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How to hide the title bar while application is loading and show it when it finishes loading?

- by Arci

I have an application which uses a custom title bar. However, when my application launches, I noticed that the default title bar is shown for a brief period of time. My problem is I don't want to show the default title bar while my application is loading. How do I hide the title bar while my application is loading so that there will be no hint of it and then show it afterwards? So far, I tried the following solutions but none have worked: Hide the title bar in XML and then set the custom title bar in code. (Problem encountered: I received an error message saying: "You cannot combine custom titles with other title features".) In XML: <item name="android:windowNoTitle">true</item> In onCreate method: requestWindowFeature(Window.FEATURE_CUSTOM_TITLE); //... some code goes here getWindow().setFeatureInt(Window.FEATURE_CUSTOM_TITLE, R.layout.title_header); Set the size of the title bar in XML to 0. Then change it's size via code later. (Problem encountered: I don't know how to set the size of title bar in code. Is it possible? I tried getWindow().setAttributes() and getWindow().setLayout() but both of them didn't worked.)" In XML: <item name="android:windowTitleSize">30dp</item> Modify windowTitleBackgroundStyle and set a transparent drawable as background. (Problem encountered: The content of the title bar became invisible but a line below the title bar is still visible.) In XML:  <item name="android:background">@drawable/transparent</item>

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javascript check function for a html form

- by Reteras Remus

I'm having a problem with a HTML form (name, e-mail, subject, message), I can't validate the form if it was completed correct or not. I want to call a javascript function when the form is submitted and alert if a field wasn't completed correct. My problem is with the submit button, because my boss said that I must use he's own php function to insert a submit button. The php function looke like: function normal_button($text, $width, $param = '', $class = 'button-blue') { $content = '<div class="'.$class.'" style="width:'.$width.'px;" '.$param.'>'.$text.'</div>'; return $content; } and how I call the function: echo normal_button('Send it', '100', 'onclick="document.getElementById(\'emailForm\').submit();" '); I tried to call the js function declaring the onSubmit="return checkForm(this)" in the <form action='email.php' method='post'> HTML form, but I can't "catch" the submit. Also I tried to catch it with jquery, $(document).ready(function() { $('.normal_button').click(function() { }); ); but I can't return false if a field wasn't completed correct. I must use he's PHP function to insert the submit button, but how can I "catch" the fields, how can I validate them? Any suggestions? Thank you !

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Boost multi_index_container crash in release mode

- by Zan Lynx

I have a program that I just changed to using a boost::multi_index_container collection. After I did that and tested my code in debug mode, I was feeling pretty good about myself. However, then I compiled a release build with NDEBUG set, and the code crashed. Not immediately, but sometimes in single-threaded tests and often in multi-threaded tests. The segmentation faults happen deep inside boost insert and rotate functions related to the index updates and they are happening because a node has NULL left and right pointers. My code looks a bit like this: struct Implementation { typedef std::pair<uint32_t, uint32_t> update_pair_type; struct watch {}; struct update {}; typedef boost::multi_index_container< update_pair_type, boost::multi_index::indexed_by< boost::multi_index::ordered_unique< boost::multi_index::tag<watch>, boost::multi_index::member<update_pair_type, uint32_t, &update_pair_type::first> >, boost::multi_index::ordered_non_unique< boost::multi_index::tag<update>, boost::multi_index::member<update_pair_type, uint32_t, &update_pair_type::second> > > > update_map_type; typedef std::vector< update_pair_type > update_list_type; update_map_type update_map; update_map_type::iterator update_hint; void register_update(uint32_t watch, uint32_t update); void do_updates(uint32_t start, uint32_t end); }; void Implementation::register_update(uint32_t watch, uint32_t update) { update_pair_type new_pair( watch_offset, update_offset ); update_hint = update_map.insert(update_hint, new_pair); if( update_hint->second != update_offset ) { bool replaced _unused_ = update_map.replace(update_hint, new_pair); assert(replaced); } }

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C# + Querying XML with LINQ

- by user336786

Hello, I'm learning to use LINQ. I have seen some videos online that have really impressed me. In an effort to learn LINQ myself, I decided to try to write a query to the NOAA web service. If you put "http://www.weather.gov/forecasts/xml/sample_products/browser_interface/ndfdBrowserClientByDay.php?zipCodeList=20001&format=24+hourly&startDate=2010-06-10&numDays=5" in your browser's address bar, you will see some XML. I have successfully retrieved that XML in a C# program. I am loading the XML into a LINQable entity by doing the following: string xml = QueryWeatherService(); XDocument weather = XDocument.Parse(xml); I have a class called DailyForecast defined as follows: public class DailyForecast { public float HighTemperature { get; set; } public float LowTemperature { get; set; } public float PrecipitationPossibility { get; set; } public string WeatherSummary { get; set; } } I'm trying write a LINQ query that adheres to the structure of my DailyForecast class. At this time, I've only gotten to this far: var results = from day in response.Descendants("parameters") select day; Not very far I know. Because of the structure of the XML returned, I'm not sure it is possible to solely use a LINQ query. I think the only way to do this is via a loop and traverse the XML. I'm seeking someone to correct me if I'm wrong. Can someone please tell me if I can get results using purely LINQ that adhere to the structure of the DailyForecast class? If so, how? Thank you!

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SQL Aggregate all Purchases for a certain product with same rebatecode

- by debuggerlikeanother

Hi SO, i would like to aggregate all purchases for a certain product that used the same rebatecode (using SQL Server 2005) Assume we have the following table: ID ProductID Product RebateCode Amount 1 123 7HM ABC 1 2 123 7HM XYZ 2 3 124 7HM ABC 10 4 124 7HM XYZ 20 5 125 2EB LOI 4 6 126 2EB LOI 40 CREATE TABLE #ProductSales(ID SMALLINT, ProductID int, Product varchar(6), RebateCode varchar(4), Amount int) GO INSERT INTO #ProductSales select 1, 123, '7HM', 'A', 1 union all select 2, 123, '7HM', 'B', 2 union all select 3, 124, '7HM', 'A', 10 union all select 4, 124, '7HM', 'B', 20 union all select 5, 125, '7HM', 'A', 100 union all select 6, 125, '7HM', 'B', 200 union all select 7, 125, '7HM', 'C', 3 union all select 8, 126, '2EA', 'E', 4 union all select 8, 127, '2EA', 'E', 40 union all select 9, 128, '2EB', 'F', 5 union all select 9, 129, '2EB', 'F', 50 union all select 10, 130, '2EB', 'F', 500 GO SELECT * FROM #ProductSales GO /* And i would like to have the following result Product nrOfProducts CombinationRebateCode SumAmount ABC LOI XYZ 7HM 2 ABC, XYZ 33 11 0 22 2EB 2 LOI 44 0 44 0 .. */ CREATE TABLE #ProductRebateCode(Product varchar(6), nrOfProducts int, sumAmountRebateCombo int, rebateCodeCombination varchar(80), A int, B int, C int, E int, F int) Go INSERT INTO #ProductRebateCode select '7HM', 2, 33, 'A, B', 2, 2, 0, 0, 0 union all select '7HM', 1, 303, 'A, B, C', 1, 1, 1, 0, 0 union all select '2EA', 2, 44, 'E', 0, 0, 0, 2, 0 union all select '2EB', 3, 555, 'E', 0, 0, 0, 0, 2 Select * from #ProductRebateCode -- Drop Table #ProductSales IF EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM tempdb.dbo.sysobjects WHERE name LIKE '#ProductSales%') DROP TABLE #ProductSales -- Drop Table #ProductRebateCode IF EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM tempdb.dbo.sysobjects WHERE name LIKE '#ProductRebateCode%') DROP TABLE #ProductRebateCode I would like to have the result like in the example (see second select (#ProductRebateCode). I tried to achieve it with the crosstab from this post: http://www.sqlteam.com/forums/topic.asp?TOPIC_ID=6216&whichpage=6. exec CrossTab2b @SQL = 'SELECT [ProductID], Product, RebateCode, Amount FROM #ProductSales' ,@PivotCol = 'RebateCode' ,@Summaries = 'Sum(Amount ELSE 0)[_Sum], Count([ProductID])[_nrOfProducts]' /* SUM(Amount ELSE 0)[Amount], COUNT(Amount)[Qty] */ ,@GroupBy = 'RebateCode, Product' ,@OtherFields = 'Product' I believe that this could work, but i am unable to solve it. Do you believe that it is possible to achieve what i am trying without MDX or the other fancy ?DX-Stuff? Best regards And Thanks a lot debugger the other

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Strange Effect with Overridden Properties and Reflection

- by naacal

I've come across a strange behaviour in .NET/Reflection and cannot find any solution/explanation for this: Class A { public string TestString { get; set; } } Class B : A { public override string TestString { get { return "x"; } } } Since properties are just pairs of functions (get_PropName(), set_PropName()) overriding only the "get" part should leave the "set" part as it is in the base class. And this is just what happens if you try to instanciate class B and assign a value to TestString, it uses the implementation of class A. But what happens if I look at the instantiated object of class B in reflection is this: PropertyInfo propInfo = b.GetType().GetProperty("TestString"); propInfo.CanRead ---> true propInfo.CanWrite ---> false(!) And if I try to invoke the setter from reflection with: propInfo.SetValue("test", b, null); I'll even get an ArgumentException with the following message: Property set method not found. Is this as expected? Because I don't seem to find a combination of BindingFlags for the GetProperty() method that returns me the property with a working get/set pair from reflection.

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MEF Import Composition Issues

- by Tim

I've read all the questions I can find regarding the issues of composing imports without exporting the containing class but I can't find a solution to my problem. Does anybody know a way to achieve what I'm trying to do? My module assemblies have forms and classes which they use internally. These forms need access to some of the exported contracts but imports are not loaded as they are not in the MEF 'composition tree' Host assembly: public class Host { public Host() { /* Compose parts here... */ } [Export(typeof(Licence))] public Licence LoadedLicence { get; set; } [Export(typeof(IModule))] public List<IModule> LoadedModules { get; set; } } Module assembly: [Export(typeof(IModule))] public class Module : IModule { public Module() { } public void DoSomething() { SubForm sub = new SubForm(); sub.ShowDialog(); } [Import(typeof(Licence))] public Licence LoadedLicence { get; set; } // This works here } public class SubForm : Form { public SubForm () { } [Import(typeof(Licence))] public Licence LoadedLicence { get; set; } // This doesn't work in here } As far as I can see, my options are: Pass parameters to constructors (pain) Use a dummy export on the classes that need imports satisfying? Any others?

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PHP Session variable isset(..)=1 after session_start()

- by Nicsoft

Hello! I guess I am not understanding the scope of session variables, or the session itself, in PHP, hence this question: This is my code if(!session_id()==""){ echo "Getting rid of session"."</br>"; session_destroy(); } echo "Before session_start(): ".isset($_SESSION["first_date_of_week"])."</br>"; session_start(); echo "After session_start(): ".isset($_SESSION["first_date_of_week"])." ".$_SESSION["first_date_of_week"]->format("Y-m-d")."</br>"; The output is: Before session_start(): After session_start(): 1 2011-01-09 How come that when doing the isset(..) on the session variable it is set directly after starting the session, even though I haven't even used it or set it yet? It does, however, still have the same value as before. Also, session_id()="" since the if-clause is never triggered. I never kill the session, how come it is set to ""? I.e. I refresh the page and expects the session to still be alive. Using the isset(..) function is then pretty useless testing if it has been set already... Thanks in advance! /Niklas

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Jquery Serialization not working

- by RussP

Have a simple form (only extract fields here) but for some reason the JQserilization is not working; looks fine in alert() but only the first form field gets posts. Suggestions please - thanks in advance Form: <form id="neweventform" method="post" action=""> <div class="grid_4 alpha">Setup date *</div> <div class="grid_7 omega"> <select name="setup_day" id="setup_day"><?php days_list(); ?></select> <select name="setup_month" id="setup_month"><?php month_list(); ?></select> <select name="setup_year" id="setup_year"><?php year_list(); ?></select> <div class="grid_11"> <input type="submit" name="createevent" value="Create" id="createevent" /> </div> </form> Jquery $j(document).ready(function(){ $j('#neweventform').live('submit',function () { var data= $j('#neweventform').serialize(); alert(data); $j.ajax({type: "POST", url: "scripts/process.php",data: "newevent=newevent&event_options=" + data, cache: false, complete: function(data){ $j('#neweventform').fadeOut(2000),loading.fadeOut('slow'),$j('#content').fadeIn(2000), $j('#content').load('scripts/events.php #eventslist'); } }); return false; }); }); And the PHP processing if(isset($_POST['newevent'])) : $insert = mysql_query("INSERT INTO events (event_options) VALUES ('".$_POST['event_options']."')"); endif; Any suggestions?

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SQL query error while trying to put a file in the database

- by DaGhostman Dimitrov

Hey Guys I have a big problem that I have no Idea why.. I have few forms that upload files to the database, all of them work fine except one.. I use the same query in all(simple insert). I think that it has something to do with the files i am trying to upload but I am not sure. Here is the code: if ($_POST['action'] == 'hndlDocs') { $ref = $_POST['reference']; // Numeric value of $doc = file_get_contents($_FILES['doc']['tmp_name']); $link = mysqli_connect('localhost','XXXXX','XXXXX','documents'); mysqli_query($link,"SET autocommit = 0"); $query = "INSERT INTO documents ({$ref}, '{$doc}', '{$_FILES['doc']['type']}') ;"; mysqli_query($link,$query); if (mysqli_error($link)) { var_dump(mysqli_error($link)); mysqli_rollback($link); } else { print("<script> window.history.back(); </script>"); mysqli_commit($link); } } The database has only these fields: DATABASE documents ( reference INT(5) NOT NULL, //it is unsigned zerofill doc LONGBLOB NOT NULL, //this should contain the binary data mime_type TEXT NOT NULL // the mime type of the file php allows only application/pdf and image/jpeg ); And the error I get is : You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '00001, '????' at line 1 I will appreciate every help. Cheers!

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DDD: Enum like entities

- by Chris

Hi all, I have the following DB model: **Person table** ID | Name | StateId ------------------------------ 1 Joe 1 2 Peter 1 3 John 2 **State table** ID | Desc ------------------------------ 1 Working 2 Vacation and domain model would be (simplified): public class Person { public int Id { get; } public string Name { get; set; } public State State { get; set; } } public class State { private int id; public string Name { get; set; } } The state might be used in the domain logic e.g.: if(person.State == State.Working) // some logic So from my understanding, the State acts like a value object which is used for domain logic checks. But it also needs to be present in the DB model to represent a clean ERM. So state might be extended to: public class State { private int id; public string Name { get; set; } public static State New {get {return new State([hardCodedIdHere?], [hardCodeNameHere?]);}} } But using this approach the name of the state would be hardcoded into the domain. Do you know what I mean? Is there a standard approach for such a thing? From my point of view what I am trying to do is using an object (which is persisted from the ERM design perspective) as a sort of value object within my domain. What do you think? Question update: Probably my question wasn't clear enough. What I need to know is, how I would use an entity (like the State example) that is stored in a database within my domain logic. To avoid things like: if(person.State.Id == State.Working.Id) // some logic or if(person.State.Id == WORKING_ID) // some logic

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How to achieve interaction between GUI class with logic class

- by volting

Im new to GUI programming, and haven't done much OOP. Im working on a basic calculator app to help me learn GUI design and to brush up on OOP. I understand that anything GUI related should be kept seperate from the logic, but Im unsure how to implement interaction between logic an GUI classes when needed i.e. basically passing variables back and forth... Im using TKinter and when I pass a tkinter variable to my logic it only seems to hold the string PY_VAR0. def on_equal_btn_click(self): self.entryVariable.set(self.entryVariable.get() + "=") calculator = Calc(self.entryVariable) self.entryVariable.set(calculator.calculate()) Im sure that im probably doing something fundamentally wrong and probabaly really stupid, I spent a considerable amount of time experimenting (and searching for answers online) but Im getting no where. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks, V The Full Program (well just enough to show the structure..) import Tkinter class Gui(Tkinter.Tk): def __init__(self,parent): Tkinter.Tk.__init__(self,parent) self.parent = parent self.initialize() def initialize(self): self.grid() self.create_widgets() """ grid config """ #self.grid_columnconfigure(0,weight=1,pad=0) self.resizable(False, False) def create_widgets(self): """row 0 of grid""" """Create Text Entry Box""" self.entryVariable = Tkinter.StringVar() self.entry = Tkinter.Entry(self,width=30,textvariable=self.entryVariable) self.entry.grid(column=0,row=0, columnspan = 3 ) self.entry.bind("<Return>", self.on_press_enter) """create equal button""" equal_btn = Tkinter.Button(self,text="=",width=4,command=self.on_equal_btn_click) equal_btn.grid(column=3, row=0) """row 1 of grid""" """create number 1 button""" number1_btn = Tkinter.Button(self,text="1",width=8,command=self.on_number1_btn_click) number1_btn.grid(column=0, row=1) . . . def on_equal_btn_click(self): self.entryVariable.set(self.entryVariable.get() + "=") calculator = Calc(self.entryVariable) self.entryVariable.set(calculator.calculate()) class Calc(): def __init__(self, equation): self.equation = equation def calculate(self): #TODO: parse string and calculate... return self.equation if __name__ == "__main__": app = Gui(None) app.title('Calculator') app.mainloop()

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MEF instance management

- by Lawrence A. Contreras

I am working on application that has multiple modules and sub modules. Here's what I need to do: ModuleA has a sub module SubModuleA, SubModuleB, SubModuleC. I want to export ModuleA, SubModuleA, SubModuleB, SubModuleC. ModuleA can have multiple instances. Whenever I import ModuleA inside the sub modules, I want to get the correct instance and also when I import SubModuleA,SubModuleB and SubModuleC inside other classes. How can I manage that scenario using MEF? Do I really need to use MEF. Updated: Here's a quick example: public class School { List<Classroom> classRooms { get; set; } } [Export] public class Classroom { List<Teacher> teachers { get; set; } } public class Teacher { List<Student> students { get; set; } } public class Student { [Import] Classroom classroom { get; set; } } As you can see, I want to export the classroom class because I need to import it in the Student class, let's just say that I really need the classroom class inside the student class. I want to skip the part where we pass the classroom to the teacher and from the teacher we'll pass it to the student. But when I import classroom, I want to have the correct instance where that class room contains the teacher of the student.

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Replacing text with apostrophe text via sed in applescript

- by bob stinton

I have an applescript to find and replace a number of strings. I ran in the problem of having a replacement string which contained & some time ago, but could get around it by putting \& in the replacement property list. However an apostrophe seems to be far more annoying. Using a single apostrophe just gets ignored (replacement doesn't contain it), using \' gives a syntax error (Expected “"” but found unknown token.) and using \' gets ignored again. (You can keep doing that btw, even number gets ignored uneven gets syntax error) I tried replacing the apostrophe in the actual sed command with double quotes (sed "s…" instead of sed 's…'), which works in the command line, but gives a syntax error in the script (Expected end of line, etc. but found identifier.) The single quotes mess with the shell, the double quotes with applescript. I also tried '\'' as was suggested here and '"'"' from here. Basic script to get the type of errors: set findList to "Thats.nice" set replaceList to "That's nice" set fileName to "Thats.nice.whatever" set resultFile to do shell script "echo " & fileName & " | sed 's/" & findList & "/" & replaceList & " /'"

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How can I limit asp.net control actions based on user role?

- by Duke

I have several pages or views in my application which are essentially the same for both authenticated users and anonymous users. I'd like to limit the insert/update/delete actions in formviews and gridviews to authenticated users only, and allow read access for both authed and anon users. I'm using the asp.net configuration system for handling authentication and roles. This system limits access based on path so I've been creating duplicate pages for authed and anon paths. The solution that comes to mind immediately is to check roles in the appropriate event handlers, limiting what possible actions are displayed (insert/update/delete buttons) and also limiting what actions are performed (for users that may know how to perform an action in the absence of a button.) However, this solution doesn't eliminate duplication - I'd be duplicating security code on a series of pages rather than duplicating pages and limiting access based on path; the latter would be significantly less complicated. I could always build some controls that offered role-based configuration, but I don't think I have time for that kind of commitment right now. Is there a relatively easy way to do this (do such controls exist?) or should I just stick to path-based access and duplicate pages? Does it even make sense to use two methods of authorization? There are still some pages which are strictly for either role so I'll be making use of path-based authorization anyway. Finally, would using something other than path-based authorization be contrary to typical asp.net design practices, at least in the context of using the asp.net configuration system?

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Spring Security ACL: NotFoundException from JDBCMutableAclService.createAcl

- by user340202

Hello, I've been working on this task for too long to abandon the idea of using Spring Security to achieve it, but I wish that the community will provide with some support that will help reduce the regret that I have for choosing Spring Security. Enough ranting and now let's get to the point. I'm trying to create an ACL by using JDBCMutableAclService.createAcl as follows: [code] public void addPermission(IWFArtifact securedObject, Sid recipient, Permission permission, Class clazz) { ObjectIdentity oid = new ObjectIdentityImpl(clazz.getCanonicalName(), securedObject.getId()); this.addPermission(oid, recipient, permission); } @Override @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.REQUIRED, isolation = Isolation.READ_UNCOMMITTED, readOnly = false) public void addPermission(ObjectIdentity oid, Sid recipient, Permission permission) { SpringSecurityUtils.assureThreadLocalAuthSet(); MutableAcl acl; try { acl = this.mutableAclService.createAcl(oid); } catch (AlreadyExistsException e) { acl = (MutableAcl) this.mutableAclService.readAclById(oid); } // try { // acl = (MutableAcl) this.mutableAclService.readAclById(oid); // } catch (NotFoundException nfe) { // acl = this.mutableAclService.createAcl(oid); // } acl.insertAce(acl.getEntries().length, permission, recipient, true); this.mutableAclService.updateAcl(acl); } [/code] The call throws a NotFoundException from the line: [code] // Retrieve the ACL via superclass (ensures cache registration, proper retrieval etc) Acl acl = readAclById(objectIdentity); [/code] I believe this is caused by something related to Transactional, and that's why I have tested with many TransactionDefinition attributes. I have also doubted the annotation and tried with declarative transaction definition, but still with no luck. One important point is that I have used the statement used to insert the oid in the database earlier in the method directly on the database and it worked, and also threw a unique constraint exception at me when it tried to insert it in the method. I'm using Spring Security 2.0.8 and IceFaces 1.8 (which doesn't support spring 3.0 but definetely supprorts 2.0.x, specially when I keep caling SpringSecurityUtils.assureThreadLocalAuthSet()). My AppServer is Tomcat 6.0, and my DB Server is MySQL 6.0 I wish to get back a reply soon because I need to get this task off my way

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Touch draw in Quatz 2D/Core Graphics

- by OgreSwamp

Hello, I'm trying to implement "hand draw tool". At the moment algorythm looks like that (I don't insert any code because methods are quite big, will try to explain an idea): Drawing In touchesStarted: method I create NSMutableArray *pointsArray and add point into it. Call setNeedsDisplay: method. In touchesMoved: method I calculate points between last added point from the pointsArray and current point. Add all points to the pointsArray. Call setNeedsDisplay: method. In touchesFinished: event I calculate points between last added point from the array and current point. Set flag touchesWereFinished. Call setNeedsDisplay:. Render: drawRect: method checks is pointsArray != nil and is there any data in it. If there is - it starts to traw circles in each point of this array. If flag touchesWereFinished is set - save current context to the UIImage, release pointsArray, set it to nil and reset the flag. There are a lot disadvantages of this method: It is slow It becomes extremely slow when user touches and move finger for long time. Array becomes enormous "Lines" composed by circles are ugly I would like to change my algorithm to make it bit faster and line smoother. In result I would like to have lines like on the picture at following URL (sorry, not enough reputation to insert an image): http://2.bp.blogspot.com/_r5VzEAUYXJ4/SrOYp8tJCPI/AAAAAAAAAMw/ZwDKXiHlhV0/s320/SketchBook+Mobile(4).png Can you advice me, ho I can draw lines this way (smooth and slim on the edges)? I thought to draw circles with alpha gradient on the edges (to make lines smoother), but it will be extremely slowly IMHO. Thanks for help

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GUID or int entity key with SQL Compact/EF4?

- by David Veeneman

This is a follow-up to an earlier question I posted on EF4 entity keys with SQL Compact. SQL Compact doesn't allow server-generated identity keys, so I am left with creating my own keys as objects are added to the ObjectContext. My first choice would be an integer key, and the previous answer linked to a blog post that shows an extension method that uses the Max operator with a selector expression to find the next available key: public static TResult NextId<TSource, TResult>(this ObjectSet<TSource> table, Expression<Func<TSource, TResult>> selector) where TSource : class { TResult lastId = table.Any() ? table.Max(selector) : default(TResult); if (lastId is int) { lastId = (TResult)(object)(((int)(object)lastId) + 1); } return lastId; } Here's my take on the extension method: It will work fine if the ObjectContext that I am working with has an unfiltered entity set. In that case, the ObjectContext will contain all rows from the data table, and I will get an accurate result. But if the entity set is the result of a query filter, the method will return the last entity key in the filtered entity set, which will not necessarily be the last key in the data table. So I think the extension method won't really work. At this point, the obvious solution seems to be to simply use a GUID as the entity key. That way, I only need to call Guid.NewGuid() method to set the ID property before I add a new entity to my ObjectContext. Here is my question: Is there a simple way of getting the last primary key in the data store from EF4 (without having to create a second ObjectContext for that purpose)? Any other reason not to take the easy way out and simply use a GUID? Thanks for your help.

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Can one connection get details of another? Or, how can I get the most detailed pending transaction

- by bob-the-destroyer

Is there a Mysql statement which provides full details of any other open connection or user? For this particular case, on myisam tables specifically. Looking at Mysql's SHOW TABLE STATUS documentation, it's missing some very important information for my purpose. For example: remote odbc connection one is inserting several thousand records, which due to a slow connection speed can take up to an hour. Tcp connection two, using PHP on the server's localhost, is running select queries with aggregate functions on that data. Before allowing connection two to run those queries, I'd like connection two to first check to make sure there's no pending inserts on any other connection on those specific tables so it can instead wait until all data is available. If the table is currently being written to, I'd like to spit back to the user of connection two an approximation of how much longer to wait based on the number of pending inserts. Ideally by table, I'd like to get back using a query the timestamp when connection one began the write, total inserts left to be done, and total inserts already completed. Instead of insert counts, even knowing number of bytes written and left to write would work just fine here. Obviously since connection two is a tcp connection via a PHP script, all I can really use in that script is some sort of query. I suppose if I have to, since it is on localhost, I can exec() it if the only way is by a mysql command line option that outputs this info, but I'd rather not. I suppose I could simply update a custom-made transaction log before and after this massive insert task which the PHP script can check, but hopefully there's already a built-in Mysql feature I can take advantage of.

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Sharepoint alerts not working when multiple people are in an item

- by csm8118

We use Sharepoint Services 3.0 as a project tracking tool. We have a list set up that contains your basic information (description, etc.) plus we have a "assigned person" column that is of type Person or Group that we use to associate list items with individuals. This column supports multiple selections. We would like to set up alerts such that each person gets an alert email only if they are assigned to a list item. The approach we have taken is to set up a view on this list that is filtered to show list items where the assigned person equals [Me], and then to create an alert on this list that is set to send an email when someone changes an items that appears in the view. This works well when there is only one person in the assigned person column. It does not work when there is more than one person in the assigned person column. Does anybody know why this wouldn't work, or what I can do to troubleshoot? Is there a better way to achieve the end result? We could make several "assigned person" columns and not allow multiple selections, but that seems kind of kludgy.

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Best Practice for Summary Footer (and the like) in MVC

- by benpage

Simple question on best practice. Say I have: public class Product { public string Name { get; set; } public string Price { get; set; } public int CategoryID { get; set; } public bool IsAvailable { get; set; } } and i have a view using IEnumerable< Product as the model, and i iterate through the Products on the page and want to show the total of the prices at the end of the list, should I use: <%= Model.Sum(x=> x.Price) %> or should I use some other method? This may extend to include more involved things like: <%= Model.Where(x=> x.CategoryID == 5 && x.IsAvailable).Sum(x=> x.Price) %> and even <% foreach (Product p in Model.Where(x=> x.IsAvailable) {%> -- insert html -- <% } %> <% foreach (Product p in Model.Where(x=> !x.IsAvailable) {%> -- insert html -- <% } %> I guess this comes down to should I have that sort of code within my view, or should i be passing it to my view in ViewData? Or perhaps some other way?

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Fluent / NHibernate Collections of the same class

- by Charlie Brown

I am new to NHibernate and I am having trouble mapping the following relationships within this class. public class Category : IAuditable { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name{ get; set; } public virtual Category ParentCategory { get; set; } public virtual IList<Category> SubCategories { get; set; } public Category() { this.Name = string.Empty; this.SubCategories = new List<Category>(); } } Class Maps (although, these are practically guesses) public class CategoryMap : ClassMap<Category> { public CategoryMap() { Id(x => x.Id); Map(x => x.Name); References(x => x.ParentCategory) .Nullable() .Not.LazyLoad(); HasMany(x => x.SubCategories) .Cascade.All(); } } Each Category may have a parent category, some Categories have many subCategories, etc, etc I can get the Category to Save correctly (correct subcategories and parent category fk exist in the database) but when loading, it returns itself as the parent category. I am using Fluent for the class mapping, but if someone could point me in the right direction for just plain NHibernate that would work as well.

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Do I have to implement Add/Delete methods in my NHibernate entities ?

- by Lisa

This is a sample from the Fluent NHibernate website: Compared to the Entitiy Framework I have ADD methods in my POCO in this code sample using NHibernate. With the EF I did context.Add or context.AddObject etc... the context had the methods to put one entity into the others entity collection! Do I really have to implement Add/Delete/Update methods (I do not mean the real database CRUD operations!) in a NHibernate entity ? public class Store { public virtual int Id { get; private set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual IList<Product> Products { get; set; } public virtual IList<Employee> Staff { get; set; } public Store() { Products = new List<Product>(); Staff = new List<Employee>(); } public virtual void AddProduct(Product product) { product.StoresStockedIn.Add(this); Products.Add(product); } public virtual void AddEmployee(Employee employee) { employee.Store = this; Staff.Add(employee); } }

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How to refer to enum values inside nhibernate formula mapping specification?

- by mark

Dear ladies and sirs. I have two entities types: RunContainer parent entity type Run child entity type Run has a property Status, which is of type RunStatus, like so: public enum RunStatus { Created, Starting, // ... } public class Run { public int ContainerId { get; private set; } // ... public RunStatus Status { get; private set; } } RunContainer has a calculated property ActiveRunCount, like so: public class RunContainer { public int Id { get; private set; } // ... public int ActiveRunCount { get; private set; } } In the mapping for the RunContainer.ActiveRunCount property, I use the formula specification like so: <property name="ActiveRunCount" formula="(select count(r.Id) from Run r where r.ContainerId = Id and r.Status = 1)"/> My problem is that I refer to the RunStatus enum values in the formula by their respective numeric value, rather than the appropriate symbolic name. Can anyone tell me how can I use the symbolic name instead? Thanks.

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How do you pass a generic delegate argument to a method in .NET 2.0

- by Seth Spearman

Hello, I have a class with a delegate declaration as follows... Public Class MyClass Public Delegate Function Getter(Of TResult)() As TResult 'the following code works. Public Shared Sub MyMethod(ByVal g As Getter(Of Boolean)) 'do stuff End Sub End Class However, I do not want to explicitly type the Getter delegate in the Method call. Why can I not declare the parameter as follows... ... (ByVal g As Getter(Of TResult)) Is there a way to do it? My end goal was to be able to set a delegate for property setters and getters in the called class. But my reading indicates you can't do that. So I put setter and getter methods in that class and then I want the calling class to set the delegate argument and then invoke. Is there a best practice for doing this. I realize in the above example that I can set set the delegate variable from the calling class...but I am trying to create a singleton with tight encapsulation. For the record, I can't use any of the new delegate types declared in .net35. Answers in C# are welcome. Any thoughts? Seth

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