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  • Adding an Array inside an array in a PHP function

    - by bateman_ap
    I have created a function in PHP that calls a webservice and parses through the result, assinging values to variables and returning them all as an Array. This all works perfectly, however I have come across a need to have an "array within my array" I am assigning values as below: $productName = $product->Name; $productID = $product->ID; $productArray = array( 'productName' => "$productName", 'productID' => "$productID" ); return $productArray; However I now have a piece of data that comes back with multiple results so I need to have a additional array to store these, I am getting the values from the returned XML using a foreach loop, however I want to be able to add them to the array with a name so I can reference them in the returned data, this is where I have a problem... $bestForLists = $product->BestFors; foreach( $bestForLists as $bestForList ) { $productBestFors = $bestForList->BestFor; foreach( $productBestFors as $productBestFor ) { $productBestForName = $productBestFor->Name; $productBestForID = $productBestFor->ID; } } I tried creating an array for these using the below code: $bestForArray[] = (array( "productBestForID" => "$productBestForID", "productBestForName" => "$productBestForName" )); And then at the end merging these together: $productArray= array_merge($productArray,$bestForArray); If I print out the returned value I get: Array ( [productName] => Test Product [productID] => 14128 [0] => Array ( [productBestForID] => 56647 [productBestForName] => Lighting ) [1] => Array ( [productBestForID] => 56648 [productBestForName] => Sound ) ) I would like to give the internal Array a name so I can reference it in my code, or is there a better way of doing this, at the moment I am using the following in my PHP page to get values: $productName = $functionReturnedValues['productName']; I would like to use the following to access the array I could then loop through: $bestForArray = $functionReturnedValues['bestForArray']; Hope someone can help

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  • Diffrernce between BackgroundWorker.ReportProgress() and Control.Invoke()

    - by ohadsc
    What is the difference between options 1 and 2 in the following? private void BGW_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { for (int i=1; i<=100; i++) { string txt = i.ToString(); if (Test_Check.Checked) //OPTION 1 Test_BackgroundWorker.ReportProgress(i, txt); else //OPTION 2 this.Invoke((Action<int, string>)UpdateGUI, new object[] {i, txt}); } } private void BGW_ProgressChanged(object sender, ProgressChangedEventArgs e) { UpdateGUI(e.ProgressPercentage, (string)e.UserState); } private void UpdateGUI(int percent, string txt) { Test_ProgressBar.Value = percent; Test_RichTextBox.AppendText(txt + Environment.NewLine); } Looking at reflector, the Control.Invoke() appears to use: this.FindMarshalingControl().MarshaledInvoke(this, method, args, 1); whereas BackgroundWorker.Invoke() appears to use: this.asyncOperation.Post(this.progressReporter, args); (I'm just guessing these are the relevant function calls.) If I understand correctly, BGW Posts to the WinForms window its progress report request, whereas Control.Invoke uses a CLR mechanism to invoke on the right thread. Am I close? And if so, what are the repercussions of using either ? Thanks

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  • Streaming content to JSF UI

    - by Mark Lewis
    Hello, I was quite happy with my JSF app which read the contents of MQ messages received and supplied them to the UI like this: <rich:panel> <snip> <rich:panelMenuItem label="mylabel" action="#{MyBacking.updateCurrent}"> <f:param name="current" value="mylog.log" /> </rich:panelMenuItem> </snip> </rich:panel> <rich:panel> <a4j:outputPanel ajaxRendered="true"> <rich:insert content="#{MyBacking.log}" highlight="groovy" /> </a4j:outputPanel> </rich:panel> and in MyBacking.java private String logFile = null; ... public String updateCurrent() { FacesContext context=FacesContext.getCurrentInstance(); setCurrent((String)context.getExternalContext().getRequestParameterMap().get("current")); setLog(getCurrent()); return null; } public void setLog(String log) { sendMsg(log); msgBody = receiveMsg(moreargs); logFile = msgBody; } public String getLog() { return logFile; } until the contents of one of the messages was too big and tomcat fell over. Obviously, I thought, I need to change the way it works so that I return some form of stream so that no one object grows so big that the container dies and the content returned by successive messages is streamed to the UI as it comes in. Am I right in thinking that I can replace the work I'm doing now on a String object with a BufferedOutputStream object ie no change to the JSF code and something like this changing at the back end: private BufferedOutputStream logFile = null; public void setLog(String log) { sendMsg(args); logFile = (BufferedOutputStream) receiveMsg(moreargs); } public String getLog() { return logFile; }

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  • CCNet exception during build of vs2010 project

    - by sonee
    We have two build machines. Lately, we've migrated our projects to vs2010 from vs2005. But the problem is that one of the machines occurs error during build. Another machine works well, but just one machine shows error. The differences between the machines are os and computer spec. The machine which is working well is installed windows server 2003 and the other is windows7. the error message is unhandled exception: System.NullReferenceException: Microsoft.VisualStudio.Shell.ThreadHelper.InvokeOnUIThread(InvokableBase invokable) Microsoft.VisualStudio.Shell.ThreadHelper.Invoke(Action action)Microsoft.VisualStudio.Project.VS.Implementation.VSShellServices.InvokeOnUIThread(Action method) Microsoft.VisualStudio.Project.VisualC.VCProjectEngine.ApartmentMarshaler.Invoke(Action method) Microsoft.VisualStudio.Project.VisualC.VCProjectEngine.VCConfigBuildJob.BuildCompleted(BuildSubmission ar) Microsoft.VisualStudio.Project.Contracts.Implementation.BuildProjectBase.BuildCompletedCallbackManager.BuildCompleted(BuildSubmission buildSubmission) Microsoft.Build.Execution.BuildSubmission.<CheckForCompletion>b__0(Object state) System.Threading.QueueUserWorkItemCallback.WaitCallback_Context(Object state) System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state, Boolean ignoreSyncCtx) System.Threading.QueueUserWorkItemCallback.System.Threading.IThreadPoolWorkItem.ExecuteWorkItem() System.Threading.ThreadPoolWorkQueue.Dispatch() System.Threading._ThreadPoolWaitCallback.PerformWaitCallback() Curiously enough, when I run building project in command line on the machine which occurs error, it works well. The machine just shows error when launched by ccnet. I've installed latest version of ccnet to all machines. Is there anybody who faced like this problem?

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  • How to specialize template for type derived from particular type

    - by relaxxx
    I have class World which manages creation of object... After creation it calls afterCreation method and I the created object is user-defined type derived from Entity (eg. MyEntity), I want to call addEntity. I the object was something else, I want to do nothing. addEntity must be called with appropriate T, because it generates unique IDs for every derived class etc. Here is my solution: template <int v> struct ToType { enum { value = v }; }; template <typename T> void World::afterCreation(T * t) { afterCreation(t, ToType<std::is_base_of<Entity, T>::value>()); } template <typename T> void World::afterCreation(T * t, ToType<true>) { addEntity(t); //here I cant pass Entity *, I need the real type, eg. MyEntity } template <typename T> void World::afterCreation(T * t, ToType<false>) { } My question is - Can in be done better way? How can I simulate following code without ToType or similar? template <typename T> void afterCreation(){/*generic impl*/} template <typename T where T is derived from Entity> void afterCreation(){/*some specific stuff*/} "specialize" in the title is only to describe my intention, no need to solve problem with template specialization

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  • Change Vimeo Video using JQuery

    - by Abs
    Hello all, How can I change the ID of the embedded vimeo video? Here is the embed code for example: <object width="578" height="325"> <param name="allowfullscreen" value="true" /> <param name="allowscriptaccess" value="always" /> <param name="movie" value="http://vimeo.com/moogaloop.swf?clip_id=11527784&amp; server=vimeo.com&amp;show_title=1&amp;show_byline=0&amp;show_portrait=0&amp;color=00ADEF&amp;fullscreen=1" /> <embed src="http://vimeo.com/moogaloop.swf?clip_id=11527784&amp; server=vimeo.com&amp;show_title=1&amp;show_byline=0&amp;show_portrait=0&amp; color=00ADEF&amp;fullscreen=1" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" allowfullscreen="true" allowscriptaccess="always" width="578" height="325"></embed></object> How can I change the clip_id in both the object value and the embed source using JQuery or just pure javascript? The effect this has is that it changes the video. I have tested this on Firefox, if this won't work on all browsers please let me know! Thanks all for any help

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  • Developing ASP.Net User Control to be imported to SharePoint MOSS 2007

    - by Don Kirkham
    Apologies if this has been answered, but I could not find a similar question: I am developing a webpart for MOSS 2007. I am using WSPBuilder to built a visual webpart (ascx) and everything works fine, but the development/debug cycle is just painfully slow, so I'd like to know if it is possible (without being too painful) to develop the user control faster using an .Net Web Application project with all of the nice F5 debugging, then import the final product into my SharePoint visual webpart. The user control interacts with a LOB system (SQL) and does not reference the SharePoint API at all. (The reason I am building this as a webpart is because I don't need another web app to run this one page, so putting it into a webpart on a new webpart page on my existing site is the best solution IMO.) I would obviously need to import (reference?) my data access classes into my "temp" web app, but think that would not be too much trouble. I realize this will be extra effort to get this set up, but am thinking the payoff will be reduced development time of the actual user control using a little web application vs having to use the compile/build WSP/deploy WSP/reset ISS/test/make a change/repeat cycle that MOSS requires. (I guess SP2010/VS2010 has spoiled me with the native SharePoint tools available.)

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  • Do variable references (alias) incure runtime costs in c++?

    - by cheshirekow
    Maybe this is a compiler specific thing. If so, how about for gcc (g++)? If you use a variable reference/alias like this: int x = 5; int& y = x; y += 10; Does it actually require more cycles than if we didn't use the reference. int x = 5; x += 10; In other words, does the machine code change, or does the "alias" happen only at the compiler level? This may seem like a dumb question, but I am curious. Especially in the case where maybe it would be convenient to temporarily rename some member variables just so that the math code is a little easier to read. Sure, we're not exactly talking about a bottleneck here... but it's something that I'm doing and so I'm just wondering if there is any 'actual' difference... or if it's only cosmetic.

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  • Can't use my form

    - by Alexandr
    I have class with my form in folder /application/forms/Auth.php it looks like class Form_Auth extends Zend_Form { public function __construct() { $this->setName(); parent::__construct(); $username = new Zend_Form_Element_Text('username'); $password = new Zend_Form_Element_Password('password'); $mail = new Zend_Form_Element_Text('mail'); $submit = new Zend_Form_Element_Submit('submit'); $this->addElements(array($username,$password,$mail,$submit)); } } When i try create object $this->view->form = new Form_Auth(); is see exeption Application error Exception information: Message: Invalid name provided; must contain only valid variable characters and be non-empty Stack trace: D:\WWW\zends\application\Forms\Auth.php(8): Zend_Form-setName() d:\WWW\zends\application\controllers\RegistrationController.php(49): Form_Auth-__construct() D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Controller\Action.php(513): RegistrationController-indexAction() D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Controller\Dispatcher\Standard.php(289): Zend_Controller_Action-dispatch('indexAction') D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Controller\Front.php(954): Zend_Controller_Dispatcher_Standard-dispatch(Object(Zend_Controller_Request_Http), Object(Zend_Controller_Response_Http)) D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Application\Bootstrap\Bootstrap.php(97): Zend_Controller_Front-dispatch() D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Application.php(366): Zend_Application_Bootstrap_Bootstrap-run() D:\WWW\zends\public\index.php(26): Zend_Application-run() {main} Request Parameters: array ( 'controller' = 'registration', 'action' = 'index', 'module' = 'default', ) the version zf is 1.10.3 what i do wrong ?

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  • How to use the `itemDoubleClicked(QTreeWidgetItem*,int)` signal in qtHaskell

    - by nano
    I want to use the itemDoubleClicked(QTreeWidgetItem*,int) signal in a Haskell program I'm writing where I am using qtHaskell for the GUI. To connect a function I have at other places done the following: dummyWidget <- myQWidget connectSlot object signal dummyWidget "customSlot()" $ f Where object is some QWidget and signal is a string giving the signal, e.g. "triggered()", and f is the function I want to be called when the signaled is send. The definition of connectSlot in the API is: class Qcs x where connectSlot :: QObject a -> String -> QObject b -> String -> x -> IO () where the instances ofQcs are: Qcs () Qcs (QObject c -> String -> IO ()) Qcs (QObject c -> Object d -> IO ()) Qcs (QObject c -> Bool -> IO ()) Qcs (QObject c -> Int -> IO ()) Qcs (QObject c -> IO ()) Qcs (QObject c -> OpenGLVersionFlag -> IO ()) The first Arguments passed is supposed to be the QObject of which I'm using a signal. As you can see, there is no instance where f, the function to connect to the signal, can have two further arguments to recieve the QWidget and the integer send by the signal. Is there a way to nevertheless connect that signal to a custom function?

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  • Developing Job References

    - by Joe Smith
    How do you develop references for jobs? I have 6 years of programming experience spanning two jobs, but sadly I don't have a lot of people I can draw on as references. It's been several years since I left my last job, which was at a small company, and I've lost touch with the few people I knew there. I now work at another small company. I think I've gone as far as I can in my current position, and would like to look for greener pastures, but I can't exactly use my current boss as a reference, even though I have a very good repore with him. I'm sure he'd make a great reference down the road, but I'm afraid I'd insult him or jeopardize my current job by mentioning that I'm thinking of leaving and would like him to help me. I've applied to some jobs, and I have gotten several replies like, "Oh, you're exactly what we're looking for. Send us a couple references and we'll schedule an interview. Oh, no references? You must be a psychopath, nevermind." I've tried doing some small freelance work on the side, just so I can have a contact who can vouch for my work, but the competition for even small projects is pretty fierce and I can rarely devote adequate time to freelancing while holding a full time job. In addition, I often encounter a Catch-22 where a lot of freelancing jobs also require references. So how do programmers maintain existing references and develop new ones, especially while holding a full time job?

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  • Enum exeeding the 65535 bytes limit of static initializer... what's best to do?

    - by Daniel Bleisteiner
    I've started a rather large Enum of so called Descriptors that I've wanted to use as a reference list in my model. But now I've come across a compiler/VM limit the first time and so I'm looking for the best solution to handle this. Here is my error : The code for the static initializer is exceeding the 65535 bytes limit It is clear where this comes from - my Enum simply has far to much elements. But I need those elements - there is no way to reduce that set. Initialy I've planed to use a single Enum because I want to make sure that all elements within the Enum are unique. It is used in a Hibernate persistence context where the reference to the Enum is stored as String value in the database. So this must be unique! The content of my Enum can be devided into several groups of elements belonging together. But splitting the Enum would remove the unique safety I get during compile time. Or can this be achieved with multiple Enums in some way? My only current idea is to define some Interface called Descriptor and code several Enums implementing it. This way I hope to be able to use the Hibernate Enum mapping as if it were a single Enum. But I'm not even sure if this will work. And I loose unique safety. Any ideas how to handle that case?

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  • Spring bean initialization in a web app

    - by EugeneP
    We work with a web application and autowire beans using WebApplicationContextUtils in the init method. Could you clarify some details about bean initialization? The question rises from the static factory method. Suppose there's a bean that is created in a static factory method. As we can see, when the web app is deployed, the ContextLoaderListener initializes all the beans present in Spring xml config file. Now happens such a thing. In the static factory method we run a timer that starts ticking. But in reality we wouldn't want it to start ticking unless the bean is injected into a property of the object ! That is question number one - all the beans are automatically initialized on deploy - correct? And after that when we need an injection, it simply feels the link with the address of the object created during initialization, though OBJECT WAS CREATED ON WEB APP DEPLOY, immediately ! (I assume the default singleton-creation Spring behavior) Second question: are all copies of a web app use the same beans, so all beans are WEB-APP wide, every Spring bean is shared between all the copies of this web app running?

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  • How can I refactor this to work without breaking the pattern horribly?

    - by SnOrfus
    I've got a base class object that is used for filtering. It's a template method object that looks something like this. public class Filter { public void Process(User u, GeoRegion r, int countNeeded) { List<account> selected = this.Select(u, r, countNeeded); // 1 List<account> filtered = this.Filter(selected, u, r, countNeeded); // 2 if (filtered.Count > 0) { /* do businessy stuff */ } // 3 if (filtered.Count < countNeeded) this.SendToSuccessor(u, r, countNeeded - filtered) // 4 } } Select(...), Filter(...) are protected abstract methods and implemented by the derived classes. Select(...) finds objects in the based on x criteria, Filter(...) filters those selected further. If the remaining filtered collection has more than 1 object in it, we do some business stuff with it (unimportant to the problem here). SendToSuccessor(...) is called if there weren't enough objects found after filtering (it's a composite where the next class in succession will also be derived from Filter but have different filtering criteria) All has been ok, but now I'm building another set of filters, which I was going to subclass from this. The filters I'm building however would require different params and I don't want to just implement those methods and not use the params or just add to the param list the ones I need and have them not used in the existing filters. They still perform the same logical process though. I also don't want to complicated the consumer code for this (which looks like this) Filter f = new Filter1(); Filter f2 = new Filter2(); Filter f3 = new Filter3(); f.Sucessor = f2; f2.Sucessor = f3; /* and so on adding filters as successors to previous ones */ foreach (User u in users) { foreach (GeoRegion r in regions) { f.Process(u, r, ##); } } How should I go about it?

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  • Going "behind Hibernate's back" to update foreign key values without an associated entity

    - by Alex Cruise
    Updated: I wound up "solving" the problem by doing the opposite! I now have the entity reference field set as read-only (insertable=false updatable=false), and the foreign key field read-write. This means I need to take special care when saving new entities, but on querying, the entity properties get resolved for me. I have a bidirectional one-to-many association in my domain model, where I'm using JPA annotations and Hibernate as the persistence provider. It's pretty much your bog-standard parent/child configuration, with one difference being that I want to expose the parent's foreign key as a separate property of the child alongside the reference to a parent instance, like so: @Entity public class Child { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @Column(name="parent_id", insertable=false, updatable=false) private Long parentId; @ManyToOne(cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @JoinColumn(name="parent_id") private Parent parent; private long timestamp; } @Entity public class Parent { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @OrderBy("timestamp") @OneToMany(mappedBy="parent", cascade=CascadeType.ALL, fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List<Child> children; } This works just fine most of the time, but there are many (legacy) cases when I'd like to put an invalid value in the parent_id column without having to create a bogus Parent first. Unfortunately, Hibernate won't save values assigned to the parentId field due to insertable=false, updatable=false, which it requires when the same column is mapped to multiple properties. Is there any nice way to "go behind Hibernate's back" and sneak values into that field without having to drop down to JDBC or implement an interceptor? Thanks!

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  • Serving static media in django application

    - by Ed
    I notice that when I reference my java scripts and static image files from my templates, they show up in development, but not from the production server. From development, I access them as such: <img src="/my_proj/media/css/images/collapsed.png" /> but from production, I have to remove the project directory: <img src="/media/css/images/collapsed.png" /> I'm assuming I'm doing something wrong with regard to serving static media. I'm caught between a number of seemingly different options for serving static media in Django. On one hand, it's been recommended that I use django-staticfiles to serve media. On the other I see reference to STATIC_ROOT and STATIC_URL in the documentation (with caveats about use in production). I have small .png files of "plus" and "minus" symbols for use in some of my jQuery scripts. In addition, the scripts themselves need to be referenced. 1) Am I correctly categorizing scripts and site images as static media? 2) What is the best method to access this media (from production)?

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  • How can click on a java show link programatically?

    - by Jules
    I'm trying to develop a new feature for our vb.net order entry system. At the moment I provide an assisted paypal login which loops through transactions and copies the transactions. My program then looks at this data and copies it into text boxes. The operator then approves and saves the record. So my code uses IHTMLFormElement and loops round form elements and adds values. However I only really use this to log in to paypal. See my code... Dim theObject As Object = Nothing theObject = "https://www.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_login-run" WebBrowPayPal.AxWebBrowser1.Navigate2(theObject) While WebBrowPayPal.AxWebBrowser1.ReadyState <> tagREADYSTATE.READYSTATE_COMPLETE Application.DoEvents() End While Dim HtmlDoc As IHTMLDocument2 = CType(WebBrowPayPal.AxWebBrowser1.Document, IHTMLDocument2) Dim FormCol As IHTMLElementCollection = HtmlDoc.forms Dim iForms As Integer = FormCol.length Dim i As Integer Dim x As Integer For i = 0 To iForms - 1 Dim oForm As IHTMLFormElement = CType(FormCol.item(CType(i, Object), CType(i, Object)), IHTMLFormElement) For x = 0 To oForm.length - 1 If oForm.elements(x).tagname = "INPUT" Then If oForm.elements(x).name = "login_email" Then oForm.elements(x).value = "[email protected]" End If If oForm.elements(x).name = "login_password" Then oForm.elements(x).value = "mypassword" End If If oForm.elements(x).type = "submit" Or _ oForm.elements(x).type = "SUBMIT" Then oForm.elements(x).click() End If End If Next Next i I'm now trying this page https://www.paypal.com/uk/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_history&nav=0.3.0 Which is the history page, which allows you to search on the paypal transaction id. Unfortunately you need to click on 'find a transaction' which then uses some javascript to shows the post fields. So the problem is that the fields I need to use are hidden. How can I click on this java link in code ?

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  • asp.net Can I force every page to inherit from a base page? Also should some of this logic be in my master page?

    - by Bex
    Hi! I have a web app that has a base page. Each page needs to inherit from this base page as it contains properties they all need as well as dealing with the login rights. My base page has some properties, eg: IsRole1, IsRole2, currentUserID, Role1Allowed, Role2Allowed. On the init of each page I set the properties "Role1Allowed" and "Role2Allowed" Private Sub Page_Init(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Init Role1Allowed = True Role2Allowed= False End Sub The basepage then decides if the user needs redirecting. 'Sample code so not exactly what is going to be, bug gives the idea Protected Overridable Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) If Role1Allowed And Not Role1 Then 'Redirect somewhere End If End Sub The page then must override this pageload if they need anything else in it, but making sure they call the base pageload first. Protected Overrides Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load MyBase.Page_Load(sender, e) If Not IsPostBack Then BindGrid() End If End Sub The other properties (IsRole1, IsRole, currentUserID) are also accessible by the page so it can be decided if certain things need doing based on the user. (I hope this makes sense) Ok so I have 2 questions Should this functionality be in the base page or should it somehow be in the master, and if so how would I get access to all the properties if it was? As there are multiple people working on this project and creating pages some are forgetting to inherit from this basepage, or call the base pageload when overriding it. Is there any way to force them to do this? Thanks for any help. bex

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  • XML Decryption Bug (referencing issue)

    - by OrangePekoe
    Hi, Needing some explanation of what exactly the decryption is doing, in addition to some help on solving the problem. Currently, when a portion of XML is encrypted, and then decrypted, the DOM appears to work correctly. We can see the element is encrypted and then see it return back once it is decrypted. Our problem lies when a user tries to change data in that same element after decryption has occurred. When a user changes some settings, data in the XML should change. However, if the user attempts to change an XML element that has been decrypted the changes are not reflected in the DOM. We have a reference pointer to the XML element that is used to bind the element to an object. If you encrypt the node and then decrypt it, the reference pointer now points to a valid orphaned XML element that is no longer part of the DOM. After decryption, there will be 2 copies of the XML element. One in the DOM as expected (though will not reflect new changes), and one orphaned element in memory that is still referenced by our pointer. The orphaned element is valid (reflects new changes). We can see that this orphaned element is owned by the DOM, but when we try to return its parent, it returns null. The question is: Where did this orphaned xml element come from? And how can we get it to correctly append (replace old data) to the DOM? The code resembles: public static void Decrypt(XmlDocument Doc, SymmetricAlgorithm Alg) { if (Doc == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("Doc"); if (Alg == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("Alg"); XmlElement encryptedElement = Doc.GetElementsByTagName("EncryptedData")[0] as XmlElement; if (encryptedElement == null) { throw new XmlException("The EncryptedData element was not found."); } EncryptedData edElement = new EncryptedData(); edElement.LoadXml(encryptedElement); EncryptedXml exml = new EncryptedXml(); byte[] rgbOutput = exml.DecryptData(edElement, Alg); exml.ReplaceData(encryptedElement, rgbOutput); }

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  • IBM WESB/WAS JCA security configuration

    - by user594883
    I'm working with IBM tools. I have a Websphere ESB (WESB) and a CICS transaction gateway (CTG). The basic set-up is as follows: A SOAP service needs data from CICS. The SOAP-service is connecting to service bus (WESB) to handle data and protocol transformation and then WESB calls the CTG which in turn calls CICS and the reply is handled vice verse (synchronously). WESB calls the CTG using Resource Adapter and JCA connector (or CICS adapter as it is called in WESB). Now, I have all the pieces in place and working. My question is about the security, and even though I'm working with WESB, the answer is probably the same as in Websphere Application Server (WAS). The Resource Adaper is secured using JAAS - J2C authentication data. I have configured the security using J2C authentication data entry, so basically I have a reference in the application I'm running and at runtime the application does a lookup for the security attributes from the server. So basically I'm always accessing the CICS adapter with the same security reference. My problem is that I need to access the resource in more dynamic way in the future. The security cannot be welded into the application anymore but instead given as a parameter. Could some WESB or WAS guru help me out, how this could be done in WESB/WAS exactly?

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  • Fetching just the Key/id from a ReferenceProperty in App Engine

    - by ozone
    Hi SO, I could use a little help in AppEngine land... Using the [Python] API I create relationships like this example from the docs: class Author(db.Model): name = db.StringProperty() class Story(db.Model): author = db.ReferenceProperty(Author) story = db.get(story_key) author_name = story.author.name As I understand it, that example will make two datastore queries. One to fetch the Story and then one to deference the Author inorder to access the name. But I want to be able to fetch the id, so do something like: story = db.get(story_key) author_id = story.author.key().id() I want to just get the id from the reference. I do not want to have to deference (therefore query the datastore) the ReferenceProperty value. From reading the documentation it says that the value of a ReferenceProperty is a Key Which leads me to think that I could just call .id() on the reference's value. But it also says: The ReferenceProperty model provides features for Key property values such as automatic dereferencing. I can't find anything that explains when this referencing takes place? Is it safe to call .id() on the ReferenceProperty's value? Can it be assumed that calling .id() will not cause a datastore lookup?

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  • jquery script that used to work is not working with jquery 1.4.2

    - by Zayatzz
    ... and i cant figure out why. The script is following: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://path/to/js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function openMediaPlayer() { $('#flashMovie').animate({'height':'333px'}); } function closeMediaPlayer() { $('#flashMovie').animate({'height':'80px'}); } jQuery(function($){ $('#videoholder').bind('mouseenter', function(){ openMediaPlayer(); }); $('#videoholder').bind('mouseleave', function(){ closeMediaPlayer(); }); }); </script> <div id="videoholder" style="height:80px;width:412px;"> <object width="412" height="80" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" id="flashMovie" name="flashMovie" style="height: 80px;" data="http://path/to/Player.swf"><param name="menu" value="false"><param name="bgcolor" value="#666666"><param name="allowFullscreen" value="true"><param name="flashvars" value="playlistURL=http://path/to/Player/data/playlist.xml"></object> </div> pure and simple resizing flash object. It worked with older(1.3.2) jquery verision. The animate just does not work. Can anyone tell me what i should change to get it working again? Alan.

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  • JSF2.0: variable list of custom component

    - by rattaman
    Hello Is there any way of using JSF2.0 in connection with variable lists of components? For example, lets say I have list o people that I would like to edit. They are presented on the page as list of components PersonEditor, which allow changing person data. Each editor is associated with single Person element. In order for this to work I need to perform following steps: On initial request: Get list of people For each person create PersonEditor and associate it with Person object. Fill editor's data. On user action: When user changes values and presses Save, data is processed by backing bean. I can either fill editor with data from list of people or bind it to the backing bean, but not at the same time, so I am stuck. I tried people.xhtml <ui:render value="#{bean.people}" var="person"> <example:personEditor person="#{person}"/> </ui:render> where personEditor.xhtml: a) proper association with person object, but no connection to backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{cc.attr.person.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> b) no association with person object, but there is connection to backing bean - there is no way to pass that person to the backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{editorBean.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> If I had each editor on separate page, I could pass the person id as url parameter (either using f:param or f:attribute) and initialize it accordingly. Is there any solution to this problem?

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  • Why does using the Asynchronous Programming Model in .Net not lead to StackOverflow exceptions?

    - by uriDium
    For example, we call BeginReceive and have the callback method that BeginReceive executes when it has completed. If that callback method once again calls BeginReceive in my mind it would be very similar to recursion. How is that this does not cause a stackoverflow exception. Example code from MSDN: private static void Receive(Socket client) { try { // Create the state object. StateObject state = new StateObject(); state.workSocket = client; // Begin receiving the data from the remote device. client.BeginReceive( state.buffer, 0, StateObject.BufferSize, 0, new AsyncCallback(ReceiveCallback), state); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } private static void ReceiveCallback( IAsyncResult ar ) { try { // Retrieve the state object and the client socket // from the asynchronous state object. StateObject state = (StateObject) ar.AsyncState; Socket client = state.workSocket; // Read data from the remote device. int bytesRead = client.EndReceive(ar); if (bytesRead > 0) { // There might be more data, so store the data received so far. state.sb.Append(Encoding.ASCII.GetString(state.buffer,0,bytesRead)); // Get the rest of the data. client.BeginReceive(state.buffer,0,StateObject.BufferSize,0, new AsyncCallback(ReceiveCallback), state); } else { // All the data has arrived; put it in response. if (state.sb.Length > 1) { response = state.sb.ToString(); } // Signal that all bytes have been received. receiveDone.Set(); } } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } }

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  • How can I create an Image in GDI+ from a Base64-Encoded string in C++?

    - by Schnapple
    I have an application, currently written in C#, which can take a Base64-encoded string and turn it into an Image (a TIFF image in this case), and vice versa. In C# this is actually pretty simple. private byte[] ImageToByteArray(Image img) { MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); img.Save(ms, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Tiff); return ms.ToArray(); } private Image byteArrayToImage(byte[] byteArrayIn) { MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(byteArrayIn); BinaryWriter bw = new BinaryWriter(ms); bw.Write(byteArrayIn); Image returnImage = Image.FromStream(ms, true, false); return returnImage; } // Convert Image into string byte[] imagebytes = ImageToByteArray(anImage); string Base64EncodedStringImage = Convert.ToBase64String(imagebytes); // Convert string into Image byte[] imagebytes = Convert.FromBase64String(Base64EncodedStringImage); Image anImage = byteArrayToImage(imagebytes); (and, now that I'm looking at it, could be simplified even further) I now have a business need to do this in C++. I'm using GDI+ to draw the graphics (Windows only so far) and I already have code to decode the string in C++ (to another string). What I'm stumbling on, however, is getting the information into an Image object in GDI+. At this point I figure I need either a) A way of converting that Base64-decoded string into an IStream to feed to the Image object's FromStream function b) A way to convert the Base64-encoded string into an IStream to feed to the Image object's FromStream function (so, different code than I'm currently using) c) Some completely different way I'm not thinking of here. My C++ skills are very rusty and I'm also spoiled by the managed .NET platform, so if I'm attacking this all wrong I'm open to suggestions.

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