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  • Why does the entity framework need an ICollection for lazy loading?

    - by Akk
    I want to write a rich domain class such as public class Product { public IEnumerable<Photo> Photos {get; private set;} public void AddPhoto(){...} public void RemovePhoto(){...} } But the entity framework (V4 code first approach) requires an ICollection type for lazy loading! The above code no longer works as designed since clients can bypass the AddPhoto / RemovePhoto method and directly call the add method on ICollection. This is not good. public class Product { public ICollection<Photo> Photos {get; private set;} //Bad public void AddPhoto(){...} public void RemovePhoto(){...} } It's getting really frustrating trying to implement DDD with the EF4. Why did they choose the ICollection for lazy loading? How can i overcome this? Does NHibernate offer me a better DDD experience?

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  • LINQ to Entity: using Contains in the "select" portion throws unexpected error

    - by Chu
    I've got a LINQ query going against an Entity Framework object. Here's a summary of the query: //a list of my allies List<int> allianceMembers = new List<int>() { 1,5,10 }; //query for fleets in my area, including any allies (and mark them as such) var fleets = from af in FleetSource select new Fleet { fleetID = af.fleetID, fleetName = af.fleetName, isAllied = (allianceMembers.Contains(af.userID) ? true : false) }; Basically, what I'm doing is getting a set of fleets. The allianceMembers list contains INTs of all users who are allied with me. I want to set isAllied = true if the fleet's owner is part of that list, and false otherwise. When I do this, I am seeing an exception: "LINQ to Entities does not recognize the method 'Boolean Contains(Int32)' method" I can understand getting this error if I had used the contains in the where portion of the query, but why would I get it in the select? By this point I would assume the query would have executed and returned the results. This little ditty of code does nothing to constrain my data at all. Any tips on how else I can accomplish what I need to with setting the isAllied flag? Thanks

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  • Scala implicit dynamic casting

    - by weakwire
    I whould like to create a scala Views helper for Android Using this combination of trait and class class ScalaView(view: View) { def onClick(action: View => Any) = view.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener { def onClick(view: View) { action(view) } }) } trait ScalaViewTrait { implicit def view2ScalaView(view: View) = new ScalaView(view) } I'm able to write onClick() like so class MainActivity extends Activity with ScalaViewTrait { //.... val textView = new TextView(this) textView.onClick(v => v.asInstanceOf[TextView] setText ("asdas")) } My concern is that i want to avoid casting v to TextView v will always be TextView if is applied to a TextView LinearLayout if applied to LinearLayout and so on. Is there any way that v gets dynamic casted to whatever view is applied? Just started with Scala and i need your help with this. UPDATE With the help of generics the above get's like this class ScalaView[T](view: View) { def onClick(action: T => Any) = view.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener { def onClick(view: View) { action(view.asInstanceOf[T]) } }) } trait ScalaViewTrait { implicit def view2ScalaView[T](view: View) = new ScalaView[T](view) } i can write onClick like this view2ScalaView[TextView](textView) .onClick(v => v.setText("asdas")) but is obvious that i don't have any help from explicit and i moved the problem instead or removing it

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  • How to render a POST and make it show up on another page

    - by stack5914
    I'm trying to create a marketplace website similar to craigslist. I created a form according to the Django tutorial "Working with forms", but I don't know how to render information I got from the POST forms. I want to make information(subject,price...etc) that I got from POST show up on another page like this. http://bakersfield.craigslist.org/atq/3375938126.html and, I want the "Subject"(please look at form.py) of this product(eg.1960 French Chair) to show up on another page like this. http://bakersfield.craigslist.org/ata/ } Can I get some advice to handle submitted information? Here's present codes. I'll appreciate all your answers and helps. <-! Here's my codes -- ?forms.py from django import forms class SellForm(forms.Form): subject = forms.CharField(max_length=100) price = forms.CharField(max_length=100) condition = forms.CharField(max_length=100) email = forms.EmailField() body = forms.TextField() ?views.py from django.shortcuts import render, render_to_response from django.http import HttpResponseRedirect from site1.forms import SellForm def sell(request): if request.method =="POST": form =SellForm(request.POST) if form.is_valid(): subject = form.cleaned_data['subject'] price = form.cleaned_data['price'] condition = form.cleaned_data['condition'] email = form.cleaned_data['email'] body = form.cleaned_data['body'] return HttpResponseRedirect('/books/') else: form=SellForm() render(request, 'sell.html',{'form':form,}) ?urls.py from django.conf.urls import patterns, include, url from django.contrib import admin admin.autodiscover() urlpatterns = patterns('', url(r'^sechand/$','site1.views.sell'), url(r'^admin/', include(admin.site.urls)), ) ?sell.html <form action = "/sell/" method = "post">{% csrf_token%} {{ form.as_p }} <input type = "submit" value="Submit" /> </form>

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  • Can't get jQuery to wokr with Prototype - tried everything....

    - by thinkfuture
    Ok so here is the situation. Been pulling my hair out on this one. I'm a noob at this. Only been using rails for about 6 weeks. I'm using the standard setup package, and my code leverages prototype helpers heavily. Like I said, noob ;) So I'm trying to put in some jQuery effects, like PrettyPhoto. But what happens is that when the page is first loaded, PrettyPhoto works great. However, once someone uses a Prototype helper, like a link created with link_to_remote, Prettyphoto stops working. I've tried jRails, all of the fixes proposed on the JQuery site to stop conflicts... http://docs.jquery.com/Using_jQuery_with_Other_Libraries ...even done some crazy things likes renaming all of the $ in prototype.js to $$$ to no avail. Either the prototype helpers break, or jQuery breaks. Seems nothing I do can get these to work together. Any ideas? Here is part of my application.html.erb <%= javascript_include_tag 'application' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'tooltip' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'jquery' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'jquery-ui' %> <%= javascript_include_tag "jquery.prettyPhoto" %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'prototype' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'scriptalicious' %> </head> <body> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> jQuery(document).ready( function() { jQuery("a[rel^='prettyPhoto']").prettyPhoto(); }); </script> If I put prototype before jquery, the prototype helpers don't work If I put the noconflict clause in, neither works. Thanks in advance! Chris

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  • Javascript CS-PRNG - 64-bit random

    - by Jack
    Hi, I need to generate a cryptographically secure 64-bit unsigned random integer in Javascript. The first problem is that Javascript only allows 64-bit signed integers, so 9223372036854775808 is the biggest supported integer without going into floating point use I think? To fix this I can use a big number library, no problem. My Method: var randNum = SHA256( randBigInt(128, 0) ) % 2^64; Where SHA256() is a secure hash function and randBigInt() is defined below as a non-crypto PRNG, im giving it a 128bit seed so brute force shouldn't be a problem. randBigInt(n,s) //return an n-bit random BigInt (n>=1). If s=1, then the most significant of those n bits is set to 1. Is this a secure method to generate a cryptographically secure 64-bit random int? And importantly does taking the 2^64 mod guarantee 100% I have a 64-bit number? An abstract example, say this number is prime (it isn't i know), I will use it in the Galois Field [2^p], where p must be 64bits so that every possible 1-63bit number is a field element. In this query, my random int must be larger than any 63-bit number. And Im not sure im correct in taking the 2^64 mod of a 256bit hash output. Thanks (hope that makes sense)

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  • Cannot overload function

    - by anio
    So I've got a templatized class and I want to overload the behavior of a function when I have specific type, say char. For all other types, let them do their own thing. However, c++ won't let me overload the function. Why can't I overload this function? I really really do not want to do template specialization, because then I've got duplicate the entire class. Here is a toy example demonstrating the problem: http://codepad.org/eTgLG932 The same code posted here for your reading pleasure: #include <iostream> #include <cstdlib> #include <string> struct Bar { std::string blah() { return "blah"; } }; template <typename T> struct Foo { public: std::string doX() { return m_getY(my_t); } private: std::string m_getY(char* p_msg) { return std::string(p_msg); } std::string m_getY(T* p_msg) { return p_msg->blah(); } T my_t; }; int main(int, char**) { Foo<char> x; Foo<Bar> y; std::cout << "x " << x.doX() << std::endl; return EXIT_SUCCESS; } Thank you everyone for your suggestions. Two valid solutions have been presented. I can either specialize the doX method, or specialize m_getY() method. At the end of the day I prefer to keep my specializations private rather than public so I'm accepting Krill's answer.

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  • iPhone: Calling dealloc on parentViewController causes an exception

    - by arielcamus
    Hi, I'm dealing with viewDidUnload and dealloc methods and I've founded a problem when calling [super dealloc]; in parent view controller. I have a lot of view controllers with custom code which I have putted outside on a parent view controller. So, when defining my view controllers I set a reference to the super class: @interface LoginViewController : AbstractViewController Then, at the dealloc method I call the AbstractViewController dealloc method: //(Login View Controller code) - (void)dealloc { [user release]; [passwd release]; [super dealloc]; } [super dealloc] execute the following code: //(Abstract View Controller code) - (void)dealloc { [dbUtils release]; [loadingView release]; [super dealloc]; } If I simulate a memory warning on iPhone Simulator, the following exception is thrown: 2010-03-03 11:27:45.805 MyApp[71563:40b] Received simulated memory warning. 2010-03-03 11:27:45.808 MyApp[71563:40b] *** -[LoginViewController isViewLoaded]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x13b51b0 kill quit However, if I comment the [super dealloc] line in AbstractViewController the exception is not thrown and my app still running. Thank you for your help once again!

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  • rails delete_all exception

    - by Sergei
    Hello, guys! I have some User model, Role model and Assignment model to manage role-based user system. Just like here . So, here some kind of code, to include roles into users form: <% for role in Role.all %> <%= check_box_tag "user[role_ids][]", role.id, @user.roles.include?(role) %> <%=h role.name %><br /> <% end %> And all's working fine for new records and for editing records. But I just want to make possible to restrict deleting Assigment with id=1, cause this Assignment for default root user from migration, who must be admin anyway. Otherwise, I can lose my last admin. So I've tryed to add before_destroy to Assignment.rb model, but it doesn't work. I've noticed, that when I'm editing user and trying to remove his admin role(assignment), the server makes a delete_all method, not destroy method. So, does anybody know how to catch the deleting of Assignment with id=1 through this kind of code? Thanks in advance!

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  • Permission issue when webservice deployed as virtual directory.Works in VS IDE

    - by Shyju
    I have an ASP.NET web service which will create a text file in a path which is being passed as a parameter to the method. private void CreateFile(string path) { string strFileName = path; StreamWriter sw = new StreamWriter(strFileName, true); sw.WriteLine(""); sw.Write("Created at " + DateTime.Now.ToString()); sw.Close(); } Now I am passing a folder in the network as the parameter and calling the method CreateFile(@"\\192.168.0.40\\labels\\test.txt"); When running the code from the Visual studio IDE,the file is getting created in the path.But when i published this and deployed as a virtual directoty,Its throwing me some error like "System.UnauthorizedAccessException: Access to the path '\\192.168.0.40\labels\test.txt' is denied. at System.IO.__Error.WinIOError(Int32 errorCode, String maybeFullPath) at System.IO.FileStream.Init(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, Int32 rights, Boolean useRights, FileShare share, Int32 bufferSize, FileOptions options, SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES secAttrs, String msgPath, Boolean bFromProxy) at System.IO.FileStream..ctor(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, FileShare share, Int32 bufferSize, FileOptions options) at System.IO.StreamWriter.CreateFile(String path, Boolean append) at System.IO.StreamWriter..ctor(String path, Boolean append, Encoding encoding, Int32 bufferSize) at System.IO.StreamWriter..ctor(String path, Boolean append) I have in my web.config.My machine is running in XP and the other is in Windows Server 2003 Any idea to solve this ?? Thanks in advance

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  • Initialize child models at model creation

    - by Antoine
    I have a model Entree which belongs to a model Vin, which itself belongs to a model Producteur. On the form for Entree creation/edition, I want to allow the user to define the attributes for parent Vin and Producteur to create them, or retrieve them if they exist (retrieval based on user input). For now I do the following in Entree new and edit actions: @entree = Entree.new @entree.vin = Vin.new @entree.vin.producteur = Producteur.new and use fields_for helper in the form,and that works. But I intend to have much more dependencies with more models, so I want to keep it DRY. I defined a after_initialize callback in Vin model which does the producteur initialization: class Vin < ActiveRecord::Base after_initialize :vin_setup def vin_setup producteur = Producteur.new end end and remove the producteur.new from the controller. However, get an error on new action: undefined method `model_name' for NilClass:Class for the line in the form that says <%= fields_for @entree.vin.producteur do |producteur| %> I guess that means the after_initialize callback doesn't act as I expect it. Is there something I'm missing? Also, I get the same error if I define a after_initialize method in the Vin model instead of definiing a callback.

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  • How to prepare data for display on a silverlight chart using WCF RIA Services + Entity Framework

    - by Banford
    I've used WCF RIA services with Entity Framework to build a simple application which can display and updates data about school courses. This was done by following the Microsoft tutorials. Now I would like to have a chart which shows a count for how many courses are on a key stage. Example: Key Stage 3 - 20 courses Key Stage 4 - 32 courses Key Stage 5 - 12 courses Displayed on any form of chart. I have no problem binding data to the chart in XAML. My problem is that I do not know how to correct way of getting the data into that format. The generated CRUD methods are basic. I have a few thoughts about possible ways, but don't know which is correct, they are: Create a View in SQL server and map this to a separate Entity in the Entity Data Model. Generating new CRUD methods for this automatically. Customise the read method in the existing DomainService using .Select() .Distinct() etc. Don't know this syntax very well labda expressions/LINQ??? what is it? Any good quickstarts on it? Create a new class to store only the data required and create a read method for it. Tried this but didn't know how to make it work without a matching entity in the entity model. Something I am not aware of. I'm very new to this and struggling with the concepts so if there are useful blogs or documentation I've missed feel free to point me towards them. But I'm unsure of the terminology to use in my searches at the moment.

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  • Why do hoverClass and activeClass properties won't work together ?

    - by Dumb Questioner
    Why do hoverClass and activeClass properties not work together in the following example ? <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://jqueryui.com/latest/jquery-1.4.2.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://jquery-ui.googlecode.com/svn/tags/1.8rc1/ui/jquery-ui.js"></script> <style type="text/css"> .draggable {width:100px; height:100px; padding-bottom:5px; background-color:#dddddd;} #dropBox {width:556px; height:400px; } .sameStylePrecedenceAsDropHoverAndActive {background-color:#ff4490;} .drop-hover {background-color: #ff8040; } .drop-active {background-color: #ffffff; } </style> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('.draggable').draggable({ helper: 'clone' }); $('#dropBox').droppable({ accept: '.draggable', activeClass: 'drop-active', hoverClass: 'drop-hover', drop: function(event, ui) { alert("Dropped!"); } }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="dropBox" class="sameStylePrecedenceAsDropHoverAndActive"></div> <div class="draggable">asd</div> </body> </html>

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  • How to specify allowed exceptions in WCF's configuration file?

    - by tucaz
    Hello! I´m building a set of WCF services for internal use through all our applications. For exception handling I created a default fault class so I can return treated message to the caller if its the case or a generic one when I have no clue what happened. Fault contract: [DataContract(Name = "DefaultFault", Namespace = "http://fnac.com.br/api/2010/03")] public class DefaultFault { public DefaultFault(DefaultFaultItem[] items) { if (items == null || items.Length== 0) { throw new ArgumentNullException("items"); } StringBuilder sbItems = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i Specifying that my method can throw this exception so the consuming client will be aware of it: [OperationContract(Name = "PlaceOrder")] [FaultContract(typeof(DefaultFault))] [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "/orders", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Bare, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, Method = "POST")] string PlaceOrder(Order newOrder); Most of time we will use just .NET to .NET communication with usual binds and everything works fine since we are talking the same language. However, as you can see in the service contract declaration I have a WebInvoke attribute (and a webHttp binding) in order to be able to also talk JSON since one of our apps will be built for iPhone and this guy will talk JSON. My problem is that whenever I throw a FaultException and have includeExceptionDetails="false" in the config file the calling client will get a generic HTTP error instead of my custom message. I understand that this is the correct behavior when includeExceptionDetails is turned off, but I think I saw some configuration a long time ago to allow some exceptions/faults to pass through the service boundaries. Is there such thing like this? If not, what do u suggest for my case? Thanks a LOT!

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  • Do I really ned bindParam?

    - by sandelius
    Hi there! I'm trying to do a little PDO CRUD to learn some PDO. I have a question about bindParam. Here's my update method right now: public static function update($conditions = array(), $data = array(), $table = '') { self::instance(); // Late static bindings (PHP 5.3) $table = ($table === '') ? self::table() : $table; // Check which data array we want to use $values = (empty($data)) ? self::$_fields : $data; $sql = "UPDATE $table SET "; foreach ($values as $f => $v) { $sql .= "$f = ?, "; } // let's build the conditions self::build_conditions($conditions); // fix our WHERE, AND, OR, LIKE conditions $extra = self::$condition_string; // querystring $sql = rtrim($sql, ', ') . $extra; // let's merge the arrays into on $v_val = array_values($values); $c_val = array_values($conditions); $array = array_merge($v_val, self::$condition_array); $stmt = self::$db->prepare($sql); return $stmt->execute($array); } in my "self::$condition_array" I get all the right values from the ?. SO the query looks like this: UPDATE table SET this = ?, another = ? WHERE title = ? AND time = ? as you can see I dont use bindParams instead I pass the right values in the right order ($array) directly into the execute($array) method. This works like a charm BUT is it safe not use use bindParam here? If not then how can I do it? Thanks from Sweden Tobias

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  • How should I pass the translated text to my object in my multilingual application?

    - by boatingcow
    Up until now, I have maintained a 'dictionary' table in my database, for example: +-----------+---------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------+--------+ | phrase | en | fr | etc... | +-----------+---------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------+--------+ | generated | Generated in %1$01.2f seconds at %2$s | Créée en %1$01.2f secondes à %2$s aujourd'hui | ... | | submit | Submit... | Envoyer... | ... | +-----------+---------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------+--------+ I'll then select all rows from the database for the column that matches the locale we're interested in (or read the cache from a file to speed db lookup) and dump the dictionary into an array called $lng. Then I'll have HTML helper objects like this in my view: $html->input(array('type' => 'submit', 'value' => $lng['submit'], etc...)); ... $html->div(array('value' => sprintf($lng['generated'], $generated, date('H:i')), etc...)); The translations can appear in PDF, XLS and AJAX responses too. The problem with my approach so far is that I now have loads of global $lng; in every class where there is a function that spits out UI code.. How do other people get the translation into the object? Is it one scenario where globals aren't actually that bad? Would it be madness to create a class with accessors when the dictionary terms are all static?

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  • Trying to use jquery ui in google chrome extension in the content level

    - by user135697
    The problem is that the scope of the content script is on the web page that your plugin is suppose to be used at. So the css background:url(images/ui-bg_inset-hard_100_fcfdfd_1x100.png) becomes url('http://webpageforplugin/images/ui-bg_inset-hard_100_fcfdfd_1x100.png') in order for this to work as far as i understood i need to have it to point to: url('chrome-extension://extensionId/images/ui-bg_inset-hard_100_fcfdfd_1x100.png') So i tried to haxorz the document.styleSheets var ss = document.styleSheets; for (var i=0; i<ss.length; i++) { var found=-1, x,i; var rules = ss[i].cssRules || ss[i].rules; for (var j=0; j<rules.length; j++) { if ('.ui-helper-hidden'==rules[j].selectorText){ found=i; break; } } if (found>-1){ for (var j=0; j<rules.length; j++) { if (x=rules[j].style.background){ if ((i=x.indexOf('url'))!=-1) rules[j].style.background = x.replace('http://page/images/','chrome-extension://extensionId/images/'); } } break; } }; I feel that i'm missing the obvious. That there must be an easier way. Even if i manage to change this how will i get the extension id to build the string. Btw this doesn't work, the icons are not properly fetched. (I hardcoded the extension id) Any ideas?

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  • Using C# to HttpPost data to a web page

    - by druffmuff
    I want to log in into a website using C# code. Here's the html code of the example form: <form action="http://www.site.com/login.php" method="post" name="login" id="login"> <table border="0" cellpadding="2" cellspacing="0"> <tbody> <tr><td><b>User:</b></td><td colspan=\"2\"><b>Password:</b></td></tr> <tr> <td><input class="inputbg" name="user" type="text"></td> <td><input class="inputbg" name="password" type="password"></td> <td><input type="submit" name="user_control" value="Submit" class="buttonbg"></td> </tr> </tbody></table> </form> This is what I have tried so far with unsuccessful results: HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://www.site.com/login.php"); request.Method = "POST"; using (StreamWriter writer = new StreamWriter(request.GetRequestStream(), Encoding.ASCII)) { writer.Write("user=user&password=pass&user_control=Eingabe"); } HttpWebResponse response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse(); using (StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(response.GetResponseStream())) { stream = new StreamWriter("login.html"); stream.Write(reader.ReadToEnd()); stream.Close(); } Any Ideas, why this is failing?

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  • C++, function pointer to the template function pointer

    - by Ian
    I am having a pointer to the common static method class MyClass { private: static double ( *pfunction ) ( const Object *, const Object *); ... }; pointing to the static method class SomeClass { public: static double getA ( const Object *o1, const Object *o2); ... }; Initialization: double ( *MyClass::pfunction ) ( const Object *o1, const Object *o2 ) = &SomeClass::getA; I would like to convert this pointer to the static template function pointer: template <class T> static T ( *pfunction ) ( const Object <T> *, const Object <T> *); //Compile error where: class SomeClass { public: template <class T> static double getA ( const Object <T> *o1, const Object <T> *o2); ... }; But there is some error... Thanks for your help...

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  • Entity Framework 4 + POCO with custom classes and WCF contracts (serialization problem)

    - by eman
    Yesterday I worked on a project where I upgraded to Entity Framework 4 with the Repository pattern. In one post, I have read that it is necessary to turn off the custom tool generator classes and then write classes (same like entites) by hand. That I can do it, I used the POCO Entity Generator and then deleted the new generated files .tt and all subordinate .cs classes. Then I wrote the "entity classes" by myself. I added the repository pattern and implemented it in the business layer and then implemented a WCF layer, which should call the methods from the business layer. By calling an Insert (Add) method from the presentation layer and everything is OK. But if I call any method that should return some class, then I get an error like (the connection was interrupted by the server). I suppose there is a problem with the serialization or am I wrong? How can by this problem solved? I'm using Visual Studio S2010, Entity Framework 4, C#. UPDATE: I have uploaded the project and hope somebody can help me! link text UPDATE 2: My questions: Why is POCO good (pros/cons)? When should POCO be used? Is POCO + the repository pattern a good choice? Should POCO classes by written by myself or could I use auto generated POCO classes?

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  • Adding a button bar at the bottom of ListView upon checkbox select (as in gmail app)??

    - by elto
    I have a ListView with custom adapter. In each row there is a checkbox and couple of textviews. I want user to give option to delete the check marked items, so as soon as soon clicks on one of the checkbox, I want a button bar to slide in from the bottom and stay at the bottom regardless of listview scroll. This is something like the email app behavior of Motorola Cliq and to some extent gmail app itself. I have tried adding a relativelayout (containing buttons) below the listview, which has visibility set to gone initially, but as soon as user checks a button, the visibility changes to "visible". I have added a slide-in animation to it too. It is working but problem is that it is overlapping the last element of the listview which user can not checkmark if the button bar has already become visible. So I tried to set the bottom margin of the listview equal to the height of the button bar when I'm changing the button bar visibility, which solves the problem of overlap, but now the checkbox behavior has gone weird. Clicking on one checkmark tries to checkmark another checkmark in the list for some weird reason. I noticed that this happens because as soon as I change the listview margin, list redraws itself, and during this new call to getView() method of adapter, things mess up. I wanted to ask if anyone has done something like this. What is the best method to add such button bar below list while keeping the slide-in animation intact. Also, What is the footer-view of listview and can that solve my problem?

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  • SQLAlchemy sessions - DetachedInstanceError?

    - by benjaminhkaiser
    I have a function that attempts to take a list of usernames, look each one up in a user table, and then add them to a membership table. If even one username is invalid, I want the entire list to be rolled back, including any users that have already been processed. I thought that using sessions was the best way to do this but I'm running into a DetachedInstanceError: DetachedInstanceError: Instance <Organization at 0x7fc35cb5df90> is not bound to a Session; attribute refresh operation cannot proceed Full stack trace is here. The error seems to trigger when I attempt to access the user (model) object that is returned by the query. From my reading I understand that it has something to do with there being multiple sessions, but none of the suggestions I saw on other threads worked for me. Code is below: def add_members_in_bulk(organization_eid, users): """Add users to an organization in bulk - helper function for add_member()""" """Returns "success" on success and id of first failed student on failure""" session = query_session.get_session() session.begin_nested() users = users.split('\n') for u in users: try: user = user_lookup.by_student_id(u) except ObjectNotFoundError: session.rollback() return u if user: membership.add_user_to_organization( user.entity_id, organization_eid, '', [] ) session.flush() session.commit() return 'success' here's the membership.add_user_to_organization: def add_user_to_organization(user_eid, organization_eid, title, tag_ids): """Add a User to an Organization with the given title""" user = user_lookup.by_eid(user_eid) organization = organization_lookup.by_eid(organization_eid) new_membership = OrganizationMembership( organization_eid=organization.entity_id, user_eid=user.entity_id, title=title) new_membership.tags = [get_tag_by_id(tag_id) for tag_id in tag_ids] crud.add(new_membership) and here is the lookup by ID query: def by_student_id(student_id, include_disabled=False): """Get User by RIN""" try: return get_query_set(include_disabled).filter(User.student_id == student_id).one() except NoResultFound: raise ObjectNotFoundError("User with RIN %s does not exist." % student_id)

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  • Linq generic Expression in query on "element" or on IQueryable (multiple use)

    - by Bogdan Maxim
    Hi, I have the following expression public static Expression<Func<T, bool>> JoinByDateCheck<T>(T entity, DateTime dateToCheck) where T : IDateInterval { return (entityToJoin) => entityToJoin.FromDate.Date <= dateToCheck.Date && (entityToJoin.ToDate == null || entityToJoin.ToDate.Value.Date >= dateToCheck.Date); } IDateInterval interface is defined like this: interface IDateInterval { DateTime FromDate {get;} DateTime? ToDate {get;} } and i need to apply it in a few ways: (1) Query on Linq2Sql Table: var q1 = from e in intervalTable where FunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(e, constantDateTime) select e; or something like this: intervalTable.Where(FunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(e, constantDateTime)) (2) I need to use it in some table joins (as linq2sql doesn't provide comparative join): var q2 = from e1 in t1 join e2 in t2 on e1.FK == e2.PK where OtherFunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(e2, e1.FromDate) or var q2 = from e1 in t1 from e2 in t2 where e1.FK == e2.PK && OtherFunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(e2, e1.FromDate) (3) I need to use it in some queries like this: var q3 = from e in intervalTable.FilterFunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(constantDate); Dynamic linq is not something that I can use, so I have to stick to plain linq. Thank you Clarification: Initially I had just the last method (FilterFunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(this IQueryable<IDateInterval> entities, DateTime dateConstant) ) that contained the code from the expression. The problem is that I get a SQL Translate exception if I write the code in a method and call it like that. All I want is to extend the use of this function to the where clause (see the second query in point 2)

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  • Titanium TableViewRow classname with custom rows

    - by pancake
    I would like to know in what way the 'className' property of a Ti.UI.TableViewRow helps when creating custom rows. For example, I populate a tableview with custom rows in the following way: function populateTableView(tableView, data) { var rows = []; var row; var title, image; var i; for (i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { title = Ti.UI.createLabel({ text : data[i].title, width : 100, height: 30, top: 5, left: 25 }); image = Ti.UI.createImage({ image : 'some_image.png', width: 30, height: 30, top: 5, left: 5 }); /* and, like, 5+ more views or whatever */ row = Ti.UI.createTableViewRow(); row.add(titleLabel); row.add(image); rows.push(row); } tableView.setData(rows); } Of course, this example of a "custom" row is easily created using the standard title and image properties of the TableViewRow, but that isn't the point. How is the allocation of new labels, image views and other child views of a table view prevented in favour of their reuse? I know in iOS this is achieved by using the method -[UITableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:] to fetch a row object from a 'reservoir' (so 'className' is 'identifier' here) that isn't currently being used for displaying data, but already has the needed child views laid out correctly in it, thus only requiring to update the data contained within (text, image data, etc). As this system is so unbelievably simple, I have a lot of trouble believing the method employed by the Titanium API does not support this. After reading through the API and searching the web, I do however suspect this is the case. The 'className' property is recommended as an easy way to make table views more efficient in Titanium, but its relation to custom table view rows is not explained in any way. If anyone could clarify this matter for me, I would be very grateful.

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  • deleting object with template for int and object

    - by Yokhen
    Alright so Say I have a class with all its definition, bla bla bla... template <class DT> class Foo{ private: DT* _data; //other stuff; public: Foo(DT* data){ _data = data } virtual ~Foo(){ delete _data } //other methods }; And then I have in the main method: int main(){ int number = 12; Foo<anyRandomClass>* noPrimitiveDataObject = new Foo<anyRandomClass>(new anyRandomClass()); Foo<int>* intObject = new Foo<int>(number); delete noPrimitiveDataObject; //Everything goes just fine. delete intObject; //It messes up here, I think because primitive data types such as int are allocated in a different way. return 0; } My question is: What could I do to have both delete statements in the main method work just fine? P.S.: Although I have not actually compiled/tested this specific code, I have reviewed it extensively (as well as indented. You're welcome.), so if you find a mistake, please be nice. Thank you.

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