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  • [Concept] How does unlink() find the file to delete?

    - by Prasad
    My app has a 'Photo' field to store URL. It uses sfWidgetFormInputFileEditable for the widget schema. To delete the old image when a new image is uploaded, I use unlink before setting the value in the over-ridden setter and it works!!! if (file_exists($this->_get('photo'))) unlink($this->_get('photo')); Photos are stored in uploads/photos and when saving 'Photo' only the file name xxx-yyy.zzz is saved (and not the full path). However, I wish to know how symfony/php knows the full path of the file to be deleted? Part 2: I am using sfThumbnailPlugin to generate thumbnails. So the actual code looks like this: public function setPhoto($value) { if(!empty($value)) { Contact::generateThumbnail($value); // delete current Photo & create thumbnail $this->_set('photo',$value); // setting new value after deleting old one } } public function generateThumbnail($value) { $uploadDir = sfConfig::get('app_photo_upload'); // path to upload folder if (file_exists($this->_get('photo'))) { unlink($this->_get('photo')); // delete full-size image // path to thumbnail $thumbpath = $uploadDir.'/thumbnails/'.$this->get('photo'); // read a blog, tried setting dir manually, doesn't work :( //chdir('/thumbnails/'); // tried closing the file too, doesn't work! :( //fclose($thumbpath) or die("can't close file"); //unlink($this->_get('photo')); // doesn't work; no error :( unlink($thumbpath); // doesn't work, no error :( } $thumbnail = new sfThumbnail(150, 150); $thumbnail->loadFile($uploadDir.'/'.$value); $thumbnail->save($uploadDir.'/thumbnails/'.$value, 'image/png'); } Why can't the thumbnail be deleted using unlink()? is the sequence of ops incorrect? Is it because the old thumbnail is displayed in the sfWidgetFormInputFileEditable widget? I've spent hours trying to figure this out, but unable to nail down the real cause. Thanks in advance.

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  • How often should network traffic/collisions cause SNMP Sets to fail?

    - by A. Levy
    My team has a situation where an SNMP SET will fail once every two weeks or so. Since this set happens automatically, we don't necessarily notice it immediately when it fails, and this can result in an inconsistent configuration and associated wailing and gnashing of teeth. The plan is to fix this by having our software automatically retry the SET when it fails. The problem is, we aren't sure why the failure is happening. My (extremely limited) knowledge of SNMP isn't particularly helpful in diagnosing this problem, so I thought I'd ask StackOverflow for some advice. We think that every so often a spike in network traffic will cause the SET to fail. Since SNMP uses UDP for communication, I would think it would be relatively easy for a command to be drowned out if traffic was high for a short period of time. However, I have no idea how common this is. We have a small network with a single cisco router and there are less than a dozen SNMP controlled devices on that network. In addition to the SNMP traffic, there are some status web pages being loaded from the various devices. In case it makes a difference, I believe we are using the AdventNet SNMP API version 4.0.4 for Java. Does it sound reasonable that there will be some SET commands dropped occasionally, or should we be looking for other causes?

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  • The HTTP verb POST used to access path '[my path]' is not allowed.

    - by Jed
    I am receiving an error that states: "The HTTP verb POST used to access path '[my path]' is not allowed.". The error is being caused by the fact that I am implementing an HTML form element that uses the POST method and does not explicitly define an .aspx page in its ACTION parameter. For example: <form action="" method="post"> <input type="submit" /> </form> The HTML above is on a file at "/foo/default.aspx". Now, if the user points the URL to the root directory "foo" without specifying the aspx file (i.e. "http://localhost/foo") and then submits the form, the error "The HTTP verb POST used to access path '/foo' is not allowed." will be thrown. However, if the user goes to "http://localhost/foo/default.aspx" and then submits the form, all goes well (even if the ACTION parameter is left empty). Note: If I explicitly add the name of the .aspx (default.aspx) page to the ACTION parameter, no errors are thrown. So the example below works fine regardless if the user defines the name of the file in the URL or not. <form action="default.aspx" method="post"> <input type="submit" /> </form> I was curious as to why the error was being thrown, so I read a Microsoft KB that states This problem occurs because a client makes an HTTP request by sending the POST method to a static HTML page. Static HTML pages do not support the POST method. I suppose the core of the explanation makes sense, however in my case, my form is not being sent to a static html page - it's being sent to the same page that the html form lives on (default.aspx)... this is implicit to an ACTION param that is left empty. Is it possible to configure IIS (or otherwise) that will allow us to do form POSTing and keep the ACTION param empty?

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  • Continuously updating chat messages

    - by Daniel
    I'm creating a very simple chat application. It has an ASP.NET web page as front-end and a WCF service as back-end for storing the messages to a database. Everything works great except one thing; when Browser A enters a chat message I want Browser B to see the message as soon as possible (yeah, I know, that's the purpose of a chat). What I've done so far is to setup a trigger within the UpdatePanel, like this: <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="chatTimer" EventName="Tick" /> </Triggers> which uses a timer: <asp:Timer ID="chatTimer" runat="server" OnTick="chatTimer_Tick" Interval="1000" /> Is this the best approach or is there a better, yet simple, way to accomplish updating of messages. One drawback with this solution is that the textbox used to enter chat messages loses focus every time the Tick event runs. Any piece of feedback or advice regarding updating of messages is appreciated. Thank you!

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  • C++ creating generic template function specialisations

    - by Fire Lancer
    I know how to specialise a template function, however what I want to do here is specialise a function for all types which have a given method, eg: template<typename T> void foo(){...} template<typename T, if_exists(T::bar)>void foo(){...}//always use this one if the method T::bar exists T::bar in my classes is static and has different return types. I tried doing this by having an empty base class ("class HasBar{};") for my classes to derive from and using boost::enable_if with boost::is_base_of on my "specialised" version. However the problem then is that for classes that do have bar, the compiler cant resolve which one to use :(. template<typename T> typename boost::enable_if<boost::is_base_of(HasBar, T>, void>::type f() {...} I know that I could use boost::disable_if on the "normal" version, however I do not control the normal version (its provided by a third party library and its expected for specialisations to be made, I just don't really want to make explicit specialisations for my 20 or so classes), nor do I have that much control over the code using these functions, just the classes implementing T::bar and the function that uses it. Is there some way to tell the compiler to "always use this version if possible no matter what" without altering the other versions?

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  • MidiSystem.getSequencer() returns Audio Device Unavailable

    - by ksemeks
    I've keep having an exception thrown, on and on. When i try to make a new Sequencer object, i keep getting the javax.sound.midi.MidiUnavailableException: Audio Device Unavailable exception. So, here's the code: import javax.sound.midi.*; public class MiniMusicPlayer1 { public static void main(String[] args) { try { Sequencer sequencer = MidiSystem.getSequencer(); sequencer.open(); Sequence seq = new Sequence(Sequence.PPQ, 4); Track track = seq.createTrack(); for (int i = 5; i < 61; i += 4) { track.add(makeEvent(144, 1, i, 100, i)); track.add(makeEvent(128, 1, i, 100, (i+2))); } sequencer.setSequence(seq); sequencer.setTempoInBPM(220); sequencer.start(); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } public static MidiEvent makeEvent(int comd, int chan, int one, int two, int tick) { MidiEvent event = null; try { ShortMessage a = new ShortMessage(); a.setMessage(comd, chan, one, two); event = new MidiEvent(a, tick); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } return event; } } And here's the complete error (at compile): javax.sound.midi.MidiUnavailableException: Audio Device Unavailable at com.sun.media.sound.MixerSynth.implOpen(MixerSynth.java:165) at com.sun.media.sound.AbstractMidiDevice.doOpen(AbstractMidiDevice.java:144) at com.sun.media.sound.AbstractMidiDevice.openInternal(AbstractMidiDevice.java:134) at com.sun.media.sound.AbstractMidiDevice.getReceiverReferenceCounting(AbstractMidiDevice.java:339) at javax.sound.midi.MidiSystem.getReceiver(MidiSystem.java:243) at javax.sound.midi.MidiSystem.getSequencer(MidiSystem.java:442) at javax.sound.midi.MidiSystem.getSequencer(MidiSystem.java:348) at MiniMusicPlayer1.main(MiniMusicPlayer1.java:9) First i was unable to play MIDI files on my pc, but then i got it to work, so now i can play MIDI files, that's okay. I tried even to close every process which uses my sound card, but the error is still there. Anyone can help me?

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  • I can't get that `bus error` to stop sucking.

    - by Koning Baard XIV
    I have this a class called PPString: PPString.h #ifndef __CPP_PPString #define __CPP_PPString #include "PPObject.h" class PPString : public PPObject { char *stringValue[]; public: char *pointerToCharString(); void setCharString(char *charString[]); void setCharString(const char charString[]); }; #endif PPString.cpp #include "PPString.h" char *PPString::pointerToCharString() { return *stringValue; } void PPString::setCharString(char *charString[]) { *stringValue = *charString; } void PPString::setCharString(const char charString[]) { *stringValue = (char *)charString; } I'm trying to set the stringValue using std::cin: main.cpp PPString myString; myString.setCharString("LOLZ"); std::cout << myString.pointerToCharString() << std::endl; char *aa[1000]; std::cin >> *aa; myString.setCharString(aa); std::cout << myString.pointerToCharString() << std::endl; The first one, which uses a const char works, but the second one, with a char doesn't, and I get this output: copy and paste from STDOUT LOLZ im entering a string now... Bus error where the second line is what I entered, followed by pressing the return key. Can anyone help me fixing this? Thanks...

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  • Should core application configuration be stored in the database, and if so what should be done to se

    - by Rl
    I'm writing an application around a lot of hierarchical data. Currently the hierarchy is fixed, but it's likely that new items will be added to the hierarchy in the future. (please let them be leaves) My current application and database design is fairly generic and nothing dealing with specific nodes in the hierarchy is hardcoded, with the exception of validation and lookup functions written to retrieve external data from each node's particular database. This pleases me from a design point of view, but I'm nervous at the realization that the entire application rests on a handful of records in the database. I'm also frustrated that I have to enforce certain aspects of data integrity with database triggers rather than by foreign key constraints (an example is where several different nodes in the hierarchy have their own proprietary IDs and I store them in a single column which, when coupled with the node ID can be used to locate the foreign data). I'm starting to wonder whether it may have been appropriate to simply hardcoded these known nodes into the system so that it would be more "type safe" and less generic. How does one know when something should be hardcoded, and when it should be a configuration item? Is it just a cost-benefit analysis of clarity/safety now vs less work later, or am I missing some metric I should be using to determine whether or not this is appropriate. The steps I'm taking to protect these valuable configurations are to add triggers that prevent updates/deletes. The database user that this application uses will only have the ability to manipulate data through stored procedures. What else can I do?

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  • Jasper Reports and iReport issue

    - by William
    I am having an issue with JasperReports I can not solve. I am using Eclipse, OpenReports 3.2 and IReport 3.7 The issue I am having is that the report does nothing. When I preview the report in IReport I can at least get a "Document has no pages" message but when I try to open it using OpenReports it doesn't do anything. I get the open reports header and the copyright message but nothing between them. I was able to track it down to line 150 in ReportRunAction.java in OpenReports. That line is: jasperPrint = jasperEngine.fillReport(reportInput); At least that is the line the page dies on. It trips the catch block that the line is inside of but the error is empty. When I try to print the description it is null. I can't swear that the issue isn't that parameter. Through looking around all I have been able to find is something about how the report needs to be compiled with the same version of the jasperreports.jar that OpenReports uses. I have no idea how to tell if/what version of jasper reports is being bundled into the .jasper file though. Is that my problem? If so how do I tell/set the version of the jar that gets bundled? If not; help!

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  • AngularJS: Using Shared Service(with $resource) to share data between controllers, but how to define callback functions?

    - by shaunlim
    Note: I also posted this question on the AngularJS mailing list here: https://groups.google.com/forum/#!topic/angular/UC8_pZsdn2U Hi All, I'm building my first AngularJS app and am not very familiar with Javascript to begin with so any guidance will be much appreciated :) My App has two controllers, ClientController and CountryController. In CountryController, I'm retrieving a list of countries from a CountryService that uses the $resource object. This works fine, but I want to be able to share the list of countries with the ClientController. After some research, I read that I should use the CountryService to store the data and inject that service into both controllers. This was the code I had before: CountryService: services.factory('CountryService', function($resource) { return $resource('http://localhost:port/restwrapper/client.json', {port: ':8080'}); }); CountryController: //Get list of countries //inherently async query using deferred promise $scope.countries = CountryService.query(function(result){ //preselected first entry as default $scope.selected.country = $scope.countries[0]; }); And after my changes, they look like this: CountryService: services.factory('CountryService', function($resource) { var countryService = {}; var data; var resource = $resource('http://localhost:port/restwrapper/country.json', {port: ':8080'}); var countries = function() { data = resource.query(); return data; } return { getCountries: function() { if(data) { console.log("returning cached data"); return data; } else { console.log("getting countries from server"); return countries(); } } }; }); CountryController: $scope.countries = CountryService.getCountries(function(result){ console.log("i need a callback function here..."); }); The problem is that I used to be able to use the callback function in $resource.query() to preselect a default selection, but now that I've moved the query() call to within my CountryService, I seemed to have lost what. What's the best way to go about solving this problem? Thanks for your help, Shaun

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  • Is it possible to cancel function override in parent class and use function from top level parent

    - by Anatoliy Gusarov
    class TopParent { protected function foo() { $this->bar(); } private function bar() { echo 'Bar'; } } class MidParent extends TopParent { protected function foo() { $this->midMethod(); parent::foo(); } public function midMethod() { echo 'Mid'; } public function generalMethod() { echo 'General'; } } Now the question is if I have a class, that extends MidParent because I need to call class Target extends MidParent { //How to override this method to return TopParent::foo(); ? protected function foo() { } } So I need to do this: $mid = new MidParent(); $mid->foo(); // MidBar $taget = new Target(); $target->generalMethod(); // General $target->foo(); // Bar UPDATE Top parent is ActiveRecord class, mid is my model object. I want to use model in yii ConsoleApplication. I use 'user' module in this model, and console app doesn't support this module. So I need to override method afterFind, where user module is called. So the Target class is the class that overrides some methods from model which uses some modules that console application doesn't support.

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  • Running a process at the Windows 7 Welcome Screen

    - by peelman
    So here's the scoop: I wrote a tiny C# app a while back that displays the hostname, ip address, imaged date, thaw status (we use DeepFreeze), current domain, and the current date/time, to display on the welcome screen of our Windows 7 lab machines. This was to replace our previous information block, which was set statically at startup and actually embedded text into the background, with something a little more dynamic and functional. The app uses a Timer to update the ip address, deepfreeze status, and clock every second, and it checks to see if a user has logged in and kills itself when it detects such a condition. If we just run it, via our startup script (set via group policy), it holds the script open and the machine never makes it to the login prompt. If we use something like the start or cmd commands to start it off under a separate shell/process, it runs until the startup script finishes, at which point Windows seems to clean up any and all child processes of the script. We're currently able to bypass that using psexec -s -d -i -x to fire it off, which lets it persist after the startup script is completed, but can be incredibly slow, adding anywhere between 5 seconds and over a minute to our startup time. We have experimented with using another C# app to start the process, via the Process class, using WMI Calls (Win32_Process and Win32_ProcessStartup) with various startup flags, etc, but all end with the same result of the script finishing and the info block process getting killed. I tinkered with rewriting the app as a service, but services were never designed to interact with the desktop, let alone the login window, and getting things operating in the right context never really seemed to work out. So for the question: Does anybody have a good way to accomplish this? Launch a task so that it would be independent of the startup script and run on top of the welcome screen?

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  • Pitfalls of the Architecture - Database based HTTP Request/Response Parsing

    - by Sam
    We have a current eCommerce Site that runs on ASP.NET and we hired a consultant to develop an new site bases on SOA. The new site architecture is as follows Web Application : Single Page Web Application (built on javascript/jquery templates - do not use any MVVM frameworks) that uses some javascript thrown all over the place. Service Layer : Very very light Service Layer that does not do anything other than calling a single stored procedure and pass in the entire http request. Database : The entire site content is in the database. The database does the heavy lifting of parsing the request and based on the HTTP method and some input parameter calls the appropriate Store Procedures or views and renders the result in JSON/XML. We have been told by them that this is built on latest and greatest technologies. I have a lot of concerns and of them given are the few Load on the Database SEO concerns for single page application as this is a public facing website Scalablity? Is this SOA? Cross Browser compatability (Site does not work in < IE9) Realistic implementaion of Single page application I know something is not right but I just need to validate my concerns here. Please help me.

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  • Lightbox-style dialog shows below YouTube movie on Mac OS 10.6

    - by Mark
    This is a "but it works on my machine" one and could be tricky: I have a lightbox-style HTML dialog that shows a menu on top of a web page. It can be injected into any web page via a JavaScript bookmarklet. One of my users is trying to use it on YouTube.com with the result that the flash movie is rendered on top of the dialog (a div with high z-index). I can't reproduce this. It works just fine for me. The dialog shows up on top of everything else on youtube.com, the video included. I had him save the page in Safari as Webarchive and send it to me. Even that shows the menu rendered correctly for me. I use the exact same version of Safari (4.0.5/531.22.7) and Flash (10.1 r53, latest beta). Only difference I could find is that he uses Snow Leopard (10.6.6) and I "only" 10.5.8. Has anybody noticed similar problems? I'm afraid that the usual wmode recommendation won't solve this (I tried & it works on my machine anyway)... Thanks! Mark

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  • How do I make a lock that allows only ONE thread to read from the resource ?

    - by mare
    I have a file that holds an integer ID value. Currently reading the file is protected with ReaderWriterLockSlim as such: public int GetId() { _fileLock.EnterUpgradeableReadLock(); int id = 0; try { if(!File.Exists(_filePath)) CreateIdentityFile(); FileStream readStream = new FileStream(_filePath, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read); StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(readStream); string line = sr.ReadLine(); sr.Close(); readStream.Close(); id = int.Parse(line); return int.Parse(line); } finally { SaveNextId(id); // increment the id _fileLock.ExitUpgradeableReadLock(); } } The problem is that subsequent actions after GetId() might fail. As you can see the GetId() method increments the ID every single time, disregarding what happens after it has issued an ID. The issued ID might be left hanging (as said, exceptions might occur). As the ID is incremented, some IDs might be left unused. So I was thinking of moving the SaveNextId(id) out, remove it (the SaveNextId() actually uses the lock too, except that it's EnterWriteLock). And call it manually from outside after all the required methods have executed. That brings out another problem - multiple threads might enter the GetId() method before the SaveNextId() gets executed and they might all receive the same ID. I don't want any solutions where I have to alter the IDs after the operation, correcting them in any way because that's not nice and might lead to more problems. I need a solution where I can somehow callback into the FileIdentityManager (that's the class that handles these IDs) and let the manager know that it can perform the saving of the next ID and then release the read lock on the file containing the ID. Essentialy I want to replicate the relational databases autoincrement behaviour - if anything goes wrong during row insertion, the ID is not used, it is still available for use but it also never happens that the same ID is issued. Hopefully the question is understandable enough for you to provide some solutions..

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  • How do Oracle Forms compare to Microsoft Access as a "front-end"?

    - by webworm
    I recently started a project where I was set to build an ADP based application in Access 2003. The font end GUI was going to be in Access while all the data resided in MS SQL Server. I say "was", because the powers that be have decided that Oracle Forms might be a better choice than Access and SQL Server. The place where I am doing this work is an Oracle shop where they use Oracle 10g. They also use Oracle Forms quite a bit internally. As for me I am always up for learning anything new. I have always been a rather "eclectic" developer (I work with .NET WinForms, ASP.NET, Java, C#, Python, and Access) so I would not mind moving to Oracle Forms as long as it could do the same things as MS Access (hopefully even more as VBA is rather limited). So my question is this. How does Oracle Forms (10g) compare to MS Access for developing a GUI application? Access uses VBA for it's language, what does Oracle Forms use? I know the Forms app is a Java applet. Does that means you can write Oracle Forms using Java?

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  • redirect web app results to own application

    - by vbNewbie
    Is it possible to redirect a web apps results to a second application? I cannot parse the html source. It contains the javascript functions that execute the queries but all the content is probably server side. I hope this makes sense. The owner has made the script available but I am not sure how this helps. Can I using .net call the site and redirect results perhaps to a file or database? the app accesses one of googles apis and performs searches/queries and returns results which are displayed on the site. Now all the javascript functions that perform these queries are listed in the source but I do not know javascript so it does not make much sense to me. I have used the documentation which uses the oauth protocol to access the api and have implemented that in my web app but it took me nearly a week to get the request token right and now to send requests to the api, sometimes I get one result back and sometimes none. It is frustrating me and the owner of the web app has given use of his script but he says all that happens is that my browser interacts with the google api and not his server. So I thought why not have my web app call his, since his interacts with the API flawlessly and have the results sent to my app to save in a database. I have very little experience here so pardon my ignorance

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  • Mercurial: Class library that will exist for both .NET 3.5 and 4.0?

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I have a rather big class library written in .NET 3.5 that I'd like to upgrade to make available for .NET 4.0 as well. In that process, I will rip out a lot of old junk, and rewrite some code to better take advantage of the new classes and support in .NET 4.0 (like TPL.) The class libraries will thus diverge, but still be similar enough that some bug-fixes can be done to both in the same manner. How should I best organize this class library in Mercurial? I'm using Kiln (fogbugz) if that matters. I'm thinking: Named branches in one repository, can then transplant any bugfixes from one to the other Unnamed branches in one repository, can also transplant, but I think this will look messy Separate repositories, will have to reimplement the bugfixes (or use a non-mercurial-integraded compare tool to help me) What would you do? (any other alternatives that I haven't though of is welcome as well.) Note that the class libraries will diverge pretty heavily in areas, I have some remnants of old collection-type code that does something similar to Linq that I will remove, and some code that uses it that I will rewrite to use the Linq-methods instead. As such, just copying the project files and using #if NET40..#endif sections is not going to work out. Also, the 3.5 version of the class library will not be getting many new features, mostly just critical bug-fixes, so keeping both versions equally "alive" isn't really necessary. Thus, separate copies of all the files are good enough.

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  • Problem reading in file written with xdr using c

    - by Inga
    I am using Ubuntu 10.4 and have two (long) C programs, one that writes a file using XDR, and one that uses this file as input. However, the second program does not manage to read in the written file. Everything looks perfectly fine, it just does not work. More spesifically it fails at the last line added here with the error message xdr_string(), which indicates that it can not read in the first line of the input file. I do no see any obvious errors. The input file is written out, have a content and I can see the right strings using stings -a -n 2 "inputfile". Anyone have any idea what is going wrong? Relevant parts of program 1 (writer): /** * create compressed XDR output stream */ output_file=open_write_pipe(output_filename); xdrstdio_create(&xdrs, output_file, XDR_ENCODE); /** * print material name */ if( xdr_string(&xdrs, &name, _POSIX_NAME_MAX) == FALSE ) xdr_err("xdr_string()"); Relevant parts of program 2 (reader): /** * open data file */ input_file=open_data_file(input_filename, "r"); if( input_file == NULL ){ ERROR(input_filename); exit(EXIT_FAILURE); } /** * create input XDR stream */ xdrstdio_create(&xdrs, input_file, XDR_DECODE); /** * read material name */ if(xdr_string(&xdrs, &name, _POSIX_NAME_MAX) == FALSE) XDR_ERR("xdr_string()");

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  • In Rails 3, how does one render HTML within a JSON response?

    - by ylg
    I'm porting an application from Merb 1.1 / 1.8.7 to Rails 3 (beta) / 1.9.1 that uses JSON responses containing HTML fragments, e.g., a JSON container specifying an update, on a user record, and the updated user row looks like . In Merb, since whatever a controller method returns is given to the client, one can put together a Hash, assign a rendered partial to one of the keys and return hash.to_json (though that certainly may not be the best way.) In Rails, it seems that to get data back to the client one must use render and render can only be called once, so rendering the hash to json won't work because of the partial render. From reading around, it seems one could put that data into a JSON .erb view file, with <%= render partial % in and render that. Is there a Rails-way of solving this problem (return JSON containing one or more HTML fragments) other than that? In Merb: only_provides :json ... self.status = 204 # or appropriate if not async return { 'action' => 'update', 'type' => 'user', 'id' => @user.id, 'html' => partial('user_row', format: :html, user: @user) }.to_json In Rails?

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  • understanding the ORM models in MVC

    - by fayer
    i cant fully understand the ORM models in MVC. so i am using symfony with doctrine. the doctrine models are created. does this mean that i don't have to create any models? are the doctrine models the only models i need? where should i put the code that uses the doctrine models: eg. $phoneIds = array(); $phone1 = new Phonenumber(); $phone1['phonenumber'] = '555 202 7890'; $phone1->save(); $phoneIds[] = $phone1['id']; $phone2 = new Phonenumber(); $phone2['phonenumber'] = '555 100 7890'; $phone2->save(); $phoneIds[] = $phone2['id']; $user = new User(); $user['username'] = 'jwage'; $user['password'] = 'changeme'; $user->save(); $user->link('Phonenumbers', $phoneIds); should this code be in the controller or in another model? and where should i validate these fields (check if it exists in database, that email is email etc)? could someone please shed a light on this. thanks.

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  • jQuery: responding to click event of element added to document after page load

    - by morpheous
    I am writing a page which uses a lot of in situ editing and updating using jQuery for AJAX. I have come accross a problem which can best be summarised by the workflow described below: Clicking on 'element1' on the page results in a jQuery AJAX POST Data is received in json format The data received in json format The received data is used to update an existing element 'results' in the page The received data is actual an HTML form I want jQuery to be responsible for POSTing the form when the form button is clicked The problem arises at point 6 above. I have code in my main page which looks like this: $(document).ready(function(){ $('img#inserted_form_btn').click(function(){ $.ajax({'type: 'POST', 'url': 'www.example.com', function($data){ $(data.id).html($data.frm); }), 'dataType': 'json'} }); }); However, the event is not being triggered. I think this is because when the document is first loaded, the img#inserted_form_btn element does not exist on the page (it is inserted into the DOM as the result of an element being clicked on the page (not shown in the code above - to keep the question short) My question therefore is: how can I get jQuery to be able to respond to events occuring in elements that were added to the DOM AFTER the page has loaded?

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  • visual studio attaching to a process in debug mode

    - by user1612986
    i have a strange problem. the dll that i built (lets call it my.dll) in c++ visual studio 2010 uses a third party library (say tp.lib) which in turn calls a third party dll (say tp.dll). for debugging prupose i have in configurationProperties-debugging-command: Excel.exe and configurationProperties-debugging-commandArguments: "$(TargetPath)" in my computer i also set PATH variable to the directory where tp.dll resides now when i hit the F5 in visual studio excel opens up with my.dll and crashes giving me a "cannot open in dos mode" error. the reason this happens is tp.dll is not deployed when debug version of my.dll is deployed. when i open an instance of excel seperately and manually drop the debug version of my.dll then everything works fine and i can see all my functions that i wrote in my.dll the only issue is now i do not know how to debug becuase i do not know how to attach visual studio to the instance of excel i opened up seperately. my question is: 1 how can i attach visual studio to an already opened instance of Excel or 2 how can i hit F5 and still make Excel pick up the required tp.dll from the directory specified in the PATH variable before it starts to deploy my.dll. any of these two will allow my to step through the code for the purpose of debugging. thanks in advance.

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  • .NET security mechanism to restrict access between two Types in the same project?

    - by jdk
    Question: Is there a mechanism in the .NET Framework to hide one custom Type from another without using separate projects/assemblies? I'm using C# with ASP.NET in a Website project. Note: I'm not talking about access modifiers to hide members of a Type from another type - I mean to hide the Type itself. Background: I'm working in an ASP.NET Website project and the team has decided not to use separate project assemblies for different software layers. Therefore I'm looking for a way to have, for example, a DataAccess/ folder of which I disallow its classes to access other Types in the same ASP.NET Website project. In other words I want to fake the layers and have some kind of security mechanism around each layer to prevent it from accessing another. Obviously there's not a way to enforce this restriction using language-specific OO keywords so I am looking for something else, for example: maybe a permission framework or code access mechanism, maybe something that uses meta data like Attributes. Even something that restricts one namespace from accessing another. I'm unsure the final form it might take. If this were C++ I'd likely be using friend to make as solution, which doesn't translate to C# internal in this case although they're often compared. I don't really care whether the solution actually hides Types from each other or just makes them inaccessible; however I don't want to lock down one Type from all others, another reason access modifiers are not a solution. A runtime or design time answer will suffice. Looking for something easy to implement otherwise it's not worth the effort ...

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  • How can I make this jQuery plugin chainable after all image load events have completed?

    - by BumbleB2na
    [UPDATE] Solution I decided on: Decided that passing in a callback to the plugin will take care of firing an event once all images have completed loading. Chaining is also still possible. Updated Fiddle I am building a chainable jQuery plugin that can load images dynamically. (View the following code as a JSFiddle) Html: <img data-img-src="http://www.lubasf.com/blog/wp-content/uploads/2009/03/gnome.jpg" style="display: none" /> <img data-img-src="http://buffered.io/uploads/2008/10/gnome.jpg" style="display: none" /> Instead of adding in a src attribute, I give these images a data-img-src attribute. My plugin uses the value of that to fill the src. Also, these images are hidden to begin with. jQuery plugin: (function(jQuery) { jQuery.fn.loadImages = function() { var numToLoad = jQuery(this).length; var numLoaded = 0; jQuery(this).each(function() { if(jQuery(this).attr('src') == undefined) { return jQuery(this).load(function() { numLoaded++; if(numToLoad == numLoaded) return this; // attempt at making this plugin // chainable, after all .load() // events have completed. }).attr('src', jQuery(this).attr('data-img-src')); } else { numLoaded++; if(numToLoad == numLoaded) return this; // attempt at making this plugin // chainable, after all .load() // events have completed. } }); // this works if uncommented, but returns before all .load() events have completed //return this; }; })(jQuery); // I want to chain a .fadeIn() after all images have completed loading $('img[data-img-src]').loadImages().fadeIn(); Is there a way to make this plugin chainable, and have my fadeIn() happen after all images have loaded?

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