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  • Google Maps: Simple app not working on IE

    - by Peter Bridger
    We have a simple Google Maps traffic application up at: http://www.avonandsomerset.police.uk/newsroom/traffic/ For some reason it's recently stopped working in IE correctly. At this point in time it was using V2 of the API, so I've just upgraded it to use V3 - but it still won't work in IE. It works fine in Chrome & Firefox. But in all versions of IE I've tired (6,7,8) the Google Map doesn't load fully. The problem The Google Map DIV will generally load all the controls (Zoom, Powered by Google, map types) but the actual map tiles do not appear in IE. I can just see the grey background of the DIV What I've tried I've commented down the JavaScript code to just the following on the page, but it still has the same problem: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://maps.google.com/maps/api/js?sensor=false"></script> <script type="text/javascript" > var map; $(document).ready(function () { initialize(); // Set-up Google map }); function initialize() { var options = { zoom: 9, center: new google.maps.LatLng(51.335759, -2.870178), mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }; map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("googleMap"), options); } </script>

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  • loading files through one file to hide locations

    - by Phil Jackson
    Hello all. Im currently doing a project in which my client does not want to location ( ie folder names and locations ) to be displayed. so I have done something like this: <link href="./?0000=css&0001=0001&0002=css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <link href="./?0000=css&0001=0002&0002=css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script src="./?0000=js&0001=0000&0002=script" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> <div id="wrapper"> <div id="header"> <div id="left_header"> <img src="./?0000=jpg&0001=0001&0002=pic" width="277" height="167" alt="" /> </div> <div id="right_header"> <div id="top-banner"></div> <ul id="navigation"> <li><a href="#" title="#" id="nav-home">Home</a></li> <li><a href="#" title="#">Signup</a></li> all works but my question being is or will this cause any complications i.e. speed of the site as all requests are being made to one single file and then loading in the appropriate data. Regards, Phil

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  • Retrieving models from form with ModelMultipleChoiceField

    - by colinjameswebb
    I am having difficulties with forms, specifically ModelMultipleChoiceField. I've pieced together this code from various examples, but it sadly doesn't work. I would like to be able to: Search for some Works on work_search.html Display the results of the search, with checkboxes next to each result Select the Works I want, via the checkboxes After pressing Add, display which works were selected. I believe everything is okay except the last part. The page simply displays "works" :( Here is the code - sorry about the length. Models.py class Work(models.Model): title = models.CharField(max_length=200) artist = models.CharField(max_length=200) writers = models.CharField(max_length=200) def __unicode__(self): return self.title + ' - ' + self.artist forms.py class WorkSelectForm(forms.Form): def __init__(self, queryset, *args, **kwargs): super(WorkSelectForm, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) self.fields['works'] = forms.ModelMultipleChoiceField(queryset=queryset, widget=forms.CheckboxSelectMultiple()) views.py def work_search(request): query = request.GET.get('q', '') if query: qset = ( Q(title__icontains=query) | Q(artist__icontains=query) | Q(writers__icontains=query) ) results = Work.objects.filter(qset).distinct() form = WorkSelectForm(results) return render_to_response("work_search.html", {"form": form, "query": query }) else: results = [] return render_to_response("work_search.html", {"query": query }) def add_works(request): #if request.method == POST: form = WorkSelectForm(request.POST) #if form.isvalid(): items = form.fields['works'].queryset return render_to_response("add_works.html", {"items":items}) work_search.html {% extends "base.html" %} {% block content %} <h1>Search</h1> <form action="." method="GET"> <label for="q">Search: </label> <input type="text" name="q" value="{{ query|escape }}"> <input type="submit" value="Search"> </form> {% if query %} <h2>Results for "{{ query|escape }}":</h2> <form action="add_works" method="post"> <ul> {% if form %} {{ form.as_ul }} {% endif %} </ul> <input type="submit" value="Add"> </form> {% endif %} {% endblock %} add_works.html {% extends "base.html" %} {% block content %} {% if items %} {% for item in items %} {{ item }} {% endfor %} {% else %} <p>Nothing selected</p> {% endif %} {% endblock %}

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  • WCF data services (OData), query with inheritance limitation?

    - by Mathieu Hétu
    Project: WCF Data service using internally EF4 CTP5 Code-First approach. I configured entities with inheritance (TPH). See previous question on this topic: Previous question about multiple entities- same table The mapping works well, and unit test over EF4 confirms that queries runs smoothly. My entities looks like this: ContactBase (abstract) Customer (inherits from ContactBase), this entity has also several Navigation properties toward other entities Resource (inherits from ContactBase) I have configured a discriminator, so both Customer and Resource map to the same table. Again, everythings works fine on the Ef4 point of view (unit tests all greens!) However, when exposing this DBContext over WCF Data services, I get: - CustomerBases sets exposed (Customers and Resources sets seems hidden, is it by design?) - When I query over Odata on Customers, I get this error: Navigation Properties are not supported on derived entity types. Entity Set 'ContactBases' has a instance of type 'CodeFirstNamespace.Customer', which is an derived entity type and has navigation properties. Please remove all the navigation properties from type 'CodeFirstNamespace.Customer'. Stacktrace: at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.WriteObjectProperties(IExpandedResult expanded, Object customObject, ResourceType resourceType, Uri absoluteUri, String relativeUri, SyndicationItem item, DictionaryContent content, EpmSourcePathSegment currentSourceRoot) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.WriteEntryElement(IExpandedResult expanded, Object element, ResourceType expectedType, Uri absoluteUri, String relativeUri, SyndicationItem target) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.<DeferredFeedItems>d__b.MoveNext() at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteItems(XmlWriter writer, IEnumerable`1 items, Uri feedBaseUri) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteFeedTo(XmlWriter writer, SyndicationFeed feed, Boolean isSourceFeed) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteFeed(XmlWriter writer) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteTo(XmlWriter writer) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.WriteTopLevelElements(IExpandedResult expanded, IEnumerator elements, Boolean hasMoved) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.Serializer.WriteRequest(IEnumerator queryResults, Boolean hasMoved) at System.Data.Services.ResponseBodyWriter.Write(Stream stream) Seems like a limitation of WCF Data services... is it? Not much documentation can be found on the web about WCF Data services (OData) and inheritance specifications. How can I overpass this exception? I need these navigation properties on derived entities, and inheritance seems the only way to provide mapping of 2 entites on the same table with Ef4 CTP5... Any thoughts?

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  • Mysql partitioning: Partitions outside of date range is included

    - by Sturlum
    Hi, I have just tried to configure partitions based on date, but it seems that mysql still includes a partition with no relevant data. It will use the relevant partition but also include the oldest for some reason. Am I doing it wrong? The version is 5.1.44 (MyISAM) I first added a few partitions based on "day", which is of type "date" ALTER TABLE ptest PARTITION BY RANGE(TO_DAYS(day)) ( PARTITION p1 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS('2009-08-01')), PARTITION p2 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS('2009-11-01')), PARTITION p3 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS('2010-02-01')), PARTITION p4 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS('2010-05-01')) ); After a query, I find that it uses the "old" partition, that should not contain any relevant data. mysql> explain partitions select * from ptest where day between '2010-03-11' and '2010-03-12'; +----+-------------+------------+------------+-------+---------------+------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | id | select_type | table | partitions | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+------------+------------+-------+---------------+------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | ptest | p1,p4 | range | day | day | 3 | NULL | 79 | Using where | +----+-------------+------------+------------+-------+---------------+------+---------+------+------+-------------+ When I select a single day, it works: mysql> explain partitions select * from ptest where day = '2010-03-11'; +----+-------------+------------+------------+------+---------------+------+---------+-------+------+-------+ | id | select_type | table | partitions | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+------------+------------+------+---------------+------+---------+-------+------+-------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | ptest | p4 | ref | day | day | 3 | const | 39 | | +----+-------------+------------+------------+------+---------------+------+---------+-------+------+-------+

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  • Tracking down slow managed DLL loading

    - by Alex K
    I am faced with the following issue and at this point I feel like I'm severely lacking some sort of tool, I just don't know what that tool is, or what exactly it should be doing. Here is the setup: I have a 3rd party DLL that has to be registered in GAC. This all works fine and good on pretty much every machine our software was deployed on before. But now we got 2 machines, seemingly identical to the ones we know work (they are cloned from the same image and stuffed with the same hardware, so pretty much the only difference is software settings, over which I went over and over, and they seem fine). Now the problem, the DLL in GAC takes a very long time to load. At least I believe this is the issue, what I can say definitively is that instantiating a single class from that DLL is the slow part. Once it is loaded, thing fly as they always have. But while on known-good machines the DLL loads so fast that a timestamp in the log doesn't even change, on these 2 machines it take over 1min to load. Knowns: I have no access to the source, so I can't debug through the DLL. Our app is the only one that uses it (so shouldn't be simultaneous access issues). There is only one version of this DLL in existance, so it shouldn't be a matter of version conflict. The GAC reference is being used (if I uninstall the DLL from GAC, an exception will be thrown about the missing GAC reference). Could someone with a greater skill in debug-fu suggest what I can do to track down the root cause of this issue?

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  • accessing private variable from member function in PHP

    - by Carson Myers
    I have derived a class from Exception, basically like so: class MyException extends Exception { private $_type; public function type() { return $this->_type; //line 74 } public function __toString() { include "sometemplate.php"; return ""; } } Then, I derived from MyException like so: class SpecialException extends MyException { private $_type = "superspecial"; } If I throw new SpecialException("bla") from a function, catch it, and go echo $e, then the __toString function should load a template, display that, and then not actually return anything to echo. This is basically what's in the template file <div class="<?php echo $this->type(); ?>class"> <p> <?php echo $this->message; ?> </p> </div> in my mind, this should definitely work. However, I get the following error when an exception is thrown and I try to display it: Fatal error: Cannot access private property SpecialException::$_type in C:\path\to\exceptions.php on line 74 Can anyone explain why I am breaking the rules here? Am I doing something horribly witty with this code? Is there a much more idiomatic way to handle this situation? The point of the $_type variable is (as shown) that I want a different div class to be used depending on the type of exception caught.

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  • Focus CSS tag in Internet Explorer 8

    - by Sam
    This is driving me nuts. http://www.cssdrive.com/index.php/examples/exampleitem/focus_pseudo_class This is an example of using the hover pseudo-class. Works fine in Chrome and IE. When I save locally it works fine in Chrome but won't work in IE. What am I doing wrong!? <link rel="Stylesheet" href="style.css" /> <form> <p>1) Name:<br /> <input type="text" size="40"></p> <p>2) Email address:<br /> <input type="text" size="40"></p> <p>3) Comments:<br /> <textarea rows="5" name="comments" cols="45" wrap="virtual"></textarea></p> <p><input id="actualsubmit" type="submit" value="Submit"></p> </form> style.css: input:focus, textarea:focus{ background-color: lightyellow; }

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  • [solved] IE6 PNG-transparency CSS hack not working

    - by John
    I looked around and decided to use a CSS approach rather than rely on JS... I figure the kind of corporate users stuck with IE6 might also have JS disabled by IT departments. So In my HTML I have: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html;charset=utf-8" /> <title>My Page</title> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="default.css" /> <!--[if IE 6]><link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="ie6.css"><![endif]--> </head> <body> <img src="media/logo.png"/> </body> Then my ie6.css consists simply of: img { filter: progid:DXImageTransform.Microsoft.AlphaImageLoader(...); } However none of this makes the slightest difference, no transparency. I commented out all the rest of the page so it is literally that one and still no luck. I removed the default.css stylesheet and still no difference. EDIT: I now got it working, using the .htc method, loading that file in a conditional IE6 test block. It turned out the problem I was having was that Windows 7 had 'locked' the file (I don't even know what this means) and this blocked IE from loading/using it.

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  • hy i dont get the check value in check box?

    - by udaya
    Hi I have a check box when check that check box the id corresponding to the check box is placed on a text box ... but when there is only single value in the database i cant get the check value why? here is my code <? if(isset($AcceptFriend)) {?> <form action="<?=site_url()?>friends/Accept_Friend" name="orderform" id="orderform" method="post" style="background:#CCCC99"> <input type="text" name="chId" id="chId" > <table border="0" height="50%" id="chkbox" width="50%" > <tr> <? foreach($AcceptFriend as $row) {?> <tr> <td>Name</td><td><?=$row['dFrindName'].'</br>';?></td> <td> <input type="checkbox" name="checkId" id="checkId" value="<? echo $row['dMemberId']; ?>" onClick="get_check_value()" ></td> </tr> <? }}?> </tr> <tr> <td width="10px"><input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" class="buttn" value="AcceptFriend"></td></tr> </table> </form> This is the script i am using function get_check_value() { var c_value = ""; for (var i=0; i < document.orderform.checkId.length; i++) { if (document.orderform.checkId[i].checked) { c_value = c_value + document.orderform.checkId[i].value + "\n"; } } alert(c_value); document.getElementById('chId').value= c_value; }

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  • Why are Facebook Likes Insisting on using Wrong Product Image...?

    - by Joan Kent
    Firstly, I'm not a web developer so please be patient. I have read the other posts but I think i have everything covered. My website http://www.joaniesgifts.co.uk includes the like button on the product pages. However, I've found that certain product pages are using the incorrect image when a user likes the page. For example - http://www.joaniesgifts.co.uk/terramundi-money-pots/terramundi-money-pot-holiday-fund I think this may have been down to an original incorrect setup which is now corrected. However, the problem remains... The only thing I have to go on :- if i use the facebook url linter (developers.facebook.com/tools/debug) on the above product page, I receive the following error :- Object at URL 'http://www.joaniesgifts.co.uk/terramundi-money-pot-holiday-fund' of type '213689662010141:product' is invalid because the domain 'www.joaniesgifts.co.uk' is not allowed for the application id '213689662010141' which owns the specified object type. If you are the owner of this application, you can verify your configured 'Site Domain' at developers.facebook.com/apps/213689662010141. (I have verified my site's domain) Everything else appears fine except it is also showing the wrong image!! However, under Raw Open Graph Document Information it has the correct link! If I then click graph api - graph.facebook.com/10150450766583352 it again shows the wrong image was linked! I've no idea what else to do - can you help me? Kind Regards, Joan PS Graph API shows the incorrect image after a scrape only minutes ago { "url": "http://www.joaniesgifts.co.uk/terramundi-money-pot-holiday-fund", "type": "website", "title": "Terramundi Money Pot - Holiday Fund", "image": [ { "url": "http://www.joaniesgifts.co.uk/index.php?route=product\u00252Fproduct\u00252Fcaptcha" } ], "updated_time": "2011-11-11T18:54:38+0000", "id": "10150450766583352" }

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  • Combining two-part SQL query into one query

    - by user332523
    Hello, I have a SQL query that I'm currently solving by doing two queries. I am wondering if there is a way to do it in a single query that makes it more efficient. Consider two tables: Transaction_Entries table and Transactions, each one defined below: Transactions - id - reference_number (varchar) Transaction_Entries - id - account_id - transaction_id (references Transactions table) Notes: There are multiple transaction entries per transaction. Some transactions are related, and will have the same reference_number string. To get all transaction entries for Account X, then I would do SELECT E.*, T.reference_number FROM Transaction_Entries E JOIN Transactions T ON (E.transaction_id=T.id) where E.account_id = X The next part is the hard part. I want to find all related transactions, regardless of the account id. First I make a list of all the unique reference numbers I found in the previous result set. Then for each one, I can query all the transactions that have that reference number. Assume that I hold all the rows from the previous query in PreviousResultSet UniqueReferenceNumbers = GetUniqueReferenceNumbers(PreviousResultSet) // in Java foreach R in UniqueReferenceNumbers // in Java SELECT * FROM Transaction_Entries where transaction_id IN (SELECT * FROM Transactions WHERE reference_number=R Any suggestions how I can put this into a single efficient query?

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  • Moving from NHibernate to FluentNHibernate: assembly error (related to versions)?

    - by goober
    Not sure where to start, but I had gotten the most recent version of NHibernate, successfully mapped the most simple of business objects, etc. When trying to move to FluentNHibernate and do the same thing, I got this error message on build: "System.IO.FileLoadException: Could not load file or assembly 'NHibernate, Version=2.1.0.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4' or one of its dependencies. The located assembly's manifest definition does not match the assembly reference." Background: I'm new to Hibernate, NHibernate, and FluentNHibernate -- but not to .NET, C#, etc. Database I have a database table called Category: (PK) CategoryID (type: int), unique, auto-incrementing UserID (type: uniqueidentifier) -- given the value of the user Guid in ASP.NET database Title (type: varchar(50) -- the title of the category Components involved: I have a SessionProviderClass which creates the mapping to the database I have a Category class which has all the virtual methods for FluentNHibernate to override I have a CategoryMap : ClassMap class, which does the fluent mappings for the entity I have a CategoryRepository class that contains the method to add & save the category I have the TestCatAdd.aspx file which uses the CategoryRepository class. Would be happy to post code for any of those, but I'm not sure that it's necessary, as I think the issue is that somewhere there's a version conflict between what FluentNHibernate references and the NHibernate I have installed from before. Thanks in advance for any help you can give!

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  • Applying correct bindings to WPF datatemplate to maximize reusability

    - by johncatfish
    Hi. I have a WPF application. I want to apply that datatemplate to a Listbox filled with records from Table02. Then, for each listboxitem I need to bind the combobox to the same database table (Table01), but for each listboxitem the selected item will vary. It will be a foreign key to Table01. <DataTemplate x:Key="Table01DataTemplate"> <Grid> <ComboBox ItemsSource="{Binding Model.IQueryable_Table01, RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}" SelectedValue="{Binding Table01_ForeignKey}" DisplayMemberPath="name" SelectedValuePath="id" /> <!-- Other stuff --> </Grid> </DataTemplate> <ListBox x:Name="lbTest" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource Table01DataTemplate}" /> <!-- In .cs file lbTest.DataContext = this; --> Notes: Model.IQueryable_Table01 is a property which encapsulates a Linq-to-sql call returning a IQueryable. lbTest will be filled by setting ItemsSource with a Linq-to-sql call. Is this a good way to do the bindings in a data template for a maximum reusability? I also thought of replacing AncestorType={x:Type Window} with lbTest.DataContext = this; AncestorType={x:Type Application} and lbTest.DataContext = App.Current; But it didn't work (Exception on loading) and I don't know if there's any caveats or down-sides to this approach. Is this good? Any suggestions or improvements? Thanks.

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  • jquery append a tr after calling

    - by marharépa
    Hello! I've got a table. <table id="servers" ...> ... {section name=i loop=$ownsites} <tr id="site_id_{$ownsites[i].id}"> ... <td>{$ownsites[i].phone}</td> <td class="icon"><a id="{$ownsites[i].id}" onClick="return makedeleterow(this.getAttribute('id'));" ...></a></td> </tr> {/section} <tbody> </table> And this java script. <script type="text/javascript"> function makedeleterow(id) { $('#delete').remove(); $('#servers').append($(document.createElement("tr")).attr({id: "delete"})); $('#delete').append($(document.createElement("td")).attr({colspan: "9", id: "deleter"})); $('#deleter').text('Biztosan törölni szeretnéd ezt a weblapod?'); $('#deleter').append($(document.createElement("input")).attr({type: "submit", id: id, onClick: "return truedeleterow(this.getAttribute('id'))"})); $('#deleter').append($(document.createElement("input")).attr({type: "hidden", name: "website_del", value: id})); } </script> It's workin fine, it makes a TR after the table's last tr and put the info to it, and the delete also works fine. But i'd like to make this AFTER the tr which calling the script. How can i do this? I've tried it with closest() but not work :(

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  • Avoiding seasonality assumption for stl() or decompose() in R

    - by user303922
    Hello everybody, I have high frequency commodity price data that I need to analyze. My objective is to not assume any seasonal component and just identify a trend. Here is where I run into problems with R. There are two main functions that I know of to analyze this time series: decompose() and stl(). The problem is that they both take a ts object type with a frequency parameter greater than or equal to 2. Is there some way I can assume a frequency of 1 per unit time and still analyze this time series using R? I'm afraid that if I assume frequency greater than 1 per unit time, and seasonality is calculated using the frequency parameter, then my forecasts are going to depend on that assumption. names(crude.data)=c('Date','Time','Price') names(crude.data) freq = 2 win.graph() plot(crude.data$Time,crude.data$Price, type="l") crude.data$Price = ts(crude.data$Price,frequency=freq) I want frequency to be 1 per unit time but then decompose() and stl() don't work! dim(crude.data$Price) decom = decompose(crude.data$Price) win.graph() plot(decom$random[2:200],type="line") acf(decom$random[freq:length(decom$random-freq)]) Thank you.

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  • IBM WESB/WAS JCA security configuration

    - by user594883
    I'm working with IBM tools. I have a Websphere ESB (WESB) and a CICS transaction gateway (CTG). The basic set-up is as follows: A SOAP service needs data from CICS. The SOAP-service is connecting to service bus (WESB) to handle data and protocol transformation and then WESB calls the CTG which in turn calls CICS and the reply is handled vice verse (synchronously). WESB calls the CTG using Resource Adapter and JCA connector (or CICS adapter as it is called in WESB). Now, I have all the pieces in place and working. My question is about the security, and even though I'm working with WESB, the answer is probably the same as in Websphere Application Server (WAS). The Resource Adaper is secured using JAAS - J2C authentication data. I have configured the security using J2C authentication data entry, so basically I have a reference in the application I'm running and at runtime the application does a lookup for the security attributes from the server. So basically I'm always accessing the CICS adapter with the same security reference. My problem is that I need to access the resource in more dynamic way in the future. The security cannot be welded into the application anymore but instead given as a parameter. Could some WESB or WAS guru help me out, how this could be done in WESB/WAS exactly?

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  • Jquery code breaks page Javascript

    - by Graham
    I required a function to remove URLs from <a> divs found within <div class="rj_insertcode">. Not being familiar with with direction to tackle this, I eventually mustered up the following Jquery code: <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> <script src="jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('div.rj_insertcode a').each(function() { $(this).replaceWith($(this).html()); }); }); </script> </head> My site uses Joomla CMS and I was able to add the above script to the bottom of the template index.php. It works quite well and removes the links generated between the defined tags. My problem: Pages that also include JavaScript do not operate correctly. JavaScript appears to be disabled or not functioning. What can I change to ensure JavaScript still operates correctly, or is there another method I could adopt?

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  • c programming malloc question

    - by user535256
    Hello guys, Just got query regarding c malloc() function. I am read()ing x number of bytes from a file to get lenght of filename, like ' read(file, &namelen, sizeof(unsigned char)); ' . The variable namelen is a type unsigned char and was written into file as that type (1 byte). Now namelen has the lenght of filename ie namelen=8 if file name was 'data.txt', plus extra /0 at end, that working fine. Now I have a structure recording file info, ie filename, filelenght, content size etc. struct fileinfo { char *name; ...... other variable like size etc }; struct fileinfo *files; Question: I want to make that files.name variable the size of namelen ie 8 so I can successfully write the filename into it, like ' files[i].name = malloc(namelen) ' However, I dont want it to be malloc(sizeof(namelen)) as that would make it file.name[1] as the size of its type unsigned char. I want it to be the value thats stored inside variable &namelen ie 8 so file.name[8] so data.txt can be read() from file as 8 bytes and written straight into file.name[8? Is there a way to do this my current code is this and returns 4 not 8 files[i].name = malloc(namelen); //strlen(files[i].name) - returns 4 //perhaps something like malloc(sizeof(&namelen)) but does not work Thanks for any suggestions Have tried suggested suggestions guys, but I now get a segmentation fault error using: printf("\nsizeofnamelen=%x\n",namelen); //gives 8 for data.txt files[i].name = malloc(namelen + 1); read(file, &files[i].name, namelen); int len=strlen(files[i].name); printf("\nnamelen=%d",len); printf("\nname=%s\n",files[i].name); When I try to open() file with that files[i].name variable it wont open so the data does not appear to be getting written inside the read() &files[i].name and strlen() causes segemntation error as well as trying to print the filename

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  • Form submits but by passing the form validation when button.click is used

    - by Cuty Pie
    I am using form validation plugin as well as html5 attribute=recquired with input type=button or submit and fancybox.when button is clicked ,both validation proceedures work(notification of empty inputs appeare),but instead of this notification ,form is submitted. If I dont use button.click function but use simple submit.then validation works perfectly plugin==http://validatious.org/ javascript function $(document).ready(function() { $('#send').click(function() { $(this).attr("value", 'Applying...'); var id = getParam('ID'); $.ajax({ type:'POST', url:"send.php", data:{option:'catapply', tittle:$('#tittle').val(), aud:aud, con:con, adv:adv, mid:$('#mid').val(), aud2:aud, cid:$('#cid').val(), scid:$('#scname option[selected="saa"]').val(), gtt:$('input[name=gt]:radio:checked').val(), sr:$(":input").serialize() + '&aud=' + aud}, success:function(jd) { $('#' + id).fadeOut("fast", function() { $(this).before("<strong>Success! Your form has been submitted, thanks :)</strong>"); setTimeout("$.fancybox.close()", 1000); }); } }); }); }); AND Html is here <form id="form2" class="validate" style="display: none" > <input type='submit' value='Apply' id="send" class="sendaf validate_any" name="jobforming"/>

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  • Async task ASP.net HttpContext.Current.Items is empty - How do handle this?

    - by GuruC
    We are running a very large web application in asp.net MVC .NET 4.0. Recently we had an audit done and the performance team says that there were a lot of null reference exceptions. So I started investigating it from the dumps and event viewer. My understanding was as follows: We are using Asyn Tasks in our controllers. We rely on HttpContext.Current.Items hashtable to store a lot of Application level values. Task<Articles>.Factory.StartNew(() => { System.Web.HttpContext.Current = ControllerContext.HttpContext.ApplicationInstance.Context; var service = new ArticlesService(page); return service.GetArticles(); }).ContinueWith(t => SetResult(t, "articles")); So we are copying the context object onto the new thread that is spawned from Task factory. This context.Items is used again in the thread wherever necessary. Say for ex: public class SomeClass { internal static int StreamID { get { if (HttpContext.Current != null) { return (int)HttpContext.Current.Items["StreamID"]; } else { return DEFAULT_STREAM_ID; } } } This runs fine as long as number of parallel requests are optimal. My questions are as follows: 1. When the load is more and there are too many parallel requests, I notice that HttpContext.Current.Items is empty. I am not able to figure out a reason for this and this causes all the null reference exceptions. 2. How do we make sure it is not null ? Any workaround if present ? NOTE: I read through in StackOverflow and people have questions like HttpContext.Current is null - but in my case it is not null and its empty. I was reading one more article where the author says that sometimes request object is terminated and it may cause problems since dispose is already called on objects. I am doing a copy of Context object - its just a shallow copy and not a deep copy.

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  • jquery script that used to work is not working with jquery 1.4.2

    - by Zayatzz
    ... and i cant figure out why. The script is following: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://path/to/js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function openMediaPlayer() { $('#flashMovie').animate({'height':'333px'}); } function closeMediaPlayer() { $('#flashMovie').animate({'height':'80px'}); } jQuery(function($){ $('#videoholder').bind('mouseenter', function(){ openMediaPlayer(); }); $('#videoholder').bind('mouseleave', function(){ closeMediaPlayer(); }); }); </script> <div id="videoholder" style="height:80px;width:412px;"> <object width="412" height="80" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" id="flashMovie" name="flashMovie" style="height: 80px;" data="http://path/to/Player.swf"><param name="menu" value="false"><param name="bgcolor" value="#666666"><param name="allowFullscreen" value="true"><param name="flashvars" value="playlistURL=http://path/to/Player/data/playlist.xml"></object> </div> pure and simple resizing flash object. It worked with older(1.3.2) jquery verision. The animate just does not work. Can anyone tell me what i should change to get it working again? Alan.

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  • Explanation of `self` usage during dealloc?

    - by Greg
    I'm trying to lock down my understanding of proper memory management within Objective-C. I've gotten into the habit of explicitly declaring self.myProperty rather than just myProperty because I was encountering occasional scenarios where a property would not be set to the reference that I intended. Now, I'm reading Apple documentation on releasing IBOutlets, and they say that all outlets should be set to nil during dealloc. So, I put this in place as follows and experienced crashes as a result: - (void)dealloc { [self.dataModel close]; [self.dataModel release], self.dataModel = nil; [super dealloc]; } So, I tried taking out the "self" references, like so: - (void)dealloc { [dataModel close]; [dataModel release], dataModel = nil; [super dealloc]; } This second system seems to work as expected. However, it has me a bit confused. Why would self cause a crash in that case, when I thought self was a fairly benign reference more used as a formality than anything else? Also, if self is not appropriate in this case, then I have to ask: when should you include self references, and when should you not?

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  • Request for advice about class design, inheritance/aggregation

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I have started writing my own WebDAV server class in .NET, and the first class I'm starting with is a WebDAVListener class, modelled after how the HttpListener class works. Since I don't want to reimplement the core http protocol handling, I will use HttpListener for all its worth, and thus I have a question. What would the suggested way be to handle this: Implement all the methods and properties found inside HttpListener, just changing the class types where it matters (ie. the GetContext + EndGetContext methods would return a different class for WebDAV contexts), and storing and using a HttpListener object internally Construct WebDAVListener by passing it a HttpListener class to use? Create a wrapper for HttpListener with an interface, and constrct WebDAVListener by passing it an object implementing this interface? If going the route of passing a HttpListener (disguised or otherwise) to the WebDAVListener, would you expose the underlying listener object through a property, or would you expect the program that used the class to keep a reference to the underlying HttpListener? Also, in this case, would you expose some of the methods of HttpListener through the WebDAVListener, like Start and Stop, or would you again expect the program that used it to keep the HttpListener reference around for all those things? My initial reaction tells me that I want a combination. For one thing, I would like my WebDAVListener class to look like a complete implementation, hiding the fact that there is a HttpListener object beneath it. On the other hand, I would like to build unit-tests without actually spinning up a networked server, so some kind of mocking ability would be nice to have as well, which suggests I would like the interface-wrapper way. One way I could solve this would be this: public WebDAVListener() : WebDAVListener(new HttpListenerWrapper()) { } public WebDAVListener(IHttpListenerWrapper listener) { } And then I would implement all the methods of HttpListener (at least all those that makes sense) in my own class, by mostly just chaining the call to the underlying HttpListener object. What do you think? Final question: If I go the way of the interface, assuming the interface maps 1-to-1 onto the HttpListener class, and written just to add support for mocking, is such an interface called a wrapper or an adapter?

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  • Help with active record relations

    - by Christian Fazzini
    class CreateActivities < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :activities do |t| t.references :user t.references :media t.integer :artist_id t.string :type t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :activities end end class Fan < Activity belongs_to :user, :counter_cache => true end class Activity < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :media belongs_to :artist, :class_name => 'User', :foreign_key => 'artist_id' end class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :activities has_many :fans end I tried changing my activity model too, without any success: class Activity < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :activities, :class_name => 'User', :foreign_key => 'user_id' has_many :activities, :class_name => 'User', :foreign_key => 'artist_id' end One thing to note. Activity is an STI. Fan inherits from Activity. In console, I do: # Create a fan object. User is a fan of himself fan = Fan.new => #<Fan id: nil, user_id: nil, media_id: nil, artist_id: nil, type: "Fan", comment: nil, created_at: nil, updated_at: nil> # Assign a user object fan.user = User.first => #<User id: 1, genre_id: 1, country_id: 1, .... # Assign an artist object fan.artist_id = User.first.id => 1 # Save the fan object fan.save! => true Activity.last => #<Fan id: 13, user_id: 1, media_id: nil, artist_id: 1, type: "Fan", comment: nil, created_at: "2010-12-30 08:41:25", updated_at: "2010-12-30 08:41:25"> Activity.last.user => #<User id: 1, genre_id: 1, country_id: 1, ..... But... Activity.last.artist => nil Why is Activity.last.artist returning nil?

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