Search Results

Search found 15403 results on 617 pages for 'request querystring'.

Page 528/617 | < Previous Page | 524 525 526 527 528 529 530 531 532 533 534 535  | Next Page >

  • Different Linux message queues have the same id?

    - by Halo
    I open a mesage queue in a .c file, and upon success it says the message queue id is 3. While that program is still running, in another terminal I start another program (of another .c file), that creates a new message queue with a different mqd_t. But its id also appears as 3. Is this a problem? server file goes like this: void server(char* req_mq) { struct mq_attr attr; mqd_t mqdes; struct request* msgptr; int n; char *bufptr; int buflen; pid_t apid; //attr.mq_maxmsg = 300; //attr.mq_msgsize = 1024; mqdes = mq_open(req_mq, O_RDWR | O_CREAT, 0666, NULL); if (mqdes == -1) { perror("can not create msg queue\n"); exit(1); } printf("server mq created, mq id = %d\n", (int) mqdes); and the client goes like: void client(char* req_mq, int min, int max, char* dir_path_name, char* outfile) { pid_t pid; /* get the process id */ if ((pid = getpid()) < 0) { perror("unable to get client pid"); } mqd_t mqd, dq; char pfx[50] = DQ_PRFX; char suffix[50]; // sprintf(suffix, "%d", pid); strcat(pfx, suffix); dq = mq_open(pfx, O_RDWR | O_CREAT, 0666, NULL); if (dq == -1) { perror("can not open data queue\n"); exit(1); } printf("data queue created, mq id = %d\n", (int) dq); mqd = mq_open(req_mq, O_RDWR); if (mqd == -1) { perror("can not open msg queue\n"); exit(1); } mqdes and dq seem to share the same id 3.

    Read the article

  • @WebServices as @Stateless session bean in ejb jar

    - by kislo_metal
    Hi! Scenario: Creating some web service as @Stateless bean, package it as ejb jar. Result - can`t access to wsdl file. Goal: I want to use @WebServices as @Stateless session using ejb jar packaging with accessible wsdl file form web. Web service: @Stateless @WebService(serviceName = "ws.isp.SecurityService", wsdlLocation = "META-INF/wsdl/SecurityService.wsdl") public class SecurityService{ @EJB private Kerberos factory; @EJB private UsersServiceBean uService; public SecurityService() { } @WebMethod @WebResult(name = "SimpleResponse") public SimpleResponse LogOut( @WebParam(name = "sessionUUID", targetNamespace = "https://secure.co.ua/ws/") String sessionUUID ) { SimpleResponse resp = new SimpleResponse(); try{ factory.removeSession(sessionUUID); resp.setError(WSErrorCodes.SUCCESS); }catch (Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); resp.setError(WSErrorCodes.UNRELOSVED_ERROR); } return resp; } @WebMethod public MySession logIn( @WebParam(name = "username", targetNamespace = "https://secure.co.ua/ws/") String username, @WebParam(name = "password", targetNamespace = "https://secure.co.ua/ws/") String password){ MySession result = new MySession(); try { UserSession us = factory.creatSession(uService.getUser(username, password).getId()); result.setSessionID(us.getSessionUUID().toString()); result.setError(WSErrorCodes.SUCCESS); } catch (NullPointerException e){ e.printStackTrace(); result.setError(WSErrorCodes.UNRELOSVED_USER); } catch (Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); result.setError(WSErrorCodes.UNRELOSVED_ERROR); } return result; } } In this case I getting Invalid wsdl request http://192.168.44.48:8181/ws.isp.SecurityService/SecurityService when I try to access to wsdl and if do not use description of wsdlLocation I getting blank page. Web service as it self working good. Q1: what is the rule of describing wsdl file location for web services as stateless in ejb jar. Q2: is it possible to generate wsdl file during maven packaging ? Q3: how to generate wsdl file for web service where we have such annotation as @Stateless and @EJB (currently I can generate it only by commenting those annotations) environment: mave 2, ejb 3.1, glassfish v3, jax-ws 2.x Thank you!

    Read the article

  • calculating offer period for subscription

    - by TheVillageIdiot
    I'm maintaining a web application which deals with some kind of subscriptions. Users can to renew their subscriptions from 2 months before expiry (not earlier than that). Sometimes user does not renew before expiry and get grace period which is of 3 months. Now he can renew in these 3 months of grace period. Now the problem part. In the previous transactions of renew requests I have to show what was the offer period for that particular request (subscription start and subscription end period if renew was granted). Things are pretty simple if user renews before expiry, but I'm not able to get things straight if there is grace period specially when the subscriptions is expiring in last months of the year. Also there sometimes calculations go haywire when subscription is ending in jan or feb. All this is happening because offer period is not saved with the application anywhere (I don't know why). so if subscription is ending in 20 October 2008 and renew application is submitted in 16 January 2009 (because of grace period) the offer period should be 21 October 2008 to 20 October 2009.

    Read the article

  • Iphone - UIView not displayed

    - by Raphael Pinto
    Hi, I have a strange problem with a UIView : I want to show an Activity Indicator View that I created with Interface Builder to indicate long running activity. In the viewDidLoad function of my principal viewController I init the ActivityIndicator View like this : - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; appDelegate = (MyAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; load = [[ActivityIndicatorViewController alloc] init]; ... When I push a button it call this IBAction : - (IBAction)LaunchButtonPressed{ // Show the Activity indicator view. [self.view addSubview:load.view]; // eavy work [self StartWorking]; // Hide the loading view. [load.view removeFromSuperview]; } In the StartWorking function, I ask a request to an internet serveur and parse the XML file that it return me. The problem is that if I Call my StartWorking function, the application do not start by showing the Activity Indicator view but with the StartWorking function. Whereas if I remove the call to StartWorking function, the view is shown. Is someone able to explain me why? :s

    Read the article

  • Easiest RPC client method in PHP

    - by T.K.
    I've been asked to help a friend's company to bring up a web application. I have very limited time and I reluctantly accepted the request, at one condition. As most of the logic goes on in the back-end, I suggested that I would finish the complete back-end only, allowing a front-end developer to simply interface with my backend. I plan to do the back-end in Java EE or Python (with Pylons). It does not really matter at this point. I plan to have my back-end completely ready and unit-tested, so that my input will hardly be needed after my work is done. I know they have a PHP programmer, but as far as I could tell he is a real rookie. I want him to basically interface with my backend's services in the easiest possible way, with no way of him "stuffing" it up. It's basically a CRUD-only application. I could implement the backend as accessible through a webservice such as XML-RPC or SOAP. Even a RESTful API could be possible. However, my main objective is to make something that complete "noob" PHP programmer can easily interface with without getting confused. Preferably I do not even want to talk to him because I generally have an extremely busy schedule, and doing "support calls" is not something I am willing to do. Which approach should I choose? I would welcome any suggestions and inputs!

    Read the article

  • Optimization in Python - do's, don'ts and rules of thumb.

    - by JV
    Well I was reading this post and then I came across a code which was: jokes=range(1000000) domain=[(0,(len(jokes)*2)-i-1) for i in range(0,len(jokes)*2)] I thought wouldn't it be better to calculate the value of len(jokes) once outside the list comprehension? Well I tried it and timed three codes jv@Pioneer:~$ python -m timeit -s 'jokes=range(1000000);domain=[(0,(len(jokes)*2)-i-1) for i in range(0,len(jokes)*2)]' 10000000 loops, best of 3: 0.0352 usec per loop jv@Pioneer:~$ python -m timeit -s 'jokes=range(1000000);l=len(jokes);domain=[(0,(l*2)-i-1) for i in range(0,l*2)]' 10000000 loops, best of 3: 0.0343 usec per loop jv@Pioneer:~$ python -m timeit -s 'jokes=range(1000000);l=len(jokes)*2;domain=[(0,l-i-1) for i in range(0,l)]' 10000000 loops, best of 3: 0.0333 usec per loop Observing the marginal difference 2.55% between the first and the second made me think - is the first list comprehension domain=[(0,(len(jokes)*2)-i-1) for i in range(0,len(jokes)*2)] optimized internally by python? or is 2.55% a big enough optimization (given that the len(jokes)=1000000)? If this is - What are the other implicit/internal optimizations in Python ? What are the developer's rules of thumb for optimization in Python? Edit1: Since most of the answers are "don't optimize, do it later if its slow" and I got some tips and links from Triptych and Ali A for the do's. I will change the question a bit and request for don'ts. Can we have some experiences from people who faced the 'slowness', what was the problem and how it was corrected? Edit2: For those who haven't here is an interesting read Edit3: Incorrect usage of timeit in question please see dF's answer for correct usage and hence timings for the three codes.

    Read the article

  • [iphone,twitter] Accessing the Twitter API through a proxy using NSURLConnectionsm, OAuth problem

    - by akaii
    I'm having no problems with sending an update directly via hxxps://api.twitter.com/, but the app (for the Iphone, I'm using NSURLConnections) I'm working is supposed to allow the user to select a preferred proxy (e.g. hxxps://twitter-proxy.appspot.com/api/ or hxxps://nest.onedd.net/api/), and I keep getting a 401 error (Failed to validate oauth signature and token) whenever I try to get an access token via these proxies. Even though I send my POST request to the proxy, I am still using the direct url for the api (https:// api.twitter.com/[rest api path]) in the base string. Despite the 401 error message above, the status code I'm actually getting from connection:didReceiveResponse: is 200, probably because it was able to successfully contact the proxy... Is there anything else that I need to consider when using a proxy to access the API? Should anything in the authorization header change, for example? Or the base string? I can manage to connect via Basic Auth without issue, but support for that will be dropped in a month. On a somewhat unrelated note... What are the possible causes of Twitter's error 403, and how do you distinguish between them? Is the only way to differentiate an error due to exceeding the status update limit for an hour (150 per hour) vs for a day (1000 per day) by checking the string reply returned in the response? Is there any way for me to simulate a status update limit error without going through the motions of actually sending 150/1000 tweets?

    Read the article

  • 2 different routes on one page?

    - by Dejan.S
    Hi I'm pretty new with MVC2 or MVC in general. If it's one thing I get caught up with it's routes. Like now I got this scenario. Im going from the regular site to Admin. My navigation is the same partialview on both I just do a check which data to render something like this. <% if (!Request.RawUrl.Contains("Admin")){%> <% foreach (var site in Model) { %> <%= Html.MenuItem(site.BelongSite, "Sida", "Site", site.BelongSite) %> | <%} %> <%} else {%> <%= Html.ActionLink("Konfig", "Konfigurera", "Admin") %> <% } %> My route looks like this routes.MapRoute( "Admin", // Route name "Admin/{action}/{name}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Admin", action = "konfigurera", name = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); On my View called Konfigurera I got Edit sites and they use the route above and it works great. The navigation tho dont get no action assigned to it. It's just <a href='Admin/'> The navigation is in the shared folder, and it is a strongly typed. Any Ideas? I been struggling with this for about a hour now Thanks for any input

    Read the article

  • jQuery and AJAX?

    - by Moshe
    I'm making a simple form which has 5 input elements for parts of an address. I use jQuery to build and send an AJAX request to a PHP file on my server. For some reason my jQuery is not properly able to read the values from my input elements. What could be wrong? Here is my jQuery: $('#submitButton').click(function(){ $('#BBRequestBox').html('<img src="images/loading.gif" />'); alert('Info: ' + $('#name').val() + ' ' + $('#street').val() + ' ' + $('#city').val() + ' ' + $('#state').val() + ' ' + $('#zip').val() + ' '); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "./bbrequest.php", data: {name: $('#name').val(), street: $('#street').val(), city: $('#city').val(), state: $('#state').val(), zip: $('#zip').val() }, success: function(msg){ $('#BBRequestBox').html('<p>' + msg + '</p>'); }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown){ $('#BBRequestBox').html('<p> There\'s been an error: ' + errorThrown + '</p>'); } }); return false; }); Here is my HTML: <form action="#"> <label>Name:</label><input type="text" id="name" class="textbox"/> <label>Street:</label><input type="text" id="street" class="textbox" /> <label>City:</label><input type="text" id="city"class="textbox" /> <label>State:</label><input type="text" id="state" class="textbox"/> <label>Zip:</label><input type="text" id="zip" class="textbox" /> <input type="submit" value="Send Me a Bitachon Builder!" id="submitButton" /> </form>

    Read the article

  • ajax to populate an input type text

    - by kawtousse
    hi, I have an input type text that i want to populate it with a value from data base using the ajax technique. first i define my text zone like the following: <td><input type=text id='st' value=" " name='stname' onclick="donnom();" /></td> in javascript i do the following: xhr5.onreadystatechange = function(){ if(xhr5.readyState == 4 && xhr5.status == 200) { selects5 = xhr5.responseText; // On se sert de innerHTML pour rajouter les options a la liste document.getElementById('st').innerHTML = selects5; } }; xhr5.open("POST","ajaxIDentifier5.jsp",true); xhr5.setRequestHeader('Content-Type','application/x-www-form-urlencoded'); id=document.getElementById(idIdden).value; xhr5.send("id="+id); in IDentifier5.jsp i put the next code: '<%String id=request.getParameter("id"); System.out.println("idDailyTimeSheet ajaxIDentifier5 as is:"+id); Session s = null; Transaction tx; try { s= HibernateUtil.currentSession(); tx=s.beginTransaction(); Query query = s.createQuery("select from Dailytimesheet dailytimesheet where dailytimesheet.IdDailyTimeSheet="+id+" " ); for(Iterator it=query.iterate();it.hasNext();) { if(it.hasNext()) { Dailytimesheet object=(Dailytimesheet)it.next(); out.print( "<input type=\"text\" id=\"st1\" value=\""+object.getTimeFrom()+"\" name=\"starting\" onclick=\"donnom()\" ></input>"); } } }catch (HibernateException e) { e.printStackTrace();} %> i want to get only the value in the input type text populated from database because after that i will be able to change it . thanks for help.

    Read the article

  • HATEOAS - Discovery and URI Templating

    - by Paul Kirby
    I'm designing a HATEOAS API for internal data at my company, but have been having troubles with the discovery of links. Consider the following set of steps for someone to retrieve information about a specific employee in this system: User sends GET to http://coredata/ to get all available resources, returns a number of links including one tagged as rel = "http://coredata/rels/employees" User follows HREF on the rel from the first request, performing a GET at (for example) http://coredata/employees The data returned from this last call is my conundrum and a situation where I've heard mixed suggestions. Here are some of them: That GET will return all employees (with perhaps truncated data), and the client would be responsible for picking the one it wants from that list. That GET would return a number of URI templated links describing how to query / get one employee / get all employees. Something like: "_links": { "http://coredata/rels/employees#RetrieveOne": { "href": "http://coredata/employees/{id}" }, "http://coredata/rels/employees#Query": { "href": "http://coredata/employees{?login,firstName,lastName}" }, "http://coredata/rels/employees#All": { "href": "http://coredata/employees/all" } } I'm a little stuck here with what remains closest to HATEOAS. For option 1, I really do not want to make my clients retrieve all employees every time for the sake of navigation, but I can see how using URI templating in example two introduces some out-of-band knowledge. My other thought was to use the RetrieveOne, Query, and All operations as my cool URLs, but that seems to violate the concept that you should be able to navigate to the resources you want from one base URI. Has anyone else managed to come up with a good way to handle this? Navigation is dead simple once you've retrieved one resource or a set of resources, but it seems very difficult to use for discovery.

    Read the article

  • How to implement custom JSF component for drawing chart?

    - by Roman
    I want to create a component which can be used like: <mc:chart data="#{bean.data}" width="200" height="300" /> where #{bean.data} returns a collection of some objects or chart model object or something else what can be represented as a chart (to put it simple, let's assume it returns a collection of integers). I want this component to generate html like this: <img src="someimg123.png" width="200" height="300"/> The problem is that I have some method which can receive data and return image, like: public RenderedImage getChartImage (Collection<Integer> data) { ... } and I also have a component for drawing dynamic image: <o:dynamicImage width="200" height="300" data="#{bean.readyChartImage}/> This component generates html just as I need but it's parameter is array of bytes or RenderedImage i.e. it needs method in bean like this: public RenderedImage getReadyChartImage () { ... } So, one approach is to use propertyChangedListener on submit to set data (Collection<Integer>) for drawing chart and then use <o:dynamicImage /> component. But I'd like to create my own component which receives data and draws chart. I'm using facelets but it's not so important indeed. Any ideas how to create the desired component? P.S. One solution I was thinking about is not to use <o:dynamicImage/> and use some servlet to stream image. But I don't know how to implement that correctly and how to tie jsf component with servlet and how to save already built chart images (generating new same image for each request can cause performance problems imho) and so on..

    Read the article

  • JSF 2 f:ajax lifecycle problem

    - by gerry
    The problem is, that if a property is changed during an f:ajax request and a binded panelGroup should be newly created depending on that changed value, the old value is used. This code will explain the problem. Here is the backingbean TestBean: public String getFirst() { return first; } public void setFirst(String first) { this.first = first; } public String getLast() { return last; } public void setLast(String last) { this.last = last; } public String getName(){ return first+" "+last; } public void setDynamicPanel(HtmlPanelGroup panel){ } public HtmlPanelGroup getDynamicPanel(){ Application app = FacesContext.getCurrentInstance().getApplication(); HtmlPanelGroup component = (HtmlPanelGroup)app.createComponent(HtmlPanelGroup.COMPONENT_TYPE); HtmlOutputLabel label1 = (HtmlOutputLabel)app.createComponent(HtmlOutputLabel.COMPONENT_TYPE); label1.setValue(" --> "+getFirst()+" "+getLast()); component.getChildren().add(label1); return component; } and now the jsf/facelet code: <h:form id="form"> <h:panelGrid columns="1"> <h:inputText id="first" value="#{testBean.first}" /> <h:inputText id="last" value="#{testBean.last}" /> <h:commandButton value="Show"> <f:ajax execute="first last" render="name dyn" /> </h:commandButton> </h:panelGrid> <h:outputText id="name" value="#{testBean.name}" /> <h:panelGroup id="dyn" binding="#{testBean.dynamicPanel}" /> </h:form> After the page was initially loaded the outputText and panelGroup shows both "null" as first and last. But after the button is pressed, the outputText is updated well, but the the panelgroup shows again only "null". This is due to the problem, that the "binded method" dynamicPanel is executed before the update of the first and last properties. how can workaround this behaviour or what is wrong with my code?

    Read the article

  • Pros/cons of reading connection string from physical file vs Application object (ASP.NET)?

    - by HaterTot
    my ASP.NET application reads an xml file to determine which environment it's currently in (e.g. local, development, production). It checks this file every single time it opens a connection to the database, in order to know which connection string to grab from the Application Settings. I'm entering a phase of development where efficiency is becoming a concern. I don't think it's a good idea to have to read a file on a physical disk ever single time I wish to access the database (very often). I was considering storing the connection string in Application["ConnectionString"]. So the code would be public static string GetConnectionString { if (Application["ConnectionString"] == null) { XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.Load(HttpContext.Current.Request.PhysicalApplicationPath + "bin/ServerEnvironment.xml"); XmlElement xe = (XmlElement) xnl[0]; switch (xe.InnerText.ToString().ToLower()) { case "local": connString = Settings.Default.ConnectionStringLocal; break; case "development": connString = Settings.Default.ConnectionStringDevelopment; break; case "production": connString = Settings.Default.ConnectionStringProduction; break; default: throw new Exception("no connection string defined"); } Application["ConnectionString"] = connString; } return Application["ConnectionString"].ToString(); } I didn't design the application so I figure there must have been a reason for reading the xml file every time (to change settings while the application runs?) I have very little concept of the inner workings here. What are the pros and cons? Do you think I'd see a small performance gain by implementing the function above? THANKS

    Read the article

  • Java library class to handle scheduled execution of "callbacks"?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    My program has a component - dubbed the Scheduler - that lets other components register points in time at which they want to be called back. This should work much like the Unix cron service, i. e. you tell the Scheduler "notify me at ten minutes past every full hour". I realize there are no real callbacks in Java. Here's my approach, is there a library which already does this stuff? Feel free to suggest improvements, too. Register call to Scheduler passes: a time specification containing hour, minute, second, year month, dom, dow, where each item may be unspecified, meaning "execute it every hour / minute etc." (just like crontabs) an object containing data that will tell the calling object what to do when it is notified by the Scheduler. The Scheduler does not process this data, just stores it and passes it back upon notification. a reference to the calling object Upon startup, or after a new registration request, the Scheduler starts with a Calendar object of the current system time and checks if there are any entries in the database that match this point in time. If there are, they are executed and the process starts over. If there aren't, the time in the Calendar object is incremented by one second and the entreis are rechecked. This repeats until there is one entry or more that match(es). (Discrete Event Simulation) The Scheduler will then remember that timestamp, sleep and wake every second to check if it is already there. If it happens to wake up and the time has already passed, it starts over, likewise if the time has come and the jobs have been executed. Edit: Thanks for pointing me to Quartz. I'm looking for something much smaller, however.

    Read the article

  • .Net Remoting: Serialize Object and implementation

    - by flogo
    Hi, In my scenario there is a client-side assembly that contains a class (Task). This class implements an interface (ITask) that is known on the server. I'm trying to send a Task object from client to server without copying the assembly of the client manually to the server. If I just serialize the task object, the server obviously complains about the missing assembly. I then tried to serialze typeof(Task).Assembly but could not derserialize it on the server. Next I tried to File.ReadAllBytes(typeof(Task).Assembly.Location) and saved it to a temporary file on the server, which threw an exception on Assembly.LoadFrom(@".\temporary.dll"); Why am I doing this? Java RMI has a neat feature to request the implementation of an object that is received through remoting but is stil "unkown" (this JVM doesn't have the *.class file). This can be used for a compute server that just knows the interface of a "task" containing a run() method and downloads the implementation of this method on demand. This way the server doesn't have to be changed for new tasks. I'm trying to achieve something like this in .Net.

    Read the article

  • check whether mmap'ed address is correct

    - by reddot
    I'm writing a high-loaded daemon that should be run on the FreeBSD 8.0 and on Linux as well. The main purpose of daemon is to pass files that are requested by their identifier. Identifier is converted into local filename/file size via request to db. And then I use sequential mmap() calls to pass file blocks with send(). However sometimes there are mismatch of filesize in db and filesize on filesystem (realsize < size in db). In this situation I've sent all real data blocks and when next data block is mapped -- mmap returns no errors, just usual address (I've checked errno variable also, it's equal to zero after mmap). And when daemon tries to send this block it gets Segmentation Fault. (This behaviour is guarantedly issued on FreeBSD 8.0 amd64) I was using safe check before open to ensure size with stat() call. However real life shows to me that segfault still can be raised in rare situtaions. So, my question is there a way to check whether pointer is accessible before dereferencing it? When I've opened core in gdb, gdb says that given address is out of bound. Probably there is another solution somebody can propose.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET DropDownList posting ""

    - by Daniel
    I am using ASP.NET forms version 3.5 in VB I have a dropdownlist that is filled with data from a DB with a list of countries The code for the dropdown list is <label class="ob_label"> <asp:DropDownList ID="lstCountry" runat="server" CssClass="ob_forminput"> </asp:DropDownList> Country*</label> And the code that the list is Dim selectSQL As String = "exec dbo.*******************" ' Define the ADO.NET objects. Dim con As New SqlConnection(connectionString) Dim cmd As New SqlCommand(selectSQL, con) Dim reader As SqlDataReader ' Try to open database and read information. Try con.Open() reader = cmd.ExecuteReader() ' For each item, add the author name to the displayed ' list box text, and store the unique ID in the Value property. Do While reader.Read() Dim newItem As New ListItem() newItem.Text = reader("AllSites_Countries_Name") newItem.Value = reader("AllSites_Countries_Id") CType(LoginViewCart.FindControl("lstCountry"), DropDownList).Items.Add(newItem) Loop reader.Close() CType(LoginViewCart.FindControl("lstCountry"), DropDownList).SelectedValue = 182 Catch Err As Exception Response.Redirect("~/error-on-page/") MailSender.SendMailMessage("*********************", "", "", OrangeBoxSiteId.SiteName & " Error Catcher", "<p>Error in sub FillCountry</p><p>Error on page:" & HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.AbsoluteUri & "</p><p>Error details: " & Err.Message & "</p>") Response.Redirect("~/error-on-page/") Finally con.Close() End Try When the form is submitted an error occurs which says that the string "" cannot be converted to the datatype integer. For some reason the dropdownlist is posting "" rather than the value for the selected country.

    Read the article

  • How to flush DNS cache in Windows Mobile programmatically?

    - by Bounded
    Hello, My windows mobile application (written in C# with the compact framework) needs to know if a particular machine is active or not. To achieve this goal, I thought to use a ping mechanism. I tried to use the Ping class implemented in the opennetcf framework (the System.Net.NetworkInformation.Ping class for the .NET Framework is not part of the compact framework). Because I give to the Ping.Send function a host name, it first tries to resolve this host name and to retrieve an IP address. But i observe the following problem : If the first dns resolution fails (because the network is down at this moment), and if the application tries immediately again to send the ping, it fails too, even if the network is note down anymore. I check with a famous network protocol analyzer and i saw that only the requests concerning the first dns resolution are sent. The requests concerning the dns resolution of the second ping are not sent. Why is the second dns request not sent ? Is there any dns cache mechanism on such Windows Mobile devices ? If yes, can this mechanism beeing flushed programmatically ? EDIT : I gave up finding a solution to this DNS flush. I chose to ping an IP adress instead of a name machine. The problem of pinging an hard coded adress IP is that we have to be 100% sure that this IP will not change. The gateway IP can be used because it's always reachable (if it does not, it means the network is down).

    Read the article

  • How Can I Create Reports in a Custom C#.NET Windows Application? - General Question

    - by user311509
    Assume i have a custom Windows application written in C#. This application has only the following functionalists, add, edit, delete and view. For example, a user can add a sale, change sales record, delete a sale record or view the whole sales record. I need to add some reporting functionalists e.g. i want a user to print the sales of a certain customer from 2008 to 2009 into pdf, what all products a certain customer has purchased from us and so on. I will only include the basic common report requests that are usually needed in the office. Any other kind of reports that are requested inconsistently, i would do it manually from my side at the back end and send the results manually to the requester. What i would do is: If a user wants more info of a certain customer, a special window box appears for that customer. This window box will have different controls that allows user to request more info such as, print customer purchases from ..... to ..... (user chooses the dates) and user will view results in pdf or so. Of course, at the back scene i will write an appropriate SQL Query with parameters that meets a certain function. Is this how it should be done? I have heard about SQL Reporting, i don't know anything about it yet. I will check it out. Anyhow, your suggestions won't harm. I'm still a student, so i don't have practical experience yet. I hope my question is clear enough. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Has form post behavior changed in modern browsers? (or How are double clicks handled by the browser)

    - by Alex Czarto
    Background: We are in the process of writing a registration/payment page, and our philosophy was to code all validation and error checking on the server side first, and then add client side validation as a second step (un-obstructive jQuery). We wanted to disable double clicks server side, so we wrote some locking, thread-safe code to handle simultaneous posts/race conditions. When we tried to test this, we realized that we could not cause a simultaneous post or race condition to occur. I thought that (in older browsers anyway) double clicking a submit button worked as follows: User double clicks submit button. Browser sends a post on the first click On the second click, browser cancels/ignores initial post, and initiates a second post (before the first post has returned with a response). Browser waits for second post to return, ignoring initial post response. I thought that from the server side it looked like this: Server gets two simultaneous post requests, executes and responds to them both (unaware that no one is listening to the first response). From our testing (FireFox 3.0, IE 8.0) this is what actually happens: User double clicks submit button Browser sends a post for the first click Browser queues up second click, but waits for the response from the first click. Response returns from first click (response is ignored?). Browser sends a post for the second click. So from a server side: Server receives a single post which it executes and responds to. Then, server receives a second request wich it executes and responds to. My question is, has this always worked this way (and I'm losing my mind)? Or is this a new feature in modern browsers that prevents simultaneous posts to be sent to the server? It seems that for server side double click prevention, we don't have to worry about simultaneous posts or race conditions. Only need to worry about queued up posts. Thanks in advance for any feedback / comments. Alex

    Read the article

  • jQuery: Stop browser scrolling on event update beyond the fold?

    - by neezer
    I have several links at the bottom of my page that update content at the top of my page (more than a viewport away). Here's the gist of what the update looks like: $('#private-photo div').fadeOut(function() { $(this).html('<%= escape_javascript(image_tag current_user.private_photo.image.url(:profile)) %>'); }).fadeIn(); Basically it's just fading out the old content and fading in the new content. My problem is that when this happens, the browser window automatically scrolls up just far enough so that the bottom of the updated content (#private-photo div) appears at the top of the browser viewport. I do not want this to happen. I want the content to be updated (still fading in and out), but without the browser viewport realigning its focus. I want to keep the animation because if the user has a big enough screen, or if they are using a link closer to the top of the page, I still want them to see the animation. Any ideas about how to prevent the browser from scrolling as described? If not, any suggestions for workarounds? FYI, I have this same problem in Safari 4, Chrome (for Mac), & Firefox 3.5. EDIT: Here's the link that calls the update action, which is itself inside a Colorbox: $('a.edit-photo').colorbox({ title: function() { return 'Edit Photo in ' + $(this).attr('rel'); }, overlayClose: false, onComplete: function() { $('#edit-photo-modal').submit(function(e) { $('#photo_submit').after('<span id="saving">Saving...</span>'); e.preventDefault(); $.post($(this).attr('action'), $(this).serialize(), function() { $('#edit-photo-modal #saving').text('Saved!'); }, "script"); }); } }); The lightbox opens, presents a form fetched through an AJAX request, then (on submit) triggers the update action mentioned above. I had these links outside of the Colorbox in an earlier design revision, and they exhibited the same problem, so I've ruled out Colorbox itself as a cause. If you need anymore info, let me know!

    Read the article

  • How can I prevent/make it hard to download my flash video?

    - by Billy
    I want to at least prevent normal users to download my flash video. What's the best way to do it? Create a httphandler, add a token (e.g. timeid), set the cache control to no-cache so that only the users with correct token can view the correct video. Is that feasible? It is the requirement from client that the video should not be downloaded by users and should be watched only in the particular website. I want to know if this works: http://www.somesite.com/video.swf?time=1248319067 Server will generate a token(time in the above example) so that user can only have one request to this link. If the user wants to watch the video again, he needs to go to our website to get the token again. Is this okay to prevent novices from downloading? I can't download this flash video by the downloadHelper firefox plugin: http://news.bbc.co.uk/2/hi/americas/8164177.stm Updated (13:49 pm 2009/07/23): The above file can be downloaded using some video download software. The video files of following Chinese sites are well protected (I can't download it using many video download software): http://programme.tvb.com/drama/abrideforaride/video/ Do you know how it is done?

    Read the article

  • Unable to render php files in browser

    - by p1
    Hello, I am very new to php, and I am trying to develop a facebook application using php. I am using Joyent as my hosting platform. Currently, I am trying to do some simple scripts in php and then build on them. However I am unable to see any php files being rendered properly in my application. For eg: I have a simple script called phpinfo.php: If I execute this on terminal like php phpinfo.php , I can see all the configurations. However if I try to access the same file as http://xxxxxx.facebook.joyent.us/phpinfo.php, I get : Internal Server Error The server encountered an internal error or misconfiguration and was unable to complete your request. Even if I rename this file to index.php its still the same. However I am able to access other html files [index.html] on the same location . These are some of my php settings: These are some of the settings: [fbkusoni:~/web/public] aafhe7vh$ php phpinfo.php | grep On allow_url_fopen = On = On auto_globals_jit = On = On enable_dl = On = On file_uploads = On = On ignore_repeated_errors = On = On ignore_repeated_source = On = On implicit_flush = On = On log_errors = On = On register_argc_argv = On = On report_memleaks = On = On y2k_compliance = On = On Multibyte regex (oniguruma) backtrack check = On mysql.allow_persistent = On = On session.bug_compat_warn = On = On session.use_cookies = On = On suhosin.cookie.cryptdocroot = On = On suhosin.cookie.cryptua = On = On suhosin.mt_srand.ignore = On = On suhosin.protectkey = On = On suhosin.server.encode = On = On suhosin.server.strip = On = On suhosin.session.cryptdocroot = On = On suhosin.session.cryptua = On = On suhosin.session.encrypt = On = On suhosin.srand.ignore = On = On suhosin.stealth = On = On The answer might be very naive, but I am just trying to get started and looking for any suggestions regarding this and also using Joyent and cakephp to develop facebook applications. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • XMLHttpRequest open() returning access denied

    - by rjovic
    Hi! I have problem with xhr open() method. My code follows : var xmlhttp=false; if(!xmlhttp) try { xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } catch(e) { xmlhttp=false; } function returnPage(url) { if(!xmlhttp) return alert("Your browser doesn't seem to support XMLHttpRequests."); xmlhttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if(xmlhttp.readyState!=4) return; if(!xmlhttp.status||xmlhttp.status==200) alert(xmlhttp.responseText); else alert("Request failed!"); }; //onreadystatechange xmlhttp.send(null); } Call : <a href='#' onclick="returnPage('http://www.something.com'); return false;">Link 1</a></p> I'm using IE8 (because I'm building web slice) and I received error "Access denied". I found on the Internet that problem is that XHR isn't working across different domains, but I used code from Firefox Add-on which is working OK. And that add-on and "my" code (which are the same) are calling the same page. How that add-on have access and my code not?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 524 525 526 527 528 529 530 531 532 533 534 535  | Next Page >