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  • How to catch HttpRequestValidationException in production

    - by bruno
    Hello all, I have this piece of code to handle the HttpRequestValidationException in my global.asax.cs file. protected void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { var context = HttpContext.Current; var exception = context.Server.GetLastError(); if (exception is HttpRequestValidationException) { Response.Clear(); Response.StatusCode = 200; Response.Write(@"<html><head></head><body>hello</body></html>"); Response.End(); return; } } If I debug my webapplication, it works perfect. But when i put it on our production-server, the server ignores it and generate the "a potentially dangerous request.form value was detected from the client" - error page. I don't know what happens exactly... If anybody knows what the problem is, or what i do wrong..? Also I don't want to set the validaterequest on false in the web.config. The server uses IIS7.5, And I'm using asp.net 3.5. Thanks, Bruno

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2.0 + Implementation of a IRouteHandler does not fire

    - by Peter
    Can anybody please help me with this as I have no idea why public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) is not executing. In my Global.asax.cs I have public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); routes.Add("ImageRoutes", new Route("Images/{filename}", new CustomRouteHandler())); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } //CustomRouteHandler implementation is below public class CustomRouteHandler : IRouteHandler { public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) { // IF I SET A BREAK POINT HERE IT DOES NOT HIT FOR SOME REASON. string filename = requestContext.RouteData.Values["filename"] as string; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(filename)) { // return a 404 HttpHandler here } else { requestContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.ContentType = GetContentType(requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Url.ToString()); // find physical path to image here. string filepath = requestContext.HttpContext.Server.MapPath("~/logo.jpg"); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.WriteFile(filepath); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.End(); } return null; } } Can any body tell me what I'm missing here. Simply public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) does not fire. I havn't change anything in the web.config either. What I'm missing here? Please help.

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  • asp.net mvc and portal like functionality

    - by richard-heesbeen
    fHi, I need to build an site with some portal like functionality where an param in the request will indentify the portal. like so http:/domain/controller/action/portal Now my problem is if an portal doesn't exists there must be an redirect to an other site/page and an user can login in to one portal but if the user comes to an other portal the user must be redirected back to the login page for that portal. I have something working now, but i feel like there must be an central place in the pipeline to handle this. My current solution uses an custom action filter which checks the portal param and sees if the portal exists and checks if the user logged on in that portal (the portal the user logged on for is in the authentication cookie). I make my own IIndentiy and IPrincipal in the application_postauthentication event. I have 2 problems with my current approach: 1: It's not really enforced, i have to add the attributes to all controllers and/or actions. 2: The isauthenticated on an user isn't really working, i would like that to work. But for that i need to have access to the params of the route when i create my IPrincipal/IIndenty and i can't seem to find an correct place to do that. Hope someone can give me some pointers, Richard.

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  • Generic unit test scheduling

    - by Raphink
    Hello, I'm (re)writing a program that does generic unit test scheduling. The current program is a mono-threaded Perl program, but I'm willing to modularize it and parallelize the tests. I'm also considering rewriting it in Python. Here is what I need to do: I have a list of tests, with the following attributes: uri: a URI to test (could be HTTP/HTTPS/SSH/local) ; depends: an associative array of tests/values that this test depends on ; join: a list of DB joints to be added when selecting items to process in this test ; depends_db: additional conditions to add to the DB request when selecting items to process in this test. The program builds a dependency tree, beginning with the tests that have no dependencies ; for each test: a list of items is selected from the database using the conditions (results of depending tests, joints and depends_db) ; the list of items is sent to the URI (using POST or stdin) ; the result is retrived as a YAML file listing the state and comments for the test for each tested item ; the results are stored in the DB ; the test returns, allowing depending tests to be performed. the program generates reports (CSV, DB, graphviz) of the performed tests. The primary use of this program currently is to test a fleet of machines against services such as backup, DNS, etc. The tests can then be: - backup: hosted on the backup machine(s), called through HTTP, checks if the machines' backup went well ; - DNS: hosted on the local machine, called via stdin, checks if the machines' fqdn have a valid DNS entry. Does such a tool/module already exist? What would be the best implementation to achieve this (using Perl or Python)?

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  • google maps api v2 - dynamic load (tens of thousands of) markers

    - by Adam
    Hello, how made with JavaScript+PHP+MYSQL and Google Maps API v2 dynamic load of markers? atm I have map follow example http://googlemapsapi.martinpearman.co.uk/infusions/google_maps_api/basic_page.php?map_id=8 but my marker_data_01.php (where are all markers listed - look code of example) have atm 4MB and will only have more, and more. So the question is: how load only this markers to marker_data_01.php (of some other modification of it, can be on same file as map, meaningless, I load it all from MySQL atm) what I look now: so for example (I dont know what number will good but I write this only for show what I wanna made OR JUST something like it), so top left corner for example have position: 10, top right corner for example have position: 30, bottom left corner for example have position: 5, bottom right corner for example have position: 15. -- so load only this markers what are in this box 10-30-5-15 with for example GET, and when I move map for example to 17-12-48-20 box then made next GET request and with this mysql quote and download next markers that what I see now, with this I can have map with unlimited markers, and when will be a lot of markers then clustering can link them, so with this ppl dont will need do "preload" of all markers DB (what have 4mb now and will have more), but only download that what they see at the moment, I know that is possible because a lot sites have it but I am not master of code langs, I know only a bit php and mysql (and html) :) // sorry for my english

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  • Avoiding GC thrashing with WSE 3.0 MTOM service

    - by Leon Breedt
    For historical reasons, I have some WSE 3.0 web services that I cannot upgrade to WCF on the server side yet (it is also a substantial amount of work to do so). These web services are being used for file transfers from client to server, using MTOM encoding. This can also not be changed in the short term, for reasons of compatibility. Secondly, they are being called from both Java and .NET, and therefore need to be cross-platform, hence MTOM. How it works is that an "upload" WebMethod is called by the client, sending up a chunk of data at a time, since files being transferred could potentially be gigabytes in size. However, due to not being able to control parts of the stack before the WebMethod is invoked, I cannot control the memory usage patterns of the web service. The problem I am running into is for file sizes from 50MB or so onwards, performance is absolutely killed because of GC, since it appears that WSE 3.0 buffers each chunk received from the client in a new byte[] array, and by the time we've done 50MB we're spending 20-30% of time doing GC. I've played with various chunk sizes, from 16k to 2MB, with no real great difference in results. Smaller chunks are killed by the latency involved with round-tripping, and larger chunks just postpone the slowdown until GC kicks in. Any bright ideas on cutting down on the garbage created by WSE? Can I plug into the pipeline somehow and jury-rig something that has access to the client's request stream and streams it to the WebMethod? I'm aware that it is possible to "stream" responses to the client using WSE (albeit very ugly), but this problem is with requests from the client.

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  • Debugging a HTTP Handler from Visual Studio

    - by O.O.
    I am trying to debug a HTTP Handler in Visual Studio and the break point is not getting hit. Does anyone have an idea on how to go about debugging HTTP Handlers in Visual Studio? I am using VS 2010 Premium, .NET 4.0 on a Windows 7 machine. In my Web Application I have a HTTP Handler in /HTTPHandler/TrackingHandler.cs The following is in my web config file: <system.webServer> <handlers> <add name="TrackingHandler" path="/tx/*" verb="*" type="ProjectNamespace.TrackingHandler" resourceType="Unspecified" preCondition="integratedMode" /> </handlers> </system.webServer> My HTTP Handler looks like below namespace ProjectNamespace { public class TrackingHandler : IHttpHandler { public bool IsReusable { get { return true; } } public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { //Breakpoint on the very first line below string tracker = Path.GetFileName(context.Request.PhysicalPath); ....... } } } I start my Web Application using any random page in Visual Studio Debug using the builtin Web Server. I then maually edit the URL to point to the /tx/ directory and some random string after it. For e.g. my current URL looks like http://localhost:53699/tx/sdfs. I thought this should pull up the breakpoint on the first line of ProcessRequest() but it does not. I’d be grateful for any ideas. O. O.

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  • SWFUpload Authentication

    - by durilai
    I am using SWFUpload to do file uploading in a ASP.NET MVC 1.0 website. It is working fine, but I am not able to authenticate the upload method. The HttpContext.User.Identity.Name returns an empty string. I am assuming this is because the Flash movie is making the post. I am also using the wrapper provided here: http://blog.codeville.net/2008/11/24/jquery-ajax-uploader-plugin-with-progress-bar/. The controller action below gets fired, but as mentiond above the user object is not passed. Any help is appreciated! View HTML <form enctype="multipart/form-data" method="post" action="/Media/Upload/Photo"> <input type="file" id="userPhoto_Photo" name="userPhoto_Photo" /> </form> Javascript $(function() { $("#userPhoto").makeAsyncUploader({ upload_url: '/Media/Upload', flash_url: '<%= Url.Content("~/Content/Flash/swfUpload-2.2.0.1.swf") %>', file_size_limit: '1 MB', file_types: '*.jpg; *.png; *.gif', button_action: SWFUpload.BUTTON_ACTION.SELECT_FILE, button_width: 210, button_height: 35, button_image_url: '<%= Url.Content("~/Content/Images/UploadPhoto.png") %>', button_text: '', button_cursor: SWFUpload.CURSOR.HAND, button_window_mode: SWFUpload.WINDOW_MODE.TRANSPARENT }); }); Controller Action [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Upload() { if (Request.Files.Count == 1) { //Upload work } return RedirectToAction("Index", "Profile"); }

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  • YUI "Get" utility to parse JSON response?

    - by Sean
    The documentation page for the YUI "Get" utility says: Get Utility is ideal for loading your own scripts or CSS progressively (lazy-loading) or for retrieving cross-domain JSON data from sources in which you have total trust. ...but doesn't have any actual examples for how to do so. Their one example doesn't actually request a JSON document from a remote server, but instead a document containing actual JavaScript along with the JSON data. I'm just interested in the JSON response from the Google Maps API HTTP (REST) interface. Because I can't do cross-site scripting with the "Connect" utility, I am trying the "Get" utility. But merely inserting some JSON data into the page isn't going to do anything, of course. I have to assign it to a variable. But how? Also, just inserting JSON data into the page makes Firefox complain that there's a JavaScript error. And understandably! Plain ol' JSON data isn't going to parse as valid JavaScript. Any ideas?

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  • Designing secure consumer blackberry application

    - by Kiran Kuppa
    I am evaluating a requirement for a consumer blackberry application that places high premium on security of user's data. Seems like it is an insurance company. Here are my ideas on how I could go about it. I am sure this would be useful for others who are looking for similar stuff Force the user to use device password. (I am guessing that this would be possible - though not checked it yet). Application can request notifications when the device is about to be locked and just after it has been unlocked. Encryption of application specific data can be managed at those times. Application data would be encrypted with user's password. User's credentials would be encrypted with device password. Remote backup of the data could be done over HTTPS (any better ideas are appreciated) Questions: What if the user forgets his device password. If the user forgets his application password, what is the best and secure way to reset the password? If the user losses the phone, remote backup must be done and the application data must be cleaned up. I have some ideas on how to achieve (3) and shall share them. There must be an off-line verification of the user's identity and the administrator must provide a channel using which the user must be able to send command to the device to perform the wiping of application data. The idea is that the user is ALWAYS in control of his data. Without the user's consent, even the admin must not be able to do activities such as cleaning up the data. In the above scheme of things, it appears as if the user's password need not be sent over the air to server. Am I correct? Thanks, --Kiran Kumar

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  • Eclipse CDT: cannot debug or terminate application

    - by Paul Lammertsma
    I have Eclipse set up fairly nicely to run the G++ compiler through Cygwin. Even the character encoding is set up correctly! There still seems to be something wrong with my configuration: I can't debug. The pause button in the debug view is simply disabled, and no threads appear in my application tree. It seems that gdb is simply not communicating with Eclipse. Presently, I have the debug settings as follows: Debugger: "Cygwin gdb Debugger" GDB debugger: gdb GDB command file: .gdbinit Protocol: Default I should mention here that I have no idea what .gdbinit does; in my project it is merely an empty file. What is wrong with my configuration? Debugging When attempting to terminate the application in debug mode, Eclipse displays the following error: Target request failed: failed to interrupt. I can't kill the process, either; I have to kill its parent gdb.exe, which in turn kills my application. Running When running it normally, a bunch of kill.exes are called, doing nothing, while Eclipse displays the following error: Terminate failed. I can kill FaceDetector.exe from the task manager. Process Explorer This is what it looks like in Process Explorer (debugging left, running right):

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  • unable to implement HTTP Tunneling correctly in order to enable Java rmi calls over internet(and und

    - by Lokesh Kumar
    in my previous question :-How to Setup RMI Server under(NAT/ISP) Now,i m able to start my RMI server by Installing apache Tomcat 6.0 server. i have also installed servlet programs into apache Tomcat server in order to enable HTTP tunneling. my servlet codes:- (1) [SimplifiedServletHandler.java][2] (2) [ServletForwardCommand.java][3] these servlets resides inside :- C:\Program Files\Apache Software Foundation\Tomcat 6.0\webapps\examples\WEB-INF\classes\ one more thing that i hv added to my CalcultorClient.java program:- try { RMISocketFactory. setSocketFactory(new sun.rmi.transport.proxy .RMIHttpToCGISocketFactory( )); }catch (IOException ignored) { System.out.println("Error :- ignored.getMessage()"); } But,when i try to make client connect with server(under ISP/NAT) i get the following Exception :- RemoteException java.rmi.UnmarshalException: Error unmarshaling return header; nested exception is: java.io.IOException: HTTP request failed i don't know the correct reason behind this Exception.. but,i think that i haven't installed or invoke my servlet programs properly on server side. so,can anybody tell me the correct reason behind this error/Exception????? and if u think that it is servlet problem then tell me the correct procedure to run my serlvet program inside tomcat server.

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  • send message to a web service according to its schema

    - by hguser
    Hi: When I request a web servcie,it give me a response which show me the required parameters and its schema,for example: the response of the web service for the descriptin of the parameter Then I start to organize the next requset according to the parameter,for the parameter "bandWith" I set it as the following: <InputParameter parameterID="bandWidth"> <value> <commonData> <swe:Category> <swe:quality> <swe:Text> <swe:value>low</swe:value> </swe:Text> </swe:quality> </swe:Category> </commonData> </value> </InputParameter> However I got a exception : error information Also I tried the following format,things does not chage: <InputParameter parameterID="bandWidth"> <value> <commonData> <swe:Category> <swe:value>low</swe:value> </swe:Category> </commonData> </value> </InputParameter> So, I wonder how do define the parameter to match the format it defined? The schema can be found there: The schema

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  • ASP.Net MVC vs ASP.Net for Complex workflows

    - by Grant Sutcliffe
    I have just become involved in migrating a series of complex workflows with InfoPath UIs to Web-based UIs. I am new to ASP.Net MVC but have started to evaluate it as the technology versus classic ASP.Net for the job. As is typical of most workflows, in each state there are a number of business rules that determine (a) who can view what content; (2) who can edit what content; (3) what the user action options might be (Edit; Reject; Approve), etc. In essence, there is a lot of logic that needs to be applied to each request before presenting the appropriate view. Being more experienced in ASP.Net, I know that presenting the form(s) as required can be easily achieved through code behind pages (enable / disable / hide fields). I have not seen how this can be achieved with ASP.Net MVC (but am realising that new thinking is required of me when working with MVC - ‘Give only the content on a particular View + limited user action options’). Therefore, if using ASP.Net MVC, it looks like I would need to create a lot of views. Much of the content in each view would be the same. Only field enabled status or buttons would differ in most instances for these views in each state. For example: Step01Initiate (‘Has Save’ button); Step01OriginatorView (has ‘Edit’ Button) ; Step01OriginatorEdit (has ‘Save’ button); Step01Review (has ‘Accept’ / ‘Reject’ buttons); Step01ReviewReject (for reviewer notes; has ‘Save’ / ‘Cancel’ buttons). With workflows of up to six states, this would result in a lot of views. I can see the advantages of choosing ASP.MVC (1) ‘thin’ Views in terms of content; and (2) with logic consolidation in Controllers and different Models. Am I thinking along the right lines in terms of applying the MVC – ‘plenty of views’; or is there a better way to achieve my goal (using ASP.Net MVC or classic ASP.Net)?

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  • Test multiple domains using ASP.NET development server

    - by Pete Lunenfeld
    I am developing a single web application that will dynamically change its content depending on which domain name is used to reach the site. Multiple domains will point to the same application. I wish to use the following code (or something close) to detect the domain name and perform the customizations: string theDomainName = Request.Url.Host; switch (theDomainName) { case "www.clientone.com": // do stuff break; case "www.clienttwo.com": // do other stuff break; } I would like to test the functionality of the above using the ASP.NET development server. I created mappings in the local HOSTS file to map www.clientone.com to 127.0.0.1, and www.clienttwo.com to 127.0.0.1. I then browse to the application with the browser using www.clinetone.com (etc). When I try to test this code using the ASP.net development server the URL always says localhost. It does NOT capture the host entered in the browser, only localhost. Is there a way to test the URL detection functionality using the development server? Thanks.

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  • Refresh a Div that has a Google ad inside it

    - by Abs
    Hello all, I have a div that holds a google ad. My website is mostly AJAX and there is no need for a browser refresh. That means my ads will not refresh either, which isnt ideal, a user staring at one ad all day. So I wanted a way to refresh a particular div on a page. I found many solutions but they didnt work. For example, using JQuery's html function: $("#ads").html("google ad script here"); This managed to refresh the whole page no idea how. I can also make an AJAX request to a HTML page that contains the google ad but I am guessing it will have the same effect as the above attempt. I do not want to use iFrames. Is there any other option open to me? My pea brain can not think of anymore. :) Thanks you for any help. EDIT: It is allowed since I will be initiating the refresh only when a user clicks a link. A prime example is Yahoo Mail - their new AJAX mailbox uses this same method, when a user clicks a link then a new ad is shown.

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  • Django: Serving Media Behind Custom URL

    - by TheLizardKing
    So I of course know that serving static files through Django will send you straight to hell but I am confused on how to use a custom url to mask the true location of the file using Django. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2681338/django-serving-a-download-in-a-generic-view but the answer I accepted seems to be the "wrong" way of doing things. urls.py: url(r'^song/(?P<song_id>\d+)/download/$', song_download, name='song_download'), views.py: def song_download(request, song_id): song = Song.objects.get(id=song_id) fsock = open(os.path.join(song.path, song.filename)) response = HttpResponse(fsock, mimetype='audio/mpeg') response['Content-Disposition'] = "attachment; filename=%s - %s.mp3" % (song.artist, song.title) return response This solution works perfectly but not perfectly enough it turns out. How can I avoid having a direct link to the mp3 while still serving through nginx/apache? EDIT 1 - ADDITIONAL INFO Currently I can get my files by using an address such as: http://www.example.com/music/song/1692/download/ But the above mentioned method is the devil's work. How can I accomplished what I get above while still making nginx/apache serve the media? Is this something that should be done at the webserver level? Some crazy mod_rewrite? http://static.example.com/music/Aphex%20Twin%20-%20Richard%20D.%20James%20(V0)/10%20Logon-Rock%20Witch.mp3

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  • How would you protect a database of links from being scraped?

    - by Yegor
    I have a large database of links, which are all sorted in specific ways and are attached to other information, which is valuable (to some people). Currently my setup (which seems to work) simply calls a php file like link.php?id=123, it logs the request with a timestamp into the DB. Before it spits out the link, it checks how many requests were made from that IP in the last 5 minutes. If its greater than x, it redirects you to a captcha page. That all works fine and dandy, but the site has been getting really popular (as well as been getting DDOsed for about 6 weeks), so php has been getting floored, so Im trying to minimize the times I have to hit up php to do something. I wanted to show links in plain text instead of thru link.php?id= and have an onclick function to simply add 1 to the view count. Im still hitting up php, but at least if it lags, it does so in the background, and the user can see the link they requested right away. Problem is, that makes the site REALLY scrapable. Is there anything I can do to prevent this, but still not rely on php to do the check before spitting out the link?

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  • jQuery aspx error function always called, even with apparently valid return data

    - by M Katz
    I am making an ajax call using jQuery (jquery-1.5.2.min.js). The server receives the call. fiddler shows the response text coming back apparently correct. But back in javascript my error: function is called instead of my success: function, and the data of the parameters to the error function don't give much clue as to the problem. Here's the function where I make the initial call: function SelectCBGAtClickedPoint() { $.ajax( { type: "GET", dataType: "text", url: "http://localhost/ajax/SelectCBGAtPoint/1/2", success: function( msg ) { alert( "success: " + msg ); }, error: function( jqXHR, textStatus, errorThrown ) { alert( "error: " + jqXHR + textStatus + errorThrown ); } } ); } Here's the function where I handle the call in my cherrypy server code: def ajax( ajax, *args ): with lock: print "ajax request received: " + str( args ) cherrypy.response.headers[ "Content-Type" ] = "application/text" return "{ x: 0 }" Cherrypy is an odd beast, and I was thinking the problem must lie there. But as I say, I see both the query go out and the response come back in Fiddler. Here is what Fiddler shows as the raw view of the response: HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Mon, 11 Apr 2011 17:49:25 GMT Content-Length: 8 Content-Type: application/text Server: CherryPy/3.2.0 { x: 0 } Looks good, but then back in javascript, I get into the error: function, with the following values for the parameters (as shown in firebug): errorThrown = "" jqXHR = Object { readyState=0, status=0, statusText="error"} statusText = "error" I don't know where that word "error" is coming from. That string does not appear anywhere in my cherrypy server code. Note that even though I'm returning a JSON string I've set the send and receive types to "text" for now, just to simplify in order to isolate the problem. Any ideas why I'm getting this "error" reply, even when errorThrown is empty? Could it be that I haven't properly "initialized" either jQuery or jQuery.ajax?

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  • Email Tracking - GMail

    - by Abs
    Hello all, I am creating my own email tracking system for email marketing tracking. I have been able to determine each persons email client they are using by using the http referrer but for some reason GMAIL does not send a HTTP_REFERRER at all! So I am trying to find another way of identifying when gmail requests a transparent image from my server. I get the following headers print_r($_SERVER);: DOCUMENT_ROOT = /usr/local/apache/htdocs GATEWAY_INTERFACE = CGI/1.1 HTTP_ACCEPT = */* HTTP_ACCEPT_CHARSET = ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.3 HTTP_ACCEPT_ENCODING = gzip,deflate,sdch HTTP_ACCEPT_LANGUAGE = en-GB,en-US;q=0.8,en;q=0.6 HTTP_CONNECTION = keep-alive HTTP_COOKIE = __utmz=156230011.1290976484.1.1.utmcsr=(direct)|utmccn=(direct)|utmcmd=(none); __utma=156230011.422791272.1290976484.1293034866.1293050468.7 HTTP_HOST = xx.xxx.xx.xxx HTTP_USER_AGENT = Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US) AppleWebKit/534.10 (KHTML, like Gecko) Chrome/8.0.552.237 Safari/534.10 PATH = /bin:/usr/bin QUERY_STRING = i=MTA= REDIRECT_STATUS = 200 REMOTE_ADDR = xx.xxx.xx.xxx REMOTE_PORT = 61296 REQUEST_METHOD = GET Is there anything of use in that list? Or is there something else I can do to actually get the http referrer, if not how are other ESPs managing to find whether gmail was used to view an email? Btw, I appreciate it if we can hold back on whether this is ethical or not as many ESPs do this already, I just don't want to pay for their service and I want to do it internally. Thanks all for any implementation advice. Update Just thought I would update this question and make it clearer in light of the bounty. I would like to find out when a user opens my email when sent to a GMail inbox. Assume, I have the usual transparent image tracking and the user does not block images. I would like to do this with the single request and the header details I get when the transparent image is requested.

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  • IntegrityError: foreign key violation upon delete

    - by Lukasz Korzybski
    I have Order and Shipment model. Shipment has a foreign key to Order. class Order(...): ... class Shipment() order = m.ForeignKey('Order') ... Now in one of my views I want do delete order object along with all related objects. So I invoke order.delete(). I have Django 1.0.4, PostgreSQL 8.4 and I use transaction middleware, so whole request is enclosed in single transaction. The problem is that upon order.delete() I get: ... File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/__init__.py", line 28, in _commit return self.connection.commit() IntegrityError: update or delete on table "main_order" violates foreign key constraint "main_shipment_order_id_fkey" on table "main_shipment" DETAIL: Key (id)=(45) is still referenced from table "main_shipment". I checked in connection.queries that proper queries are executed in proper order. First shipment is deleted, after that django executes delete on order row: {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_shipment" WHERE "id" IN (17)'}, {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_order" WHERE "id" IN (45)'} Foreign key have ON DELETE NO ACTION (default) and is initially deferred. I don't know why I get foreign key constraint violation. I also tried to register pre_delete signal and manually delete shipment objects before delete on order is called, but it resulted in the same error. I can change ON DELETE behaviour for this key in Postgres but it would be just a hack, I wonder if anyone has a better idea what's going on here. There is also a small detail, my Order model inherits from Cart model, so it actually doesn't have id field but cart_ptr_id and after DELETE on order is executed there is also DELETE on cart, but it seems unrelated? to the shipment-order problem so I simplified it in the example.

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  • Servlet requests are executed sequentially for no apparent reason in Glassfish v3

    - by Fabien Benoit
    Hi, I'm using Glassfish 3 Web profile and can't get http workers to execute concurrently requests on a servlet. This is how i observed the problem. I've made a very simple servlet, that writes the current thread name to the standard output and sleep for 10 seconds : protected void doGet(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { System.out.println(Thread.currentThread().getName()); try { Thread.sleep(10000); // 10 sec } catch (InterruptedException ex) {} } } And when i'm running several simultaneous requests, I clearly see in the logs that the requests are sequentially executed (one trace every 10 seconds). INFO: http-thread-pool-8080-(2) (10 seconds later...) INFO: http-thread-pool-8080-(1) (10 seconds later...) INFO: http-thread-pool-8080-(2) etc. All my GF settings are untouched - it's the out-of-the-box config (the default thread pool is 2 threads min, 5 max if I recall properly). ...I really don't understand why the sleep() block all the others worker threads. Any insight would be greatly appreciated ! Thanks, Fabien

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  • How can I display an ASP.NET MVC html part from one application in another

    - by Frank Sessions
    We have several asp.net MVC apps in the following setup SecurityApp (root application - handles forms auth for SSO and has a profile edit page) Application1 (virtual directory) Application2 (virtual directory) Application3 (virtual directory) so that domain.com points to SecurityApp and domain.com/Application1 etc point to their associated virtual directories. All of our Single Sign On (SSO) is working properly using forms authentication. Based on the users permissions when logging in a menu that lists their available applications and a logout link will be generated and saved in the cache - this menu displays fine whenever the user is in the SecurityApp (editing their profile) but we cannot figure out how to get the Applications in the virtual directories to display the same application menu. We have tried: 1) Using JSONP to do an request that will return the html for the menu. The ajax call returns the HTML with the html; however, because User.IsAuthenticated is false the menu comes back empty. 2) We created a user control and include it along with the dll's for the SecurityApp project and this works; however, we dont want to have to include all the dlls for the SecurityApp project in every application that we create (along with all the app settings in the web.config) We would like this to be as simple as possible to implement so that anyone creating a new app can add the menu to their application in as few steps as possible... Any ideas? To Clarify - we are using ASP.NET MVC 1.0 since these apps are in production and we do not have the okay to go to ASP.NET MVC 2.0 (unfortunately)

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  • SQL to get list of dates as well as days before and after without duplicates

    - by Nathan Koop
    I need to display a list of dates, which I have in a table SELECT mydate AS MyDate, 1 AS DateType FROM myTable WHERE myTable.fkId = @MyFkId; Jan 1, 2010 - 1 Jan 2, 2010 - 1 Jan 10, 2010 - 1 No problem. However, I now need to display the date before and the date after as well with a different DateType. Dec 31, 2009 - 2 Jan 1, 2010 - 1 Jan 2, 2010 - 1 Jan 3, 2010 - 2 Jan 9, 2010 - 2 Jan 10, 2010 - 1 Jan 11, 2010 - 2 I thought I could use a union SELECT MyDate, DateType FROM ( SELECT mydate - 1 AS MyDate, 2 AS DateType FROM myTable WHERE myTable.fkId = @MyFkId; UNION SELECT mydate + 1 AS MyDate, 2 AS DateType FROM myTable WHERE myTable.fkId = @MyFkId; UNION SELECT mydate AS MyDate, 1 AS DateType FROM myTable WHERE myTable.fkId = @MyFkId; ) AS myCombinedDateTable This however includes duplicates of the original dates. Dec 31, 2009 - 2 Jan 1, 2009 - 2 Jan 1, 2010 - 1 Jan 2, 2010 - 2 Jan 2, 2010 - 1 Jan 3, 2010 - 2 Jan 9, 2010 - 2 Jan 10, 2010 - 1 Jan 11, 2010 - 2 How can I best remove these duplicates? I am considering a temporary table, but am unsure if that is the best way to do it. This also appears to me that it may provide performance issues as I am running the same query three separate times. What would be the best way to handle this request?

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  • HttpURLConnection: What's the deal with having to read the whole response?

    - by stormin986
    My current problem is very similar to this one. I have a downloadFile(URL) function that creates a new HttpURLConnection, opens it, reads it, returns the results. When I call this function on the same URL multiple times, the second time around it almost always returns a response code of -1 (But throws no exception!!!). The top answer in that question is very helpful, but there are a few things I'm trying to understand. So, if setting http.keepAlive to false solves the problem, it indicates what exactly? That the server is responding in a way that violates the http protocol? Or more likely, my code is violating the protocol in some way? What will the trace tell me? What should I look for? And what's the deal with this: You need to read everything from error stream. Otherwise, it's going to confuse next connection and that's the cause of -1. Does this mean if the response is some type of error (which would be what response code(s)?), the stream HAS to be fully read? Also, every time I am attempting an http request I am basically creating a new connection, and then disconnect()ing it at the end. However, in my case I'm not getting a 401 or whatever. It's always a 200. But my second connection almost always fails. Does this mean there's some other data I should be reading that I'm not (in a similar manner that the error stream must be fully read)? Please help shed some light on this? I feel like there's some fundamental http protocol understanding I'm missing.

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