Search Results

Search found 49860 results on 1995 pages for 'reference type'.

Page 520/1995 | < Previous Page | 516 517 518 519 520 521 522 523 524 525 526 527  | Next Page >

  • Reading only one row from table in model binder

    - by user281180
    I am filling a table dynamically. I can see the table filled with 3 rows, but in my model binder I can read only one value. How can I solve this problem? My code is as follows: function AddTableRow(jQtable, value, text){ var count = 0; jQtable.each(function() { var $table = $(this); var tds = '<tr>'; tds += '<td>' + '<input type="text" value = ' + text + ' disabled ="disabled" style="width:auto"/>' + '<input type="hidden" name="projectList[' + count + '].ID" value = ' + value + ' /></td>' + '<td><input type="button" value="Remove"/></td>'; tds += '</tr>'; if ($('tbody', this).length > 0) { $('tbody', this).append(tds); } else { $(this).append(tds); } count++;}); } function ReadSelectedProject() { $("#Selected option").each(function() { AddTableRow($('#projectTable'), $(this).val(), $(this).text()); }); }

    Read the article

  • where did the _syscallN macros go in <linux/unistd.h>?

    - by Evan Teran
    It used to be the case that if you needed to make a system call directly in linux without the use of an existing library, you could just include <linux/unistd.h> and it would define a macro similar to this: #define _syscall3(type,name,type1,arg1,type2,arg2,type3,arg3) \ type name(type1 arg1,type2 arg2,type3 arg3) \ { \ long __res; \ __asm__ volatile ("int $0x80" \ : "=a" (__res) \ : "0" (__NR_##name),"b" ((long)(arg1)),"c" ((long)(arg2)), \ "d" ((long)(arg3))); \ if (__res>=0) \ return (type) __res; \ errno=-__res; \ return -1; \ } Then you could just put somewhere in your code: _syscall3(ssize_t, write, int, fd, const void *, buf, size_t, count); which would define a write function for you that properly performed the system call. It seems that this system has been superseded by something (i am guessing that "[vsyscall]" page that every process gets) more robust. So what is the proper way (please be specific) for a program to perform a system call directly on newer linux kernels? I realize that I should be using libc and let it do the work for me. But let's assume that I have a decent reason for wanting to know how to do this :-).

    Read the article

  • Opening a xul file in response to a toolbar extension button click

    - by Graham
    I'm currently building my first Firefox extension, and am having a little difficulty with one piece of functionality. I'd like to open a new browser tab in response to a button click on the toolbar. The new tab should contain the contents of a webpage, together with some extra buttons. At the moment I've created a separate xul file for the contents of the new tab: <?xml version="1.0"?> <?xml-stylesheet href="chrome://global/skin/" type="text/css"?> <window id="myapp-report-window" title="Example 4.5.1" xmlns:html="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns="http://www.mozilla.org/keymaster/gatekeeper/there.is.only.xul"> <script type="application/x-javascript" src="chrome://myapp/content/main.js" /> <toolbox> <toolbar id="nav-toolbar"> <toolbarbutton label="This-is-going-to-do-some-stuff"/> </toolbar> </toolbox> <iframe id="myapp-report-frame" flex="1"/> <script type="text/javascript"> function loadPage(url){ document.getElementById('myapp-report-frame').setAttribute('src',url); } </script> </window> This xul file is launched via this javascript, referenced from the main myapptoolbar.xul: gBrowser.selectedTab = gBrowser.addTab('chrome://myapp/content/report.xul'); var newTabBrowser = gBrowser.getBrowserForTab(gBrowser.selectedTab); newTabBrowser.addEventListener("load", function(){ loadPage('http://www.somedynamicallysetwebsite.com'); }, true); The problem that I'm having is that the loadPage function is not being found, so the src attribute of the iframe is never set. I'm sure it's some silly scoping problem, but I'm very new to firefox extensions (day 2!) so any help would be much appreciated. Thanks for looking! Graham

    Read the article

  • Adding an Array inside an array in a PHP function

    - by bateman_ap
    I have created a function in PHP that calls a webservice and parses through the result, assinging values to variables and returning them all as an Array. This all works perfectly, however I have come across a need to have an "array within my array" I am assigning values as below: $productName = $product->Name; $productID = $product->ID; $productArray = array( 'productName' => "$productName", 'productID' => "$productID" ); return $productArray; However I now have a piece of data that comes back with multiple results so I need to have a additional array to store these, I am getting the values from the returned XML using a foreach loop, however I want to be able to add them to the array with a name so I can reference them in the returned data, this is where I have a problem... $bestForLists = $product->BestFors; foreach( $bestForLists as $bestForList ) { $productBestFors = $bestForList->BestFor; foreach( $productBestFors as $productBestFor ) { $productBestForName = $productBestFor->Name; $productBestForID = $productBestFor->ID; } } I tried creating an array for these using the below code: $bestForArray[] = (array( "productBestForID" => "$productBestForID", "productBestForName" => "$productBestForName" )); And then at the end merging these together: $productArray= array_merge($productArray,$bestForArray); If I print out the returned value I get: Array ( [productName] => Test Product [productID] => 14128 [0] => Array ( [productBestForID] => 56647 [productBestForName] => Lighting ) [1] => Array ( [productBestForID] => 56648 [productBestForName] => Sound ) ) I would like to give the internal Array a name so I can reference it in my code, or is there a better way of doing this, at the moment I am using the following in my PHP page to get values: $productName = $functionReturnedValues['productName']; I would like to use the following to access the array I could then loop through: $bestForArray = $functionReturnedValues['bestForArray']; Hope someone can help

    Read the article

  • radiobutton checked on condition in jquery

    - by RememberME
    I have the following fields: <label>Company Type:</label> <label for="primary"><input onclick="javascript: $('#sec').hide('slow');$('#primary_company').find('option:first').attr('selected','selected');" type="radio" runat="server" name="companyType" id="primary" />Primary</label> <label for="secondary"><input onclick="javascript: $('#sec').show('slow');" type="radio" runat="server" name="companyType" id="secondary" />Secondary</label> <div id="sec"> <fieldset> <label for="primary_company">Primary Company:</label> <%= Html.DropDownList("primary_company", Model.SelectPrimaryCompanies, "** Select Primary Company **") %> </fieldset> If there is a primary_company, then the secondary radio button should be selected. If there is no primary_company, then the primary radio button should be selected. Here is my jQuery: $(document).ready(function() { if ($('#primary_company').val().length > 0) { $('#secondary').attr({ checked: true }); } else { $("#primary").attr('checked', true ); $('#sec').hide(); } The sec div hides and shows properly, but a radio button is never selected. I've tried .attr('checked', 'checked') and .attr({ checked: true }) and .attr('checked', true) but nothing is ever selected.

    Read the article

  • Do variable references (alias) incure runtime costs in c++?

    - by cheshirekow
    Maybe this is a compiler specific thing. If so, how about for gcc (g++)? If you use a variable reference/alias like this: int x = 5; int& y = x; y += 10; Does it actually require more cycles than if we didn't use the reference. int x = 5; x += 10; In other words, does the machine code change, or does the "alias" happen only at the compiler level? This may seem like a dumb question, but I am curious. Especially in the case where maybe it would be convenient to temporarily rename some member variables just so that the math code is a little easier to read. Sure, we're not exactly talking about a bottleneck here... but it's something that I'm doing and so I'm just wondering if there is any 'actual' difference... or if it's only cosmetic.

    Read the article

  • smartgwt operationId not working

    - by dubreakkk
    Hello all: How do operationIds work when calling a smartGWT fetch operation? I have the following simple Datasource, and below it the code that calls that datasource. However, the operationId is never acknowledged, and the first fetch operation is always executed... <DataSource ID="cartDS" serverType="sql" tableName="cart"> <fields> <field name="cart_id" type="number"/> <field name="price" type="double"/> <field name="total" type="double" customSQL="true"/> </fields> <dbName></dbName> <operationBindings> <operationBinding operationType="fetch"> <values fieldName="cart_id" value="$session.id"/> </operationBinding> <operationBinding operationType="fetch" operationId="total"> <values fieldName="cart_id" value="$session.id"/> <selectClause>sum(price) AS total </selectClause> </operationBinding> final DynamicForm totalForm = new DynamicForm(); totalForm.setDataSource(cartDS); totalForm.setFetchOperation("total"); totalForm.fetchData();

    Read the article

  • Developing ASP.Net User Control to be imported to SharePoint MOSS 2007

    - by Don Kirkham
    Apologies if this has been answered, but I could not find a similar question: I am developing a webpart for MOSS 2007. I am using WSPBuilder to built a visual webpart (ascx) and everything works fine, but the development/debug cycle is just painfully slow, so I'd like to know if it is possible (without being too painful) to develop the user control faster using an .Net Web Application project with all of the nice F5 debugging, then import the final product into my SharePoint visual webpart. The user control interacts with a LOB system (SQL) and does not reference the SharePoint API at all. (The reason I am building this as a webpart is because I don't need another web app to run this one page, so putting it into a webpart on a new webpart page on my existing site is the best solution IMO.) I would obviously need to import (reference?) my data access classes into my "temp" web app, but think that would not be too much trouble. I realize this will be extra effort to get this set up, but am thinking the payoff will be reduced development time of the actual user control using a little web application vs having to use the compile/build WSP/deploy WSP/reset ISS/test/make a change/repeat cycle that MOSS requires. (I guess SP2010/VS2010 has spoiled me with the native SharePoint tools available.)

    Read the article

  • Setting objct literal property value via asynchronous callback.

    - by typeof
    I'm creating a self-contained javascript utility object that detects advanced browser features. Ideally, my object would look something like this: Support = { borderRadius : false, // values returned by functions gradient : false, // i am defining dataURI : true }; My current problem deals with some code I'm adapting from Weston Ruter's site which detects dataURI support. It attempts to use javascript to create an image with a dataURI source, and uses onload/onerror callbacks to check the width/height. Since onload is asynchronous, I lose my scope and returning true/false does not assign true/false to my object. Here is my attempt: Support = { ... dataURI : function(prop) { prop = prop; // keeps in closure for callback var data = new Image(); data.onload = data.onerror = function(){ if(this.width != 1 || this.height != 1) { that = false; } that = true; } data.src = "data:image/gif;base64,R0lGODlhAQABAIAAAAAAAP///ywAAAAAAQABAAACAUwAOw=="; return -1; }(this) }; I'm executing the anonymous function immediately, passing this (which I hoped was a reference to Support.dataURI), but unfortunately references the window object -- so the value is always -1. I can get it to work by using an externally defined function to assign the value after the Support object is created... but I don't think it's very clean that way. Is there a way for it to be self-contained? Can the object literal's function reference the property it's assigned to?

    Read the article

  • Jquery to hightlight elements in a list

    - by John
    Hi I have a ol list: <ol> <li class="group1">item 1</li> <li class="group1">item 2</li> <li class="group2"> item 3</li> <li class="group3">item 4</li> <li class="group1">item 5</li> <li class="group3"> item 6</li> <ol> and a set of checkboxes which correspond to the class names <input type="checkbox" value="group1" />group 1 <input type="checkbox" value="group2" />group 2 <input type="checkbox" value="group3" />group 3 What I want to happen is that when a user clicks on a checkbox to 'tick' it, any li rows which are not checked are fadedOut (change opacity) and then any rows which have the class which matches the value of the checkbox are highlighter (background colour changed to yellow). So for example if group 3 was clicked, item 4 and item 6 would be highlighted. Then if group 2 was clicked item 3 would be highlighted (item 4 and 6 would remain highlighted). If group 2 was un-ticked, item 3 would become faded out although item 4 and 6 would remain highlighted. The code I have at the moment is: $('input').click(function(){ input = $(this); classVal = "." + input.val(); elements = $(classVal ); if (input.is(':checked')) { elements.css("background-color", "#FFFF00"); } else { elements.css("background-color", ""); } }); This handles the highlighting but does not do the fading of the unchecked elements. I know I can change the opacity using css("opacity", 0.33) or fadeTo("slow", 0.33) but not sure how to handle this in the code and where to put it. If any of my other code can be tidied up also please let me know Thanks

    Read the article

  • Open an Emacs buffer when a command tries to open an editor in shell-mode

    - by Chris Conway
    I like to use Emacs' shell mode, but it has a few deficiencies. One of those is that it's not smart enough to open a new buffer when a shell command tries to invoke an editor. For example with the environment variable VISUAL set to vim I get the following from svn propedit: $ svn propedit svn:externals . "svn-prop.tmp" 2L, 149C[1;1H ~ [4;1H~ [5;1H~ [6;1H~ [7;1H~ ... (It may be hard to tell from the representation, but it's a horrible, ugly mess.) With VISUAL set to "emacs -nw", I get $ svn propedit svn:externals . emacs: Terminal type "dumb" is not powerful enough to run Emacs. It lacks the ability to position the cursor. If that is not the actual type of terminal you have, use the Bourne shell command `TERM=... export TERM' (C-shell: `setenv TERM ...') to specify the correct type. It may be necessary to do `unset TERMINFO' (C-shell: `unsetenv TERMINFO') as well.svn: system('emacs -nw svn-prop.tmp') returned 256 (It works with VISUAL set to just emacs, but only from inside an Emacs X window, not inside a terminal session.) Is there a way to get shell mode to do the right thing here and open up a new buffer on behalf of the command line process?

    Read the article

  • Developing Job References

    - by Joe Smith
    How do you develop references for jobs? I have 6 years of programming experience spanning two jobs, but sadly I don't have a lot of people I can draw on as references. It's been several years since I left my last job, which was at a small company, and I've lost touch with the few people I knew there. I now work at another small company. I think I've gone as far as I can in my current position, and would like to look for greener pastures, but I can't exactly use my current boss as a reference, even though I have a very good repore with him. I'm sure he'd make a great reference down the road, but I'm afraid I'd insult him or jeopardize my current job by mentioning that I'm thinking of leaving and would like him to help me. I've applied to some jobs, and I have gotten several replies like, "Oh, you're exactly what we're looking for. Send us a couple references and we'll schedule an interview. Oh, no references? You must be a psychopath, nevermind." I've tried doing some small freelance work on the side, just so I can have a contact who can vouch for my work, but the competition for even small projects is pretty fierce and I can rarely devote adequate time to freelancing while holding a full time job. In addition, I often encounter a Catch-22 where a lot of freelancing jobs also require references. So how do programmers maintain existing references and develop new ones, especially while holding a full time job?

    Read the article

  • PHP/Javascript limiting amount of checkboxes

    - by Carl294
    Hi everyone Im trying to limit the amount of checkboxes that can be checked, in this case only 3 can be checked. When using plain HTML this works fine. The code can be seen below. HTML example <td ><input type=checkbox name=ckb value=2 onclick='chkcontrol()';></td><td>Perl</td> Javascript Function <script type="text/javascript"> function chkcontrol(j) { var total=0; for(var i=0; i < document.form1.ckb.length; i++){ if(document.form1.ckb[i].checked){ total =total +1;} if(total > 3){ alert("Please Select only three") document.form1.ckb[j].checked = false; return false; } } } </script> The problem appears when replacing the fixed HTML values with values from a MYSQL database. All the information appears correctly, and can be posted to another page via a submit button. However, it seems like the 'value' assigned to each record from the database is not making its way too the javascript function. <td><input name="checkbox[]" type="checkbox" value="<?php echo $rows['TCA_QID'];?>" onclick="chkcontrol();"></td> I have tried changed the name in the javascript function to match the 'checkbox' name.Any advice would be greatly appreciated Thanks

    Read the article

  • $_POST in php 5.3.5 does not work

    - by naji
    dear all iam working in php 5.3.5 this is the html file <html> <body> <form action="welcome.php" method="post"> Name: <input type="text" name="fname" /> Age: <input type="text" name="age" /> <input type="submit" /> </form> </body> </html> and this is the php file <html> <body> Welcome <?php echo $_POST["fname"]; ?>!<br /> You are <?php echo $_POST["age"]; ?> years old. </body> </html> the problem the values are not passed and the output like Welcome ! You are years old. But it has to be like this Welcome John! You are 28 years old. can any one help me please?? naji

    Read the article

  • Enum exeeding the 65535 bytes limit of static initializer... what's best to do?

    - by Daniel Bleisteiner
    I've started a rather large Enum of so called Descriptors that I've wanted to use as a reference list in my model. But now I've come across a compiler/VM limit the first time and so I'm looking for the best solution to handle this. Here is my error : The code for the static initializer is exceeding the 65535 bytes limit It is clear where this comes from - my Enum simply has far to much elements. But I need those elements - there is no way to reduce that set. Initialy I've planed to use a single Enum because I want to make sure that all elements within the Enum are unique. It is used in a Hibernate persistence context where the reference to the Enum is stored as String value in the database. So this must be unique! The content of my Enum can be devided into several groups of elements belonging together. But splitting the Enum would remove the unique safety I get during compile time. Or can this be achieved with multiple Enums in some way? My only current idea is to define some Interface called Descriptor and code several Enums implementing it. This way I hope to be able to use the Hibernate Enum mapping as if it were a single Enum. But I'm not even sure if this will work. And I loose unique safety. Any ideas how to handle that case?

    Read the article

  • dynamical binding or switch/case?

    - by kingkai
    A scene like this: I've different of objects do the similar operation as respective func() implements. There're 2 kinds of solution for func_manager() to call func() according to different objects Solution 1: Use virtual function character specified in c++. func_manager works differently accroding to different object point pass in. class Object{ virtual void func() = 0; } class Object_A : public Object{ void func() {}; } class Object_B : public Object{ void func() {}; } void func_manager(Object* a) { a->func(); } Solution 2: Use plain switch/case. func_manager works differently accroding to different type pass in typedef _type_t { TYPE_A, TYPE_B }type_t; void func_by_a() { // do as func() in Object_A } void func_by_b() { // do as func() in Object_A } void func_manager(type_t type) { switch(type){ case TYPE_A: func_by_a(); break; case TYPE_B: func_by_b(); default: break; } } My Question are 2: 1. at the view point of DESIGN PATTERN, which one is better? 2. at the view point of RUNTIME EFFCIENCE, which one is better? Especailly as the kinds of Object increases, may be up to 10-15 total, which one's overhead oversteps the other? I don't know how switch/case implements innerly, just a bunch of if/else? Thanks very much!

    Read the article

  • What are some methods to prevent double posting in a form? (PHP)

    - by jpjp
    I want to prevent users from accidentally posting a comment twice. I use the PRG (post redirect get) method, so that I insert the data on another page then redirect the user back to the page which shows the comment. This allows users to refresh as many times as they want. However this doesn't work when the user goes back and clicks submit again or when they click submit 100 times really fast. I don't want 100 of the same comments. I looked at related questions on SO and found that a token is best. But I am having trouble using it. //makerandomtoken(20) returns a random 20 length char. <form method="post" ... > <input type="text" id="comments" name="comments" class="commentbox" /><br/> <input type="hidden" name="_token" value="<?php echo $token=makerandomtoken(20); ?>" /> <input type="submit" value="submit" name="submit" /> </form> if (isset($_POST['submit']) && !empty($comments)) { $comments= mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc,trim($_POST['comments'])); //how do I make the if-statment to check if the token has been already set once? if ( ____________){ //don't insert comment because already clicked submit } else{ //insert the comment into the database } } So I have the token as a hidden value, but how do I use that to prevent multiple clicking of submit. METHODS: someone suggested using sessions. I would set the random token to $_SESSION['_token'] and check if that session token is equal to the $_POST['_token'], but how do I do that? When I tried, it still doesn't check

    Read the article

  • jQuery/ajax working on IIS5.1 but not IIS6

    - by Mikejh99
    I'm running a weird issue here. I have code that makes jquery ajax calls to a web service and dynamically adds controls using jquery. Everything works fine on my dev machine running IIS 5.1, but not when deployed to IIS 6. I'm using VS2010/ASP.Net 4.0, C#, jQuery 1.4.2 and jQuery UI 1.8.1. I'm using the same browser for each. It partially works though. The code will add the controls to the page, but they aren't visible until I click them (they aren't visible though). I thought this was a css issue, but the styles are there too. The ajax calls look like this: $.ajax({ url: "/WebServices/AssetManager.asmx/Assets", type: "POST", datatype: "json", async: false, data: "{'q':'" + req.term + "', 'type':'Condition'}", contentType: "application/javascript; charset=utf-8", success: function (data) { res($.map(data.d, function (item) { return { label: item.Name, value: item.Name, id: item.Id, datatype: item.DataType } })) } }) Changing the content-type makes the autocomplete fail. I've quadruple checked and all the paths are correct, there is no document footer enabled in IIS, and I'm not using IIS compression. Any idea why the page will display and work properly in IIS 5 but only partially in IIS 6? (If it failed completely, that'd make more sense!). Is it a jQuery or CSS issue?

    Read the article

  • wpf observableCollection

    - by Asha
    I have an ObservableCollection which is dataContext for my treeview when I try to remove an Item from ObservableCollection I will get an error that Object reference not set to an instance of an object . can you please tell me why this error is happening and what is the solution thanks EDIT 1: The code is something like : class MyClass : INotifyPropertyChanged { //my class code here } public partial class UC_myUserControl : UserControl { private ObservableCollection<MyClass> myCollection = new ObservableCollection<MyClass>(); private void UserControl_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { myCollection.add(new myClass); myTreeView.DataContext = myCollection ; } private void deleteItem() { myCollection.RemoveAt(0); //after removing I get error Which I guess should be something related //to interface update but I don't know how can I solve it } } Exception Detail : System.NullReferenceException was unhandled Message="Object reference not set to an instance of an object." Source="PresentationFramework" EDIT 3: I have a style which is for my treeitem to keep the treeitems expanded <Style TargetType="TreeViewItem"> <Setter Property="IsExpanded" Value="True" /> </Style> and with commenting this part I wont get any error !!! Now I want to change my question to why having this style is causing error ?

    Read the article

  • loading files through one file to hide locations

    - by Phil Jackson
    Hello all. Im currently doing a project in which my client does not want to location ( ie folder names and locations ) to be displayed. so I have done something like this: <link href="./?0000=css&0001=0001&0002=css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <link href="./?0000=css&0001=0002&0002=css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script src="./?0000=js&0001=0000&0002=script" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> <div id="wrapper"> <div id="header"> <div id="left_header"> <img src="./?0000=jpg&0001=0001&0002=pic" width="277" height="167" alt="" /> </div> <div id="right_header"> <div id="top-banner"></div> <ul id="navigation"> <li><a href="#" title="#" id="nav-home">Home</a></li> <li><a href="#" title="#">Signup</a></li> all works but my question being is or will this cause any complications i.e. speed of the site as all requests are being made to one single file and then loading in the appropriate data. Regards, Phil

    Read the article

  • Google Maps: Simple app not working on IE

    - by Peter Bridger
    We have a simple Google Maps traffic application up at: http://www.avonandsomerset.police.uk/newsroom/traffic/ For some reason it's recently stopped working in IE correctly. At this point in time it was using V2 of the API, so I've just upgraded it to use V3 - but it still won't work in IE. It works fine in Chrome & Firefox. But in all versions of IE I've tired (6,7,8) the Google Map doesn't load fully. The problem The Google Map DIV will generally load all the controls (Zoom, Powered by Google, map types) but the actual map tiles do not appear in IE. I can just see the grey background of the DIV What I've tried I've commented down the JavaScript code to just the following on the page, but it still has the same problem: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://maps.google.com/maps/api/js?sensor=false"></script> <script type="text/javascript" > var map; $(document).ready(function () { initialize(); // Set-up Google map }); function initialize() { var options = { zoom: 9, center: new google.maps.LatLng(51.335759, -2.870178), mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }; map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("googleMap"), options); } </script>

    Read the article

  • confusion about using types instead of gtts in oracle

    - by Omnipresent
    I am trying to convert queries like below to types so that I won't have to use GTT: insert into my_gtt_table_1 (house, lname, fname, MI, fullname, dob) (select house, lname, fname, MI, fullname, dob from (select 'REG' house, mbr_last_name lname, mbr_first_name fname, mbr_mi MI, mbr_first_name || mbr_mi || mbr_last_name fullname, mbr_dob dob from table_1 a, table_b where a.head = b.head and mbr_number = '01' and mbr_last_name = v_last_name) c above is just a sample but complex queries are bigger than this. the above is inside a stored procedure. So to avoid the gtt (my_gtt_table_1). I did the following: create or replace type lname_row as object ( house varchar2(30) lname varchar2(30), fname varchar2(30), MI char(1), fullname VARCHAR2(63), dob DATE ) create or replace type lname_exact as table of lname_row Now in the SP: type lname_exact is table of <what_table_should_i_put_here>%rowtype; tab_a_recs lname_exact; In the above I am not sure what table to put as my query has nested subqueries. query in the SP: (I am trying this for sample purpose to see if it works) select lname_row('', '', '', '', '', '', sysdate) bulk collect into tab_a_recs from table_1; I am getting errors like : ORA-00913: too many values I am really confused and stuck with this :(

    Read the article

  • certain BitMapData types dont work in a beginBitmapFill() method.

    - by numerical25
    Say I loaded a bitMap into a bitmapData type called tileImage. tileImage = Bitmap(loader.content).bitmapData; say I decided to add that bitmap into a sprite like below this.graphics.beginBitmapFill(tileImage ); this.graphics.drawRect(0, 0,tWidth ,tHeight ); It would of course work. But say If I decided to add tileImage into a another bitMapData type like below var tImage:BitmapData = new BitmapData(30,30); tImage.copyPixels(tileImage,tRect,tPoint); and I then added tImage to my sprite this.graphics.beginBitmapFill(tImage); this.graphics.drawRect(0, 0,tWidth ,tHeight ); I then get the following error ArgumentError: Error #2015: Invalid BitmapData. tRect and tPoint are all predefined and set. tRect x and y are 0,0 and the width and height are 30x30. tPoint is 0,0 as well. Yes I understand that this is a very brief explanation but I wanted to elaborate that a bitMapdata type that has its data from the copypixel method does not work with beginBitmapFill. but a varible that gets its data straigt from the source, does. One works, and one doesnt, yet they are both the same data types. why is this ?

    Read the article

  • Choosing a W3C valid DOCTYPE and charset combination?

    - by George Carter
    I have a homepage with the following: <DOCTYPE html> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> My choice of the DOCTYPE "html" is based on a recommendation for html pages using jQuery. My choice of charset=utf=8 is based on a recommendation to make my pages readable on most browsers. But these choices may be wrong. When I run this page thru the W3C HTML validator, I get messages you see below. Any way I can eliminate the 2 errors? ! Using experimental feature: HTML5 Conformance Checker. The validator checked your document with an experimental feature: HTML5 Conformance Checker. This feature has been made available for your convenience, but be aware that it may be unreliable, or not perfectly up to date with the latest development of some cutting-edge technologies. If you find any issue with this feature, please report them. Thank you. Validation Output: 2 Errors 1. Error Line 18, Column 70: Changing character encoding utf-8 and reparsing. …ntent-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> 2. Error Line 18, Column 70: Changing encoding at this point would need non-streamable behavior. …ntent-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8">

    Read the article

  • Going "behind Hibernate's back" to update foreign key values without an associated entity

    - by Alex Cruise
    Updated: I wound up "solving" the problem by doing the opposite! I now have the entity reference field set as read-only (insertable=false updatable=false), and the foreign key field read-write. This means I need to take special care when saving new entities, but on querying, the entity properties get resolved for me. I have a bidirectional one-to-many association in my domain model, where I'm using JPA annotations and Hibernate as the persistence provider. It's pretty much your bog-standard parent/child configuration, with one difference being that I want to expose the parent's foreign key as a separate property of the child alongside the reference to a parent instance, like so: @Entity public class Child { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @Column(name="parent_id", insertable=false, updatable=false) private Long parentId; @ManyToOne(cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @JoinColumn(name="parent_id") private Parent parent; private long timestamp; } @Entity public class Parent { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @OrderBy("timestamp") @OneToMany(mappedBy="parent", cascade=CascadeType.ALL, fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List<Child> children; } This works just fine most of the time, but there are many (legacy) cases when I'd like to put an invalid value in the parent_id column without having to create a bogus Parent first. Unfortunately, Hibernate won't save values assigned to the parentId field due to insertable=false, updatable=false, which it requires when the same column is mapped to multiple properties. Is there any nice way to "go behind Hibernate's back" and sneak values into that field without having to drop down to JDBC or implement an interceptor? Thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 516 517 518 519 520 521 522 523 524 525 526 527  | Next Page >