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  • Why won't this loop normalize my Vector2 list?

    - by ssb
    See the following code: List<Vector2> axes = new List<Vector2>(); axes.Add(TopRight() - TopLeft()); axes.Add(BottomLeft() - TopLeft()); axes.Add(otherRectangle.TopRight() - otherRectangle.TopLeft()); axes.Add(otherRectangle.BottomLeft() - otherRectangle.TopLeft()); // Try normalizing vectors? foreach (Vector2 axis in axes) { axis.Normalize(); } the Vector2.Normalize() method is a void method that normalizes the vector it's called on. Yet for some reason when I do this loop it doesn't normalize the vectors. Am I just unable to modify a list this way? Some oddities: Iterating with a for loop, i.e. axis[i].Normalize() doesn't work. Iterating with the built-in List<T>.ForEach iterator does not work. Creating a normalizing the vector before adding it to the list rather than iterating over the list does work. Why does iteration not work?

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  • How to implement a 'safe' periodical executer without using the Rails helpers?

    - by Robbie
    I am very new to Ruby on Rails and was never really big on writing JavaScript, so the built in helpers were like a tiny silce of heaven. However I have recently learned that using the helper methods creates "obtrusive javascript" so I am doing a tiny bit of refactoring to get all this messy code out of my view. I'm also using the Prototype API to figure out what all these functions do. Right now, I have: <%= periodically_call_remote(:url => {:action => "tablerefresh", :id => 1 }, :frequency => '5', :complete => "load('26', 'table1', request.responseText)")%> Which produces: <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ new PeriodicalExecuter(function() {new Ajax.Request('/qrpsdrail/grids/tablerefresh/1', {asynchronous:true, evalScripts:true, onComplete:function(request){load('26', 'table1', request.responseText)}, parameters:'authenticity_token=' + encodeURIComponent('dfG7wWyVYEpelfdZvBWk7MlhzZoK7VvtT/HDi3w7gPM=')})}, 5) //]]> </script> My concern is that the "encodeURIComponent" and the presence of "authenticity_token" are generated by Rails. I'm assuming these are used to assure the validity of a request. (Ensuring a request comes from a currently active session?) If that is the case, how can I implement this in application.js 'safely'? It seems that the built in method, although obtrusive, does add some beneficial security. Thanks, in advance, to all who answer.

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  • how to rotate around each record in linq and show that in view

    - by Sadegh
    Hi, I have four tables in my database and i want to join that's and return record's and show that into searchController! My query is this: public IQueryable PerformSearch(string query) { if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(query)) { var results = from tbl1 in context.Table1 join tbl2 in context.Table2 on tbl1.Id equals tbl2.Id join tbl3 in context.Table3 on tbl2.Id equals tbl3.Id join tbl4 in context.Table4 on tbl3.Id equals tbl4.Id where tbl1.col2.Contains(query) orderby tbl1.Count descending select new { col1 = tbl1.Col1, col1 = tbl1.Col1, col1 = tbl1.Col1, . . . }; return results.AsQueryable(); } else return null; } And this method called in SearchController as below: public class SearchController : System.Web.Mvc.Controller { public System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Search(System.String query) { var search = new Search(); ViewData["result"] = search.PerformSearch(query); return View("Search"); } } I don't know how i can rotate around each record (plus vs intellisense feature) returned by PeformSeach method and show that in view! Also is this a good way? thanks in advance

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  • OptimisticLockException in inner transaction ruins outer transaction

    - by Pace
    I have the following code (OLE = OptimisticLockException)... public void outer() { try { middle() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); outer(); } } @Transactional public void middle() { try { inner() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); middle(); } @Transactional public void inner() { //Do DB operation } inner() is called by other non-transactional methods which is why both middle() and inner() are transactional. As you can see, I deal with OLEs by updating the entities and retrying the operation. The problem I'm having is that when I designed things this way I was assuming that the only time one could get an OLE was when a transaction closed. This is apparently not the case as the call to inner() is throwing an OLE even when the stack is outer()->middle()->inner(). Now, middle() is properly handling the OLE and the retry succeeds but when it comes time to close the transaction it has been marked rollbackOnly by Spring. When the middle() method call finally returns the closing aspect throws an exception because it can't commit a transaction marked rollbackOnly. I'm uncertain what to do here. I can't clear the rollbackOnly state. I don't want to force create a transaction on every call to inner because that kills my performance. Am I missing something or can anyone see a way I can structure this differently? EDIT: To clarify what I'm asking, let me explain my main question. Is it possible to catch and handle OLE if you are inside of an @Transactional method? FYI: The transaction manager is a JpaTransactionManager and the JPA provider is Hibernate.

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  • php syntax confusion accessing database result

    - by Babak
    I am trying to do the following: <?php foreach($sqlResult as $row): ?> <tr> <?php foreach($formdata['columns'] as $column): ?> <td><?php echo $row->$column['name']; ?></td> <?php endforeach; ?> </tr> <?php endforeach; ?> This does not work. $row is returned by my mysql query, it has the following : row-id, row-author, row-name and these work as they echo fine. $columns is the following array: 'columns' => array ( 1 => array ( 'name' => 'id' ), 2 => array ( 'name' => 'author' ), 3 => array ( 'name' => 'date' ), 4 => array ( 'name' => 'title' ) it also works fine as $column['name'] echoes id, author, date, title my question is how would it be possible for me to access the $row-method (is it a method?) by passing it a name from the array??

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  • IE 8 remove line break between nodes with JavaScript

    - by Tokimon
    Ok i have a list of HTML nodes which should be inline with no spacing between them. The problem is, that the nodes are written from a CMS and therefore will come with all sorts of linebreaks and spaces. Therefore I'm removing the spaces with JS using the method descibed in this question. The problem is, however, that in IE (not 9) the white spaces isn't part of the childrens list of the parent node, rendering the method useless in IE. However IE 7 (or at least IE 9 emulating IE 7) ignores the linebreaks, so that one is in the clear. That leaves IE 8 as the troublemaker. I discovered that the line break is actually a part of the outerHTML and that a simple reset of the outerHTML did the trick - like so: node.outerHTML = node.outerHTML However this will reset the node intirely and therefore removing all events and other settings on the node, which isn't really any good. So my question is now: Is there a way to remove that linebreak from the nodes outerHTML whitout resetting the node? I've tried with zoom: 1, but to no avail. Hope anyone has any experience with this.

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  • ObjC get property name

    - by Joe Even
    Yes. I've searched a lot without success. I've looking for a way to get a property name as StringValue from inside a method. Lets say: My class has X Subviews from the Type UILabel. @property (strong, nonatomic) UILabel *firstLabel; @property (strong, nonatomic) UILabel *secondLabel; [...] and so on. Inside the method foo, the views are iterated as followed: -(void) foo { for (UIView *view in self.subviews) { if( [view isKindOfClass:[UILabel class]] ) { /* codeblock that gets the property name. */ } } } The Result should be something like that: THE propertyName(NSString) OF view(UILabel) IS "firstLabel" I've tried class_getInstanceVariable, object_getIvar and property_getName without Success. For Example, the Code for: [...] property_getName((void*)&view) [...] RETURNS: <UILabel: 0x6b768c0; frame = (65 375; 219 21); text = 'Something'; clipsToBounds = YES; opaque = NO; autoresize = RM+BM; userInteractionEnabled = NO; layer = <CALayer: 0x6b76930>> But i'm looking for this kind of result: "firstLabel" , "secondLabel" and so on. Thanks for your help! Reagrds Joé

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  • LinQ XML mapping to a generic type

    - by Manuel Navarro
    I´m trying to use an external XML file to map the output from a stored procedure into an instance of a class. The problem is that my class is of a generic type: public class MyValue<T> { public T Value { get; set; } } Searching through a lot of blogs an articles I've managed to get this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <Database Name="" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/linqtosql/mapping/2007"> <Table Name="MyValue" Member="MyNamespace.MyValue`1" > <Type Name="MyNamespace.MyValue`1"> <Column Name="Category" Member="Value" DbType="VarChar(100)" /> </Type> </Table> <Function Method="GetResourceCategories" Name="myprefix_GetResourceCategories" > <ElementType Name="MyNamespace.MyValue`1"/> </Function> </Database> The MyNamespace.MyValue`1 trick works fine, and the class is recognized. I expect four rows from the stored procedure, and I'm getting four MyValue<string> instances, but the big problem is that the property Value for the all four instances is null. The property is not getting mapped and I don't really get why. Maybe worth noting that the property Value is generic, and that when the mapping is done using attributes it works perfect. Anyone have a clue? BTW the method GetResourceCategories: public ISingleResult<MyValue<string>> GetResourceCategories() { IExecuteResult result = this.ExecuteMethodCall( this, (MethodInfo)MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod()); return (ISingleResult<MyValue<string>>)result.ReturnValue; }

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  • Security header is not valid - using curl php

    - by toni
    Hi all, Im implementing the Express Checkout, Paypal API using PHP. I have no problem with the first step:SetExpressCheckout. I a have awk=success. But in method GetExpressCheckout I get "Security header is not valid". I try to figure out the problem and i think found out maybe it was the curl not working well.. What i did i copy the whole URL: https://api-3t.sandbox.paypal.com/nvp?USER=sanbox_1276609583_biz_api1.gmail.com&PWD=1276609589&SIGNATURE=AYVosblmD7khKkvvb.bNxvFT0OQ2A8GopwByEuC.CfMHt65VaUmvAEy-&VERSION=62.0&token=EC-3YG18670X88588437&METHOD=GetExpressCheckoutDetails and paste it to the browser. This will result to: TOKEN=EC%2d3YG18670X88588437&CHECKOUTSTATUS=PaymentActionNotInitiated&TIMESTAMP=2010%2d06%2d16T07%3a40%3a12Z&CORRELATIONID=e1a1e469bf066&ACK=Success&VERSION=62%2e0&BUILD=1356926... But when that url executed in the function I made it will not work. Below is my function: function mycurl($url,$querystr){ $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $querystr); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER,1); $response = curl_exec($ch); curl_close ($ch); return $response; } I hope somebody can help on this. thanks so much. Note: - I Used the sandbox for this. I created a sandbox account, I have a Business account to represent a merchant, and a Personal account to represent a buyer. And I used this: endpoint url: api-3t.sandbox.paypal.com/nvp sandbox url: www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr This should not be the issue.

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  • How to Update with LINQ?

    - by DaveDev
    currently, I'm doing an update similar to as follows, because I can't see a better way of doing it. I've tried suggestions that I've read in blogs but none work, such as http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb425822.aspx and http://weblogs.asp.net/scottgu/archive/2007/05/19/using-linq-to-sql-part-1.aspx Maybe these do work and I'm missing some point. Has anyone else had luck with them? // please note this isn't the actual code. // I've modified it to clarify the point I wanted to make // and also I didn't want to post our code here! public bool UpdateMyStuff(int myId, List<int> funds) { // get MyTypes that correspond to the ID I want to update IQueryable<MyType> myTypes = database.MyTypes.Where(xx => xx.MyType_MyId == myId); // delete them from the database foreach (db.MyType mt in myTypes) { database.MyTypes.DeleteOnSubmit(mt); } database.SubmitChanges(); // create a new row for each item I wanted to update, and insert it foreach (int fund in funds) { database.MyType mt = new database.MyType { MyType_MyId = myId, fund_id = fund }; database.MyTypes.InsertOnSubmit(mt); } // try to commit the insert try { database.SubmitChanges(); return true; } catch (Exception) { return false; throw; } } Unfortunately, there isn't a database.MyTypes.Update() method so I don't know a better way to do it. Can sombody suggest what I could do? Thanks. ..as a side note, why isn't there an Update() method?

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  • Producing a Form from an Overlay from Reporting Services rdlc Reports

    - by Mike Wills
    I am not sure what you call it in other technologies, on the IBM i (or iSeries) we call it overlays. The overlay is an image of a form that is stored on the server then a program generates the form with fields from the database so you can eliminate preprinted forms. I had a problem last year with the method I was trying at the time. It was a rush job at the time to be revisited at a later point. The work-around at the time was to export to PDF. So now it is "later" and once again is a rush (imagine that). This is all done through a web-based interface. So how do you generate forms from something that was once a preprinted form? What method do you recommend? This is a legal form and must be filled out a certain way and can have many in a batch (up to 50 or so). I would prefer to not have them print one page at a time. Any ideas would be appreciated!

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  • What is the easiest way to add compression to WCF in Silverlight?

    - by caryden
    I have a silverlight 2 beta 2 application that accesses a WCF web service. Because of this, it currently can only use basicHttp binding. The webservice will return fairly large amounts of XML data. This seems fairly wasteful from a bandwidth usage standpoint as the response, if zipped, would be smaller by a factor of 5 (I actually pasted the response into a txt file and zipped it.). The request does have the "Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate" - Is there any way have the WCF service gzip (or otherwise compress) the response? I did find this link but it sure seems a bit complex for functionality that should be handled out-of-the-box IMHO. OK - at first I marked the solution using the System.IO.Compression as the answer as I could never "seem" to get the IIS7 dynamic compression to work. Well, as it turns out: Dynamic Compression on IIS7 was working al along. It is just that Nikhil's Web Developer Helper plugin for IE did not show it working. My guess is that since SL hands the web service call off to the browser, that the browser handles it "under the covers" and Nikhil's tool never sees the compressed response. I was able to confirm this by using Fiddler which monitors traffic external to the browser application. In fiddler, the response was, in fact, gzip compressed!! The other problem with the System.IO.Compression solution is that System.IO.Compression does not exist in the Silverlight CLR. So from my perspective, the EASIEST way to enable WCF compression in Silverlight is to enable Dynamic Compression in IIS7 and write no code at all.

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  • Ruby TypeErrors involving `expected Data`

    - by Kenny Peng
    I've ran into situations where I have gotten these expected Data errors before, but they have always pointed to ActiveRecord not playing well with other libraries in the past. This piece of code: def load(kv_block, debug=false) # Converts a string block to a Hash using split kv_map = StringUtils.kv_array_to_hash(kv_block) # Loop through each key, value kv_map.each do |mem,val| # Format the member from camel case to underscore member = mem.camel_to_underscore() # If the object includes a method to set the key (i.e. the key # is a member of self), invoke the method, setting the value of # the member) if self.methods.include?(member.to_set_method_name()) then # Exception thrown here self.send(member.to_set_method_name(), val) # Else, check for the same case, this time for an instance variable elsif self.instance_variable_defined?(member.to_instance_var_name()) self.instance_variable_set(member.to_instance_var_name(), val) # Else, complain that the object doesn't understand the key with # respect to its class definition. else raise ArgumentError, "I don't know what to do with #{member}. #{self.class} does not have a member or function called #{member}" end end end produces the error wrong argument type #<Class:0x11a02088> (expected Data) (TypeError) in the each loop on the first if test. I've inspected a post-mortem debugging instance using rdebug, and running that line manually, it works without a hitch. Has anyone seen this error before and what's been your solution to it? I used to think it was ActiveRecord and other gems stomping on each other's definitions, but I removed any references to ActiveRecord and this still occurs.

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  • Spring 3 MVC validation BindingResult doesn't contain any errors

    - by Travelsized
    I'm attempting to get a Spring 3.0.2 WebMVC project running with the new annotated validation support. I have a Hibernate entity annotated like this: @Entity @Table(name = "client") public class Client implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "clientId", nullable = false) @NotEmpty private Integer clientId; @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "firstname", nullable = false, length = 45) @NotEmpty @Size(min=2, max=45) private String firstname; ... more fields, getters and setters } I've turned on mvc annotation support in my applicationContext.xml file: <mvc:annotation-driven /> And I have a method in my controller that responds to a form submission: @RequestMapping(value="/addClient.htm") public String addClient(@ModelAttribute("client") @Valid Client client, BindingResult result) { if(result.hasErrors()) { return "addClient"; } service.storeClient(client); return "clientResult"; } When my app loads in the server, I can see in the server log file that it loads a validator: 15 [http-8084-2] INFO org.hibernate.validator.util.Version - Hibernate Validator 4.0.2.GA The problem I'm having is that the validator doesn't seem to kick in. I turned on the debugger, and when I get into the controller method, the BindingResult contains 0 errors after I submit an empty form. (The BindingResult does show that it contains the Client object as a target.) It then proceeds to insert a record without an Id and throws an exception. If I fill out an Id but leave the name blank, it creates a record with the Id and empty fields. What steps am I missing to get the validation working?

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  • .NET ValidationRule problem

    - by PaN1C_Showt1Me
    Hi ! I have a control with this validation <MyPicker.SelectedItem> <Binding Path="Person.Value" Mode="TwoWay" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged" NotifyOnValidationError="True"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <rules:MyValidationRule ValidationType="notnull"/> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </MyPicker.SelectedItem> This is the Validation Class: class MyValidationRule : ValidationRule { private string _validationType; public string ValidationType { get { return _validationType; } set { _validationType = value; } } public override ValidationResult Validate(object value, CultureInfo cultureInfo) { ValidationResult trueResult = new ValidationResult(true, null); switch (_validationType.ToLower()) { case "notnull": return value == null ? new ValidationResult(false, "EMPTY FIELD") : trueResult; default: return trueResult; } } } Question: When the property is changed, then the Validate( ) method is called which is correct. But to call this method at the very beginning when the MyControl is created? I need to prove immediate after initialize if the there's a null value in the control (and display a validation error)

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  • Strategies for when to use properties and when to use internal variables on internal classes?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    In almost all of my classes, I have a mixture of properties and internal class variables. I have always chosen one or the other by the rule "property if you need it externally, class variable if not". But there are many other issues which make me rethink this often, e.g.: at some point I want to use an internal variable from outside the class, so I have to refactor it into a property which makes me wonder why I don't just make all my internal variables properties in case I have to access them externally anyway, since most classes are internal classes anyway it aren't exposed on an API so it doesn't really matter if the internal variables are accessible from outside the class or not but then since C# doesn't allow you to instantiate e.g. List<string> property in the definition, then these properties have to be initialized in every possible constructor, so these variables I would rather have internal variables just to keep things cleaner in that they are all initialized in one place C# code reads more cleanly if constructor/method parameters are camel case and you assign them to pascal case properties instead of the ambiguity of seeing "templateIdCode" and having to look around to see if it is a local variable, method parameter or internal class variable, e.g. it is easier when you see "TemplateIdCode = templateIdCode" that this is a parameter being assigned to a class property. This would be an argument for always using only properties on internal classes. e.g.: public class TextFile { private string templateIdCode; private string absoluteTemplatePathAndFileName; private string absoluteOutputDirectory; private List<string> listItems = new List<string>(); public string Content { get; set; } public List<string> ReportItems { get; set; } public TextFile(string templateIdCode) { this.templateIdCode = templateIdCode; ReportItems = new List<string>(); Initialize(); } ... When creating internal (non-API) classes, what are your strategies in deciding if you should create an internal class variable or a property?

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  • How to find which file is open in eclipse editor without using IEditorPart?

    - by Destructor
    I want to know which file (or even project is enough) is opened in eclipse editor? I know we can do this once we get IEditorPart from doSetInput method, IFile file = ((IFileEditorInput) iEditorPart).getFile(); But I want the name of file without using IEditorPart, how can I do the same? Checking which is the selected file in project explorer is not of much help because, user can select multiple files at once and open all simultaneously and I did not way to distinguish which file opened at what time. Adding more info: I have an editor specified for a particular type of file, now every time it opens, during intializing editor I have some operation to do based on project properties. While initializing editor, I need the file handle (of the one which user opened/double clicked) or the corresponding project handle. I have my editor something this way: public class MyEditor extends TextEditor{ @Override protected void initializeEditor() { setSourceViewerConfiguration(new MySourceViewerConfiguration( CDTUITools.getColorManager(), store, "MyPartitions", this)); } //other required methods @Override protected void doSetInput(IEditorInput input) throws CoreException { if(input instanceof IFileEditorInput) { IFile file = ((IFileEditorInput) input).getFile(); } } } as I have done in the doSetInput() method , I want the file handle(even project handle is sufficient). But the problem is in initializeEditor() function there is no reference to editorInput, hence I am unable to get the file handle. In the source viewer configuration file, I set the code scanners and this needs some project specific information that will set the corresponding rules.

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  • How to get around DnsRecordListFree error in .NET Framework 4.0?

    - by Greg Finzer
    I am doing an MxRecordLookup. I am getting an error when calling the DnsRecordListFree in the .NET Framework 4.0. I am using Windows 7. How do I get around it? Here is the error: System.MethodAccessException: Attempt by security transparent method to call native code through method. Here is my code: [DllImport("dnsapi", EntryPoint = "DnsQuery_W", CharSet = CharSet.Unicode, SetLastError = true, ExactSpelling = true)] private static extern int DnsQuery([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.VBByRefStr)]ref string pszName, QueryTypes wType, QueryOptions options, int aipServers, ref IntPtr ppQueryResults, int pReserved); [DllImport("dnsapi", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = true)] private static extern void DnsRecordListFree(IntPtr pRecordList, int FreeType); public List<string> GetMXRecords(string domain) { List<string> records = new List<string>(); IntPtr ptr1 = IntPtr.Zero; IntPtr ptr2 = IntPtr.Zero; MXRecord recMx; try { int result = DnsQuery(ref domain, QueryTypes.DNS_TYPE_MX, QueryOptions.DNS_QUERY_BYPASS_CACHE, 0, ref ptr1, 0); if (result != 0) { if (result == 9003) { //No Record Exists } else { //Some other error } } for (ptr2 = ptr1; !ptr2.Equals(IntPtr.Zero); ptr2 = recMx.pNext) { recMx = (MXRecord)Marshal.PtrToStructure(ptr2, typeof(MXRecord)); if (recMx.wType == 15) { records.Add(Marshal.PtrToStringAuto(recMx.pNameExchange)); } } } finally { DnsRecordListFree(ptr1, 0); } return records; }

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  • Recursive QuickSort suffering a StackOverflowException -- Need fresh eyes

    - by jon
    I am working on a Recursive QuickSort method implementation in a GenericList Class. I will have a second method that accepts a compareDelegate to compare different types, but for development purposes I'm sorting a GenericList<int I am recieving stackoverflow areas in different places depending on the list size. I've been staring at and tracing through this code for hours and probably just need a fresh pair of (more experienced)eyes. Definitely wanting to learn why it is broken, not just how to fix it. public void QuickSort() { int i, j, lowPos, highPos, pivot; GenericList<T> leftList = new GenericList<T>(); GenericList<T> rightList = new GenericList<T>(); GenericList<T> tempList = new GenericList<T>(); lowPos = 1; highPos = this.Count; if (lowPos < highPos) { pivot = (lowPos + highPos) / 2; for (i = 1; i <= highPos; i++) { if (this[i].CompareTo(this[pivot]) <= 0) leftList.Add(this[i]); else rightList.Add(this[i]); } leftList.QuickSort(); rightList.QuickSort(); for(i=1;i<=leftList.Count;i++) tempList.Add(leftList[i]); for(i=1;i<=rightList.Count;i++) tempList.Add(rightList[i]); this.items = tempList.items; this.count = tempList.count; } }

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  • What are some methods to prevent double posting in a form? (PHP)

    - by jpjp
    I want to prevent users from accidentally posting a comment twice. I use the PRG (post redirect get) method, so that I insert the data on another page then redirect the user back to the page which shows the comment. This allows users to refresh as many times as they want. However this doesn't work when the user goes back and clicks submit again or when they click submit 100 times really fast. I don't want 100 of the same comments. I looked at related questions on SO and found that a token is best. But I am having trouble using it. //makerandomtoken(20) returns a random 20 length char. <form method="post" ... > <input type="text" id="comments" name="comments" class="commentbox" /><br/> <input type="hidden" name="_token" value="<?php echo $token=makerandomtoken(20); ?>" /> <input type="submit" value="submit" name="submit" /> </form> if (isset($_POST['submit']) && !empty($comments)) { $comments= mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc,trim($_POST['comments'])); //how do I make the if-statment to check if the token has been already set once? if ( ____________){ //don't insert comment because already clicked submit } else{ //insert the comment into the database } } So I have the token as a hidden value, but how do I use that to prevent multiple clicking of submit. METHODS: someone suggested using sessions. I would set the random token to $_SESSION['_token'] and check if that session token is equal to the $_POST['_token'], but how do I do that? When I tried, it still doesn't check

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  • iPhone: Calling dealloc on parentViewController causes an exception

    - by arielcamus
    Hi, I'm dealing with viewDidUnload and dealloc methods and I've founded a problem when calling [super dealloc]; in parent view controller. I have a lot of view controllers with custom code which I have putted outside on a parent view controller. So, when defining my view controllers I set a reference to the super class: @interface LoginViewController : AbstractViewController Then, at the dealloc method I call the AbstractViewController dealloc method: //(Login View Controller code) - (void)dealloc { [user release]; [passwd release]; [super dealloc]; } [super dealloc] execute the following code: //(Abstract View Controller code) - (void)dealloc { [dbUtils release]; [loadingView release]; [super dealloc]; } If I simulate a memory warning on iPhone Simulator, the following exception is thrown: 2010-03-03 11:27:45.805 MyApp[71563:40b] Received simulated memory warning. 2010-03-03 11:27:45.808 MyApp[71563:40b] *** -[LoginViewController isViewLoaded]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x13b51b0 kill quit However, if I comment the [super dealloc] line in AbstractViewController the exception is not thrown and my app still running. Thank you for your help once again!

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  • ASP.NET AJAX weirdness

    - by LoveMeSomeCode
    Ok, I thought I understood these topics well, but I guess not, so hopefully someone here can clear this up. Page.IsAsync seems to be broken. It always returns false. But ScriptManager.IsInAsyncPostBack seems to work, sort of. It returns true during the round trip for controls inside UpdatePanels. This is good; I can tell if it's a partial postback or a regular one. ScriptManager.IsInAsyncPostBack returns false however for async Page Methods. Why is this? It's not a regular postback, I'm just calling a public static method on the page. It causes a problem because I also realized that if you have a control with AutoPostBack = false, it won't trigger a postback on it's own, but if it has an event handler on the page, that event handler code WILL run on the next postback, regardless of how the postback occurred, IF the value has changed. i.e. if I tweak a dropdown and then hit a button, that dropdown's handler code will fire. This is ok, except that it will also happen during Page Method calls, and I have no way to know the difference. Any thoughts?

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  • Show NSSegmentedControl menu when segment clicked, despite having set action

    - by Justin Williams
    I have an NSSegmentedControl on my UI with 4 buttons. The control is connected to a method that will call different methods depending on which segment is clicked: - (IBAction)performActionFromClick:(id)sender { NSInteger selectedSegment = [sender selectedSegment]; NSInteger clickedSegmentTag = [[sender cell] tagForSegment:selectedSegment]; switch (clickedSegmentTag) { case 0: [self showNewEventWindow:nil]; break; case 1: [self showNewTaskWindow:nil]; break; case 2: [self toggleTaskSplitView:nil]; break; case 3: [self showGearMenu]; break; } } Segment 4 has has a menu attached to it in the awakeFromNib method. I'd like this menu to drop down when the user clicks the segment. At this point, it only will drop if the user clicks & holds down on the menu. From my research online this is because of the connected action. I'm presently working around it by using some code to get the origin point of the segment control and popping up the context menu using NSMenu's popUpContextMenu:withEvent:forView but this is pretty hacktastic and looks bad compared to the standard behavior of having the menu drop down below the segmented control cell. Is there a way I can have the menu drop down as it should after a single click rather than doing the hacky context menu thing?

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  • When are predicates appropriate and what is the best pattern for usage

    - by Maxim Gershkovich
    When are predicates appropriate and what is the best pattern for usage? What are the advantages of predicates? It seems to me like most cases where a predicate can be employed a tight loop would accomplish the same functionality? I don’t see a reusability argument given you will probably only implement a predicate in one method right? They look and feel nice but besides that they seem like you would only employ them when you need a quick hack on the collection classes? UPDATE But why would you be rewriting the tight loop again and again? In my mind/code when it comes to collections I always end up with something like Class Person End Class Class PersonList Inherits List(Of Person) Function FindByName(Name) as Person tight loop.... End Function End Class @Ani By that same logic I could implement the method as such Class PersonList Inherits List(Of Person) Function FindByName(Name) as PersonList End Function Function FindByAge(Age) as PersonList End Function Function FindBySocialSecurityNumber(SocialSecurityNumber) as PersonList End Function End Class And call it as such Dim res as PersonList = MyList.FindByName("Max").FindByAge(25).FindBySocialSecurityNumber(1234) and the result along with the amount of code and its reusability is largely the same, no? I am not arguing just trying to understand.

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  • Javascript CS-PRNG - 64-bit random

    - by Jack
    Hi, I need to generate a cryptographically secure 64-bit unsigned random integer in Javascript. The first problem is that Javascript only allows 64-bit signed integers, so 9223372036854775808 is the biggest supported integer without going into floating point use I think? To fix this I can use a big number library, no problem. My Method: var randNum = SHA256( randBigInt(128, 0) ) % 2^64; Where SHA256() is a secure hash function and randBigInt() is defined below as a non-crypto PRNG, im giving it a 128bit seed so brute force shouldn't be a problem. randBigInt(n,s) //return an n-bit random BigInt (n>=1). If s=1, then the most significant of those n bits is set to 1. Is this a secure method to generate a cryptographically secure 64-bit random int? And importantly does taking the 2^64 mod guarantee 100% I have a 64-bit number? An abstract example, say this number is prime (it isn't i know), I will use it in the Galois Field [2^p], where p must be 64bits so that every possible 1-63bit number is a field element. In this query, my random int must be larger than any 63-bit number. And Im not sure im correct in taking the 2^64 mod of a 256bit hash output. Thanks (hope that makes sense)

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