XXXXXX" instead of "init" so that to pass some necessary parameters to class B to do the init stuff. So I stored a instance of ClassB in class A as variable: self.classBInstance = [[ClassB alloc] initWithXXXXX:XXXXXX:XXXXXX]; And then I call the method like this (successfully): The problem is, I want to call a method by simply applying the classname and the method sel like "ClassName" and "SEL" and then call it dynamically: If it's a class method. then call it like: objc_msgSend(objc_getClass("ClassName"), sel_registerName("SEL")); If it's a instance method, find the existing class instance variable in the calling class then: objc_msgSend([self.classInstance, sel_registerName("SEL")); So I want to know if there is any way to: Check if a class has a given method (I found "responseToSelector" will be the one) Check if a given method in class method or instance method (maybe can use responseToSelector as well) Check if a class has a instance variable of a given class So I can call a instance method like: objc_msgSend(objc_getClassInstance(self, "ClassB"), sel_registerName("SEL"));

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  • GNU Makefile: multiple outputs from single rule + preventing intermediate files from being deleted

    - by makesaurus
    This is sort of a continuation of question from link text. The problem is that there is a rule generating multiple outputs from a single input, and the command is time-consuming so we would prefer to avoid recomputation. Now there is an additional twist, that we want to keep files from being deleted as intermediate files, and rules involve wildcards to allow for parameters. The solution suggested was that we set up the following rule: file-a.out: program file.in ./program file.in file-a.out file-b.out file-c.out file-b.out: file-a.out @ file-c.out: file-b.out @ Then, calling make file-c.out creates both and we avoid issues with running make in parallel with -j switch. All fine so far. The problem is the following. Because the above solution sets up a chain in the DAG, make considers it differently; the files file-a.out and file-b.out are treated as intermediate files, and they by default get deleted as unnecessary as soon as file-c.out is ready. A way of avoiding that was mentioned somewhere here, and consists of adding file-a.out and file-b.out as dependencies of a target .SECONDARY, which keeps them from being deleted. Unfortunately, this does not solve my case because my rules use wildcard patters; specifically, my rules look more like this: file-a-%.out: program file.in ./program $* file.in file-a-$*.out file-b-$*.out file-c-$*.out file-b-%.out: file-a-%.out @ file-c-%.out: file-b-%.out @ so that one can pass a parameter that gets included in the file name, for example by running make file-c-12.out The solution that make documentation suggests is to add these as implicit rules to the list of dependencies of .PRECIOUS, thus keeping these files from being deleted. The solution with .PRECIOUS works, but it also prevents these files from being deleted when a rule fails and files are incomplete. Is there any other way to make this work?

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  • How can I initialize an ActiveX control from a URL?

    - by Peter Ruderman
    I have an MFC ActiveX control embedded in a web page. Some of the parameters for this control are very large. I don't know what these values will be at compile time, but I do know that once retrieved, they will almost certainly never change. Currently, I embed the parameters like so: <object name="MyActiveX"> <param name="param" value="<%= GetData() %>" /> </object> I want to do something like this: <object name="MyActiveX"> <param name="param" value="content/data" valuetype="ref" /> </object> The idea is that the browser would retrieve the resource from the web server and pass it on to the control. The browser's own caching would then take care of the unneccesary downloads. Unfortunately, ref parameters don't work like this. The browser just passes the url along to the control (which strikes me as utterly useless, but I digress). So, is there some way I can make this work? Alternatively, is there an easy way in MFC to instruct the control's host container to retrieve a URI identified resource? Any better ideas?

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  • CakePHP dropping session between pages

    - by DavidYell
    Hi, I have an application with multiple regions and various incoming links. The premise, well it worked before, is that in the app_controller, I break out these incoming links and set them in the session. So I have a huge beforeFilter() in my *app_controller* which catches these and sets two variables in the session. Viewing.region and Search.engine, no problem. The problem arises that the session does not seem to be persistant across page requests. So for example, going to /reviews/write (userReviews/add) should have a session available which was set when the user arrived at the site. Although it seems to have vanished! It would appear that unless $this-params is caught explicitly in the *app_controller* and a session variable written, it does not exist on other pages. So far I have tried, swapping between storing session in 'cake' and 'php' both seem to exhibit the same behaviour. I use 'php' as a default. My Session.timeout is '120', Session.checkAgent is False and Security.level is 'low'. All of which should give enough leniency to the framework to allow sessions the most room to live! I'm a bit stumped as to why the session seems to be either recreated or blanked when a new page is being requested. I have commented out the requestAction() calls to make sure that isn't confusing the session request object also, which doesn't seem to make a difference. Any help would be great, as I don't have to have to recode the site to pass all the various variables via parameters in the url, as that would suck, and it's worked before, thus switching on $this-Session-read('Viewing.region') in all my code!

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  • Sending variable data from one of two text boxes to javascript

    - by Enyalius
    Greetings, all! I am fairly new to JS (my background is in C++, enterprise languages like assembly and COBOL, and some light .NET), so I was wondering if I could get some advice regarding how to send variable information from one of two text boxes to some javascript and then have the JS do some basic checks and such. Here's the pseudocode for what I am trying to do: <form = webForm> <p> _____________ textboxPeople| searchIcon //a text box to search an online phonebook at my company. ------------- //It has a little "magnifying glass" icon to search //(onClick), but I would also like them to be able to //search by hitting the "enter" key on their keyboards. </p> <p> _____________ texboxIntranet| searchIcon //Same as above search textbox, but this one is used if ------------- //the user wishes to search my corporate intranet site. </form> So ends the front-facing basic form that I would like to use. Now, onClick or onEnter, I would like the form to pass the contents of the text box used as well as an identifier such as "People" or "Intranet," depending on which box is used, to some basic JS on the back end: begin JavaScript: if(identifier = 'People') fire peopleSearch(); else if(identifier = 'Intranet') fire intranetSearch(); function peopleSearch() { http://phonebook.corporate.com/query=submittedValue //This will take the person //that the user submitted in the form and //place it at the end of a URL, after which //it will open said complete URL in the //same window. } function intranetSearch() { http://intranet.corporate.com/query=submittedValue //This will function in the //same way as the people search function. } end JavaScript Any thoughts/suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Thank you all in advance!

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  • Using parameterized function calls in SELECT statements. MS SQL Server

    - by geekzlla
    I have taken over some code from a previous developer and have come across this SQL statement that calls several SQL functions. As you can see, the function calls in the select statement pass a parameter to the function. How does the SQL statement know what value to replace the variable with? For the below sample, how does the query engine know what to replace nDeptID with when it calls, fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID)? nDeptID IS a column in table Note. SELECT STATEMENT: SELECT nCustomerID AS [Customer ID], nJobID AS [Job ID], dbo.fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) AS Department, nJobTaskID AS JobTaskID, dbo.fn_SelDeptTaskDesc_OpenTask(nJobID, nJobTaskID) AS Task, nStandardNoteID AS StandardNoteID, dbo.fn_SelNoteTypeDesc(nNoteID) AS [Note Type], dbo.fn_SelGPAStandardNote(nStandardNoteID) AS [Standard Note], nEntryDate AS [Entry Date], nUserName as [Added By], nType AS Type, nNote AS Note FROM Note WHERE nJobID = 844261 xORDER BY nJobID, Task, [Entry Date] ====================== Function fn_SelDeptName_DeptID: ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[fn_SelDeptName_DeptID] (@iDeptID int) RETURNS varchar(25) -- Used by DataCollection for Job Tracking -- if the Deptartment isnt found return an empty string BEGIN -- Return the Department name for the given DeptID. DECLARE @strDeptName varchar(25) IF @iDeptID = 0 SET @strDeptName = '' ELSE BEGIN SET @strDeptName = (SELECT dName FROM Department WHERE dDeptID = @iDeptID) IF (@strDeptName IS NULL) SET @strDeptName = '' END RETURN @strDeptName END ========================== Thanks in advance.

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  • How to strongly type properties in JavaScript that map to models in C# ?

    - by Roberto Sebestyen
    I'm not even sure if I worded the question right, but I'll try and explain as clearly as possible with an example: In the following example scenario: 1) Take a class such as this: public class foo { public string firstName {get;set;} public string lastName {get;set} } 2) Serialize that into JSON, pass it over the wire to the Browser. 3) Browser de-serializes this and turns the JSON into a JavaScript object so that you can then access the properties like this: var foo = deSerialize("*******the JSON from above**************"); alert(foo.firstName); alert(foo.lastName); What if now a new developer comes along working on this project decides that firstName is no longer a suitable property name. Lets say they use ReSharper to rename this property, since ReSharper does a pretty good job at finding (almost) all the references to the property and renaming them appropriately. However ReSharper will not be able to rename the references within the JavaScript code (#3) since it has no way of knowing that these also really mean the same thing. Which means the programmer is left with the responsibility of manually finding these references and renaming those too. The risk is that if this is forgotten, no one will know about this error until someone tests that part of the code, or worse, slip through to the customer. Back to the actual question: I have been trying to think of a solution to this to some how strongly type these property names when used in javascript, so that a tool like ReSharper can successfully rename ALL usages of the property? Here is what I have been thinking for example (This would obviously not work unless i make some kind of static properties) var foo = deSerialize("*******the JSON from above**************"); alert(foo.<%=foo.firstName.GetPropertyName()%>) alert(foo.<%=foo.lastName.GetPropertyName()%>) But that is obviously not practical. Does anyone have any thoughts on this? Thanks, and kudos to all of the talented people answering questions on this site.

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  • C#: Determine Type for (De-)Serialization

    - by dbemerlin
    Hi, i have a little problem implementing some serialization/deserialization logic. I have several classes that each take a different type of Request object, all implementing a common interface and inheriting from a default implementation: This is how i think it should be: Requests interface IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class DefaultRequest : IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class LoginRequest : DefaultRequest { public String User {get;set;} public String Pass {get;set;} } Handlers interface IHandler<T> { public Type GetRequestType(); public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request); } class DefaultHandler<T> : IHandler<T> // Used as fallback if the handler cannot be determined { public Type GetRequestType() { return /* ....... how to get the Type of T? ((new T()).GetType()) ? .......... */ } public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request) { /* ... */ } } class LoginHandler : DefaultHandler<LoginRequest> { public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel mode, LoginRequest request) { } } Calling class Controller { public ProcessRequest(String action, String serializedRequest) { IHandler handler = GetHandlerForAction(action); IRequest request = serializer.Deserialize<handler.GetRequestType()>(serializedRequest); handler(this.Model, request); } } Is what i think of even possible? My current Solution is that each handler gets the serialized String and is itself responsible for deserialization. This is not a good solution as it contains duplicate code, the beginning of each HandleRequest method looks the same (FooRequest request = Deserialize(serializedRequest); + try/catch and other Error Handling on failed deserialization). Embedding type information into the serialized Data is not possible and not intended. Thanks for any Hints.

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  • .Net SQL Parameter for String List Problem

    - by JK
    I am writing a C# program in which I send a query to SQL Server to be processed and a dataset returns. I am using parameters to pass information to the query before it is sent to SQL server. This works fine except in the situation below. The query looks like this: reportQuery = " Select * From tableName Where Account_Number in (@AccountNum); and Account_Date = @AccountDate "; The AccountDate parameter works find but not the AccountNum parameter. I need the final query to execute like this: Select * From tableName Where Account_Number in ('AX3456','YZYL123','ZZZ123'); and Account_Date = '1-Jan-2010' The problem is that I have these account numbers (actually text) in a C# string list. To feed it to the parameter, I have been declaring the parameter as a string. I turn the list into one string and feed it to the parameter. I think the problem is that I am feeding the paramater this: "'AX3456','YZYL123','ZZZ123'" when it wants this 'AX3456','YZYL123','ZZZ123' How do I get the string list into the query using a parameter and have it execute as shown above? This is how I am declaring and assigning the parameter. SqlParameter AccountNumsParam = new SqlParameter(); AccountNumsParam.ParameterName = "@AccountNums"; AccountNumsParam.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.NVarChar; AccountNumsParam.Value = AccountNumsString; FYI, AccountNumString == "'AX3456','YZYL123','ZZZ123'"

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