Search Results

Search found 14531 results on 582 pages for 'proxy pass'.

Page 516/582 | < Previous Page | 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520 521 522 523  | Next Page >

  • JQuery to PHP function and back Ajaxed

    - by Xaris
    Hi all, i have a set of php function that i want to call on different events mostly onclick with jquery async (ajax). The first function is called on load $(document).ready(function() { $("#div2").hide('slow'); $("#div1").empty().html('<img src="ajax-loader.gif" />'); $.ajax( { type: "POST", url: "WebFunctions.php", data: {'func':'1'}, success: function(html) { $("#div1").show('slow').html(html) } }); The Data: {'func':'1'} -- is a switch statement on the php side switch($_POST['func']) { case '1': getParents(); break; case '2': getChilds(params); break; case '3': getChildObjects(params); break; default: } "This functions are calls to a soap server" <-- irrelevant. So when that function finishes i get an array which contains IDs and Names. I echo the names but i want the ID for reference so when i click on the echoed name i can call an other php function with parameter the ID of the name... How do i get rid of the switch statement?? How do i call properly php functions and pass params to it??? How can i save this IDs so when i click on an item with that id an other php function is called?? Plz feel free to ask any question, any answer is welcome :)

    Read the article

  • Angular throws "Error: Invalid argument." in IE

    - by przno
    I have a directive which takes element's text and places wbr elements after every 10th character. I'm using it for example on table cells with long text (e.g. URLs), so it does not span over the table. Code of the directive: myApp.directive('myWbr', function ($interpolate) { return { restrict: 'A', link: function (scope, element, attrs) { // get the interpolated text of HTML element var expression = $interpolate(element.text()); // get new text, which has <wbr> element on every 10th position var addWbr = function (inputText) { var newText = ''; for (var i = 0; i < inputText.length; i++) { if ((i !== 0) && (i % 10 === 0)) newText += '<wbr>'; // no end tag newText += inputText[i]; } return newText; }; scope.$watch(function (scope) { // replace element's content with the new one, which contains <wbr>s element.html(addWbr(expression(scope))); }); } }; }); Works fine except in IE (I have tried IE8 and IE9), where it throws an error to the console: Error: Invalid argument. Here is jsFiddle, when clicking on the button you can see the error in console. So obvious question: why is the error there, what is the source of it, and why only in IE? (Bonus question: how can I make IE dev tools to tell me more about error, like the line from source code, because it took me some time to locate it, Error: Invalid argument. does not tell much about the origin.) P.S.: I know IE does not know the wbr at all, but that is not the issue. Edit: in my real application I have re-written the directive to not to look on element's text and modify that, but rather pass the input text via attribute, and works fine now in all browsers. But I'm still curious why the original solution was giving that error in IE, thus starting the bounty.

    Read the article

  • MS 70-536 .NET Framework Foundation - info on Exam? Especially regex?

    - by Sebastian P.R. Gingter
    Hi, I know there are already some questions about this, but not that specific. I have the self-paced training kit and worked through the test exam tool that is on the CD coming with the book. I constantly fail on the test tool, mostly on the regex questions. I'm not a regex guru. In fact my regex-fu is more than weak. I know what regex'es are, how I can use them and where my 'Regular expressions - kurz und gut' book is in my drawer in case I really need them. And to be honest I feel like learning regex is a total waste of time, because if I need them I have either a colleague that is fit and can do them in just a few seconds or I need my book and get them right in a still fair amount of time. And from my experience I can tell that I need regex like once in two or three years. So just putting in a lot of time into learning just the expressions to pass the exam is.. something I like not to have to do. Can you tell me something about the real exam vs. the test exam tool on the book and about the need to know regex for passing it? Thank you for your time. Marked as Community Wiki. Hope that fits?

    Read the article

  • Get parameter values from method at run time

    - by Landin Martens
    I have the current method example: public void MethodName(string param1,int param2) { object[] obj = new object[] { (object) param1, (object) param2 }; //Code to that uses this array to invoke dynamic methods } Is there a dynamic way (I am guessing using reflection) that will get the current executing method parameter values and place them in a object array? I have read that you can get parameter information using MethodBase and MethodInfo but those only have information about the parameter and not the value it self which is what I need. So for example if I pass "test" and 1 as method parameters without coding for the specific parameters can I get a object array with two indexes { "test", 1 }? I would really like to not have to use a third party API, but if it has source code for that API then I will accept that as an answer as long as its not a huge API and there is no simple way to do it without this API. I am sure there must be a way, maybe using the stack, who knows. You guys are the experts and that is why I come here. Thank you in advance, I can't wait to see how this is done. EDIT It may not be clear so here some extra information. This code example is just that, an example to show what I want. It would be to bloated and big to show the actual code where it is needed but the question is how to get the array without manually creating one. I need to some how get the values and place them in a array without coding the specific parameters.

    Read the article

  • Core Data combined Query

    - by Chris Summer
    Hey, i have question related to CoreData. My iphone project has 2 Entities, Organisation and Brand with a 1 to many "BrandsToOrg" relationship and inverse. So my project has a Mapview, where you can see all the Organisations and a little subview when you click on those Organisations.At the subview there is a "show Brands" Button, which should init a new TableView who only shows the brands belong to the seleceted organisation. Any ideas how i can code that? thx NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat: @"(TitleMedium == %@)",@"Rock Antenne"];???? NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:self.entityName inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [request setEntity:entity]; // If a predicate was passed, pass it to the query if(predicate != nil) { [request setPredicate:predicate]; } // If a sort key was passed, use it for sorting. NSString *sortKey=@"TitleMedium"; BOOL sortAscending=YES; if(sortKey != nil) { NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:sortKey ascending:sortAscending]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [sortDescriptors release]; [sortDescriptor release]; } NSError *error; NSMutableArray *mutableFetchResults = [[managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:&error] mutableCopy]; [request release]; [self setEntityArray:mutableFetchResults];

    Read the article

  • Best way to not update empty posts

    - by user1533106
    Hello, Im using codeigniter, and the page in case just update infos about an user. If the user go to the page and edit values and that posts come as "" or empty (samething) then no update it let the query pass it, i got a logic but its a bit ugly and ill take alot of time. $nome = "'nome' =>" . $this->input->post('nome') . "'"; $sobrenome = "'sobrenome' =>" . $this->input->post('sobrenome') . "'"; if($nome != ""){ $nome = "'nome' =>" . $this->input->post('nome') . "'"; }else{ $nome = ""; } if($sobrenome != ""){ $sobrenome = "'sobrenome' =>" . $this->input->post('sobrenome') . "'"; }else{ $sobrenome = ""; } $data = array($nome, $sobrenome); The problem is, i got alot of fields :( If anyone know a smart way or a better way, please i want know

    Read the article

  • How to strongly type properties in JavaScript that map to models in C# ?

    - by Roberto Sebestyen
    I'm not even sure if I worded the question right, but I'll try and explain as clearly as possible with an example: In the following example scenario: 1) Take a class such as this: public class foo { public string firstName {get;set;} public string lastName {get;set} } 2) Serialize that into JSON, pass it over the wire to the Browser. 3) Browser de-serializes this and turns the JSON into a JavaScript object so that you can then access the properties like this: var foo = deSerialize("*******the JSON from above**************"); alert(foo.firstName); alert(foo.lastName); What if now a new developer comes along working on this project decides that firstName is no longer a suitable property name. Lets say they use ReSharper to rename this property, since ReSharper does a pretty good job at finding (almost) all the references to the property and renaming them appropriately. However ReSharper will not be able to rename the references within the JavaScript code (#3) since it has no way of knowing that these also really mean the same thing. Which means the programmer is left with the responsibility of manually finding these references and renaming those too. The risk is that if this is forgotten, no one will know about this error until someone tests that part of the code, or worse, slip through to the customer. Back to the actual question: I have been trying to think of a solution to this to some how strongly type these property names when used in javascript, so that a tool like ReSharper can successfully rename ALL usages of the property? Here is what I have been thinking for example (This would obviously not work unless i make some kind of static properties) var foo = deSerialize("*******the JSON from above**************"); alert(foo.<%=foo.firstName.GetPropertyName()%>) alert(foo.<%=foo.lastName.GetPropertyName()%>) But that is obviously not practical. Does anyone have any thoughts on this? Thanks, and kudos to all of the talented people answering questions on this site.

    Read the article

  • how to call array values based on the main id they linked to?

    - by veronica george
    In page one, $add_id2=implode(',',$add_id); //result is 1,4 $item_type2=implode(',',$item_type_2); //result is 8,16 $final_total2=implode(',',$final); //result is 150,430 I pass these values via URL to the page two and store them in session. $_SESSION['cart'][$car]= array ('car'=>$car, 'loc_1'=>$location, array ( 'addon_id'=>$a_id, 'item_type'=>$item_type2, 'final_total'=>$final_t ) ); I call them like this, foreach($_SESSION['cart'] as $cart=>$things) { //display main array value like car id and location id echo $cart; foreach($things as $thing_1=>$thing_2) { foreach($thing_2['addon_id'] as $thi_2=>$thi_4) { //to display addons item for the car id //this is the id for each addon under the above car //echo $thi_2; //this is to echo addon id $thi_4; } } } The above loop works . the addon items array loops through inside main array which is car. If there were two addon items chosen then the addon array will loop twice. Now al I need to do is, How to make $item_type2 and $final_total2 display the value according to the addon id? PS: Same addon items can be chosen multiple times. They are identified uniquely by id(//echo $thi_2;). Thanks.

    Read the article

  • jsf custom control strange behaviour

    - by Cristian Boariu
    hi, I have a jsf custom control which contains this: <rich:column> <c:if test="#{not empty columnTitle}"> <f:facet name="header"> <rich:spacer/> </f:facet> </c:if> <s:link view="#{view}" value="#{messages['edit']}" propagation="#{propagation}"> <f:param name="${paramName}" value="${paramValue}"/> </s:link> &#160; <h:commandLink action="#{entityHome.removeMethodName(entity)}" value="#{messages['remove']}"/> </rich:column> You see that command link action. I want it to call an action like this: action="#{documentHome.removeProperty(property)"} Well, in order to do this i call the control like: <up:columnDetails view="/admin/property.xhtml" columnTitle="yes" entity="#{property}" paramValue="#{property.propertyId}" propagation="nest" entityHome="documentHome" removeMethodName="removeProperty"/> So, i hardcode entityHome and removeMethodName. Well an error is firing. Caused by javax.servlet.ServletException with message: "#{entityHome.removeMethodName(entity)}: javax.el.MethodNotFoundException It seems that it cannot interpret "removeMethodName". If i print entityHome or removeMethodName it correctly shows the values i pass. But i think jsf has an error like not beeing able to "believe" that after an object.something, that something can be a parameter... Can anyone guide me...?

    Read the article

  • mvc design in a card game

    - by Hong
    I'm trying to make a card game. some classes I have are: CardModel, CardView; DeckModel, DeckView. The deck model has a list of card model, According to MVC, if I want to send a card to a deck, I can add the card model to the deck model, and the card view will be added to the deck view by a event handler. So I have a addCard(CardModel m) in the DeckModel class, but if I want to send a event to add the card view of that model to the deck view, I only know let the model has a reference to view. So the question is: If the card model and deck model have to have a reference to their view classes to do it? If not, how to do it better? Update, the code: public class DeckModel { private ArrayList<CardModel> cards; private ArrayList<EventHandler> actionEventHandlerList; public void addCard(CardModel card){ cards.add(card); //processEvent(event x); //must I pass a event that contain card view here? } CardModel getCards(int index){ return cards.get(index); } public synchronized void addEventHandler(EventHandler l){ if(actionEventHandlerList == null) actionEventHandlerList = new ArrayList<EventHandler>(); if(!actionEventHandlerList.contains(l)) actionEventHandlerList.add(l); } public synchronized void removeEventHandler(EventHandler l){ if(actionEventHandlerList!= null && actionEventHandlerList.contains(l)) actionEventHandlerList.remove(l); } private void processEvent(Event e){ ArrayList list; synchronized(this){ if(actionEventHandlerList!= null) list = (ArrayList)actionEventHandlerList.clone(); else return; } for(int i=0; i<actionEventHandlerList.size(); ++i){ actionEventHandlerList.get(i).handle(e); } } }

    Read the article

  • Delphi static method of a class returning property value

    - by mitko.berbatov
    I'm making a Delphi VCL application. There is a class TStudent where I have two static functions: one which returns last name from an array of TStudent and another one which returns the first name of the student. Their code is something like: class function TStudent.FirstNameOf(aLastName: string): string; var i : integer; begin for i := 0 to Length(studentsArray) - 1 do begin if studentsArray[i].LastName = aLastName then begin result := studentsArray[i].FirstName; Exit; end; end; result := 'no match was found'; end; class function TStudent.LastNameOf(aFirstName: string): string; var i : integer; begin for i := 0 to Length(studentsArray) - 1 do begin if studentsArray[i].FirstName = aFirstName then begin result := studentsArray[i].LastName; Exit; end; end; result := 'no match was found'; end; My question is how can I avoid writing almost same code twice. Is there any way to pass the property as parameter of the functions.

    Read the article

  • How to easily apply a function to a collection in C++

    - by Jesse Beder
    I'm storing images as arrays, templated based on the type of their elements, like Image<unsigned> or Image<float>, etc. Frequently, I need to perform operations on these images; for example, I might need to add two images, or square an image (elementwise), and so on. All of the operations are elementwise. I'd like get as close as possible to writing things like: float Add(float a, float b) { return a+b; } Image<float> result = Add(img1, img2); and even better, things like complex ComplexCombine(float a, float b) { return complex(a, b); } Image<complex> result = ComplexCombine(img1, img2); or struct FindMax { unsigned currentMax; FindMax(): currentMax(0) {} void operator(unsigned a) { if(a > currentMax) currentMax = a; } }; FindMax findMax; findMax(img); findMax.currentMax; // now contains the maximum value of 'img' Now, I obviously can't exactly do that; I've written something so that I can call: Image<float> result = Apply(img1, img2, Add); but I can't seem to figure out a generic way for it to detect the return type of the function/function object passed, so my ComplexCombine example above is out; also, I have to write a new one for each number of arguments I'd like to pass (which seems inevitable). Any thoughts on how to achieve this (with as little boilerplate code as possible)?

    Read the article

  • Objective-C Result from a Static Method saved to class instance variable giving "EXC_BAD_ACCESS" when used.

    - by KinGBin
    I am trying to store the md5 string as a class instance variable instead of the actual password. I have a static function that will return a md5 string which I'm trying to store in an instance variable instead of the actual password. I have the following setter for my class instance variable: -(void)setPassword:(NSString *)newpass{ if(newpass != password){ password = [utils md5HexDigest:newpass]; } } This will pass back the correct md5 string and save it to the password variable in my init function: [self setPassword:pword];. If I call another instance method and try to access self.password" I will get "EXC_BAD_ACCESS". I understand that the memory is getting released, but I have no clue to make sure it stays. I have tried alloc init with autorelease with no luck. This is the md5HexDigest function getting called during the init (graciously found in another stackoverflow question): + (NSString*)md5HexDigest:(NSString*)input { const char* str = [input UTF8String]; unsigned char result[CC_MD5_DIGEST_LENGTH]; CC_MD5(str, strlen(str), result); NSMutableString *ret = [NSMutableString stringWithCapacity:CC_MD5_DIGEST_LENGTH*2]; for(int i = 0; i<CC_MD5_DIGEST_LENGTH; i++) { [ret appendFormat:@"%02x",result[i]]; } return ret; } Any help/pointers would be greatly appreciated. I would rather have the md5 string saved in memory than the actual password calling the md5 every time I needed to use the password. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Listening to PHP function calls to intercept the returned value

    - by Lansen Q
    I am working on making use of a Web Services API offered by the hosts of our internal system. I am accessing it via PHP with the built-in SOAP offering. The API session is initiated by a remote call to a function that returns some session tokens; every call to any function thereafter will return a new session token, which must accompany the next request. I have an API Client class that is doing the bulk of the work; what I would like to do is to set something up whereby any SOAP call that is made will make sure to update the API Client class' $session variable with the new session details, and then pass the data along. So far the only way I can think of doing this is creating a new class extending the SoapClient class, with a __call function wrapper to execute the function, update the new session token, and return the results nonetheless. I'm not sure that this will a) work b) be the best way to go about this. The wrapper class would be identical to making a SOAP call, and it would return an identical result, just it would update the session token before you get your result back. Thanks! Hope I explained myself properly.

    Read the article

  • Rails dealing with blank params at controller level

    - by stephenmurdoch
    I have a User model: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_secure_password # validation lets users update accounts without entering password validates :password, presence: { on: :create }, allow_blank: { on: :update } validates :password_confirmation, presence: { if: :password_digest_changed? } end I also have a password_reset_controller: def update # this is emailed to the user by the create action - not shown @user=User.find_by_password_reset_token!(params[:id]) if @user.update_attributes(params[:user]) # user is signed in if password and confirmation pass validations sign_in @user redirect_to root_url, :notice => "Password has been reset." else flash.now[:error] = "Something went wrong, please try again." render :edit end end Can you see the problem here? A user can submit a blank a password/confirmation and rails will sign them in, because the User model allows blank on update. It's not a security concern, since an attacker would still need access to a user's email account before they could get anywhere near this action, but my problem is that a user submitting 6 blank chars would be signed in, and their password would not be changed for them, which could lead to confusion later on. So, I've come up with the following solution, and I'd like to check if there's a better way of doing it, before I push to production: def update @user=User.find_by_password_reset_token!(params[:id]) # if user submits blank password, add an error, and render edit action if params[:user][:password].blank? @user.errors.add(:password_digest, "can't be blank.") render :edit elsif @user.update_attributes(params[:user]) sign_in @user redirect_to root_url, :notice => "Password has been reset." else flash.now[:error] = "Something went wrong, please try again." render :edit end end Should I be checking for nil as well as blank? Are there any rails patterns or idiomatic ruby techniques for solving this? [Fwiw, I've got required: true on the html inputs, but want this handled server side too.]

    Read the article

  • Rails: update_attribute vs update_attributes

    - by Sam
    Object.update_attribute(:only_one_field, "Some Value") Object.update_attributes(:field1 => "value", :field2 => "value2", :field3 => "value3") Both of these will update an object without having to explicitly tell AR to update. Rails API says: for update_attribute Updates a single attribute and saves the record without going through the normal validation procedure. This is especially useful for boolean flags on existing records. The regular update_attribute method in Base is replaced with this when the validations module is mixed in, which it is by default. for update_attributes Updates all the attributes from the passed-in Hash and saves the record. If the object is invalid, the saving will fail and false will be returned. So if I don't want to have the object validated I should use update_attribute. What if I have this update on a before_save, will it stackoverflow? My question is does update_attribute also bypass the before save or just the validation. Also, what is the correct syntax to pass a hash to update_attributes... check out my example at the top.

    Read the article

  • Passing null child object from parent object to a partial view

    - by Mike
    I have an object which contains models for my ASP.NET MVC web app. The Model that is being passed into the view has sub models for "gadgets" on that particular view. Each of these sub models gets passed to a partial view (gadget). The problem is when I have a null model in the view model. See example below. View Model: public class FooBarHolder() { public FooBar1 FooBar1 { get; set; } public FooBar2 FooBar2 { get; set; } } We pass FooBarHolder into the view and inside the view we make calls such as <% Html.RenderPartial("Foo", Model.FooBar1); %> <% Html.RenderPartial("Foo2", Model.FooBar2); %> Now say for instance that Model.FooBar2 was null. What I am experiencing from the strongly typed partial view is an error that says "This view expected a model of type FooBar2 but got a model of type FooBarHolder." Why is this happening instead of just passing in a null?

    Read the article

  • How to start x-axis labels(dates) from 0th position without using set_range(..)

    - by Rishi2686
    Hi there, First of all, I am really a newbie for flash charts. I have problem in using it. I am developing an app which gets values from database for chart. I have a line on chart, there are dates on x-axis starting from 0th position. I have dates 03-06-2010 and 05-06-2010 right now and may increase in future. When I set range of 1 month i.e 1st jun to 30th jun , it does not show lines but show values on y-axis. When I use range, i am not able to pass array of above two dates from database to chart, and viceversa. Here is my code-snippet can you give some hint. $x = new x_axis(); $x->set_range( mktime(0, 0, 0, 6, 1, date('Y')), // <-- min == 1st Jan, this year mktime(0, 0, 0, 6, 16, date('Y')) // <-- max == 31st Jan, this year ); $x->set_steps(86400); $labels = new x_axis_labels(); $labels->text('#date: jS, M Y#'); $labels->set_steps(86400); $labels->visible_steps(1); $labels->rotate(90); //$labels->set_labels($data_4); // date_4 is array of database values $x->set_labels($labels);

    Read the article

  • javascript unable to locate a form using the ID tag

    - by ihake
    Here's my problem: I'm trying to set up a simple mobile contact form with a captcha built in. The page I'm working on can be found here: http://m.lancasterpainting.com/contact.php I'm using the following php contact form: http://www.html-form-guide.com/contact-form/php-email-contact-form.html I want to first say that I'm not the only one to run into this problem. After googling the issue, I've found multiple people struggling with this, but no-one seems to have an answer. Now for the problem... As you can see if you visit the page, each time the page is accessed, an error appears that says "Error: couldnot get Form object contact_form". I cannot--for the life of me--figure out why the javascript can't find the form I pass it. I call the function that generates this error at the top of the page: var frmvalidator = new Validator("contact_form"); The form I'm referencing is as follows in the HTML code: <div data-role="page" data-theme="e" id="contact_form" name="contact_form" data-position="inline"> ... And the function that is called that generates the error can be found in an external .js file here: http://m.lancasterpainting.com/scripts/gen_validatorv31.js Is there something that I am simply not seeing? Why can't the javascript locate the form? Thanks so much to anyone that helps with this.

    Read the article

  • How to find sum of node's value for given depth in binary tree?

    - by masato-san
    I've been scratching my head for several hours for this... problem: Binary Tree (0) depth 0 / \ 10 20 depth 1 / \ / \ 30 40 50 60 depth 2 I am trying to write a function that takes depth as argument and return the sum of values of nodes of the given depth. For instance, if I pass 2, it should return 180 (i.e. 30+40+50+60) I decided to use breath first search and when I find the node with desired depth, sum up the value, but I just can't figure out how to find out the way which node is in what depth. But with this approach I feel like going to totally wrong direction. function level_order($root, $targetDepth) { $q = new Queue(); $q->enqueue($root); while(!$q->isEmpty) { //how to determin the depth of the node??? $node = $q->dequeue(); if($currentDepth == $targetDepth) { $sum = $node->value; } if($node->left != null) { $q->enqueue($node->left); } if($node->right != null) { $q->enqueue($node->right); } //need to reset this somehow $currentDepth ++; } }

    Read the article

  • Printing the "source" class in a log statement with a log4j wrapper

    - by Dur4ndal
    My application has a homebrew logging class that I'm migrating to using log4j under the covers. However, since I'm using the homebrew class to pass the rest of the application's logging statements to log4j, the output statements are logged as coming from the wrapper class instead of the source class. Is there a way to ensure that the "correct" source is being shown besides creating new org.apache.log4j.Logger instances for every log statement? I've also tried using the Logger.log(String callerFQCN, Priority level, Object message, Throwable t) method, but it doesnt seem to be working, for example: public class Logger2 { public static org.apache.log4j.Logger log4JLogger = org.apache.log4j.Logger.getLogger(Logger2.class); public static void warning(Object source, String message) { log(source, message, Level.WARN, null) } private static void log(Object source, String message, Level level, Throwable t) { String className = source.getClass().getName(); System.out.println("Logging class should be " + className); log4JLogger.log(className, loggingLevel, message, t); } } When called by: public void testWarning() { Logger2.warning(new Integer(3), "This should warn"); } Prints: Logging class should be java.lang.Integer 2010-05-25 10:49:57,152 WARN test.Logger2 - This should warn

    Read the article

  • how to fetch data from Plist in Label

    - by SameSung Vs Iphone
    I have a RegistrationController screen to store email-id ,password,DOB,Height,Weight and logininController screen to match email-id and password to log-in purpose. Now In some third screen I have to fetch only the Height,Weight from the plist of the logged-in user to display it on the label.now if I Store the values of email-id and password in from LoginViewController in string and call it in the new screen to match if matches then gives Height,Weight ..if it corrects then how to fetch Height,Weight from the plist of the same one. how can i fetch from the stored plist in a string... the code which i used to match in LoginController -(NSArray*)readFromPlist { NSArray *documentPaths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [documentPaths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *documentPlistPath = [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"XYZ.plist"]; NSDictionary *dict = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithContentsOfFile:documentPlistPath]; NSArray *valueArray = [dict objectForKey:@"title"]; return valueArray; } - (void)authenticateCredentials { NSMutableArray *plistArray = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray:[self readFromPlist]]; for (int i = 0; i< [plistArray count]; i++) { id object = [plistArray objectAtIndex:i]; if ([object isKindOfClass:[NSDictionary class]]) { NSDictionary *objDict = (NSDictionary *)object; if ([[objDict objectForKey:@"pass"] isEqualToString:emailTextFeild.text] && [[objDict objectForKey:@"title"] isEqualToString:passwordTextFeild.text]) { NSLog(@"Correct credentials"); return; } NSLog(@"INCorrect credentials"); } else { NSLog(@"Error! Not a dictionary"); } } }

    Read the article

  • What is the meaning of @ModelAttribute annotation at method argument level?

    - by beemaster
    Spring 3 reference teaches us: When you place it on a method parameter, @ModelAttribute maps a model attribute to the specific, annotated method parameter I don't understand this magic spell, because i sure that model object's alias (key value if using ModelMap as return type) passed to the View after executing of the request handler method. Therefore when request handler method executes the model object's name can't be mapped to the method parameter. To solve this contradiction i went to stackoverflow and found this detailed example. The author of example said: // The "personAttribute" model has been passed to the controller from the JSP It seems, he is charmed by Spring reference... To dispel the charms i deployed his sample app in my environment and cruelly cut @ModelAttribute annotation from method MainController.saveEdit. As result the application works without any changes! So i conclude: the @ModelAttribute annotation is not needed to pass web form's field values to the argument's fields. Then i stuck to the question: what is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation? If the only mean is to set alias for model object in View, then why this way better than explicitly adding of object to ModelMap?

    Read the article

  • Persisting object changes from child form to parent form based on button press.

    - by Shyran
    I have created a form that is used for both adding and editing a custom object. Which mode the form takes is provided by an enum value passed from the calling code. I also pass in an object of the custom type. All of my controls at data bound to the specific properties of the custom object. When the form is in Add mode, this works great as when the controls are updated with data, the underlying object is as well. However, in Edit mode, I keep two variables of the custom object supplied by the calling code, the original, and a temporary one made through deep copying. The controls are then bound to the temporary copy, this makes it easy to discard the changes if the user clicks the Cancel button. What I want to know is how to persist those changes back to the original object if the user clicks the OK button, since there is now a disconnect because of the deep copying. I am trying to avoid implementing a internal property on the Add/Edit form if I can. Below is an example of my code: public AddEditCustomerDialog(Customer customer, DialogMode mode) { InitializeComponent(); InitializeCustomer(customer, mode); } private void InitializeCustomer(Customer customer, DialogMode mode) { this.customer = customer; if (mode == DialogMode.Edit) { this.Text = "Edit Customer"; this.tempCustomer = ObjectCopyHelper.DeepCopy(this.customer); this.customerListBindingSource.DataSource = this.tempCustomer; this.phoneListBindingSource.DataSource = this.tempCustomer.PhoneList; } else { this.customerListBindingSource.DataSource = this.customer; this.phoneListBindingSource.DataSource = this.customer.PhoneList; } }

    Read the article

  • Visual Basic: Newbie questions.

    - by Omega
    Hello there. I am starting to learn visual basic. So far, it is quite simple and easy to use. I am liking it! Anyway, I want to make applications a little bit more complex. So far I have done very silly things. I would appreciate if you could help me with these: How do I open a new window (form)? Maybe I click a button on my main form and another form pops up. How do I "deactivate" the main form while the new form is running? (if I try to click the main form, an error sound plays) So my second form has a text field and a "OK" button. If I click it, the second form closes activating the main form again. I want to "pass" the text in the text field from the second form to the first one. How do I do that? Thank you, I am enjoying this new programming environment (didn't use Visual Studio much before)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520 521 522 523  | Next Page >