Search Results

Search found 16054 results on 643 pages for 'reference architecture'.

Page 523/643 | < Previous Page | 519 520 521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530  | Next Page >

• Basic site analytics doesn't tally with Google data

  - by Jenkz

  After being stumped by an earlier quesiton: SO google-analytics-domain-data-without-filtering I've been experimenting with a very basic analytics system of my own. MySQL table: hit_id, subsite_id, timestamp, ip, url The subsite_id let's me drill down to a folder (as explained in the previous question). I can now get the following metrics: Page Views - Grouped by subsite_id and date Unique Page Views - Grouped by subsite_id, date, url, IP (not nesecarily how Google does it!) The usual "most visited page", "likely time to visit" etc etc. I've now compared my data to that in Google Analytics and found that Google has lower values each metric. Ie, my own setup is counting more hits than Google. So I've started discounting IP's from various web crawlers, Google, Yahoo & Dotbot so far. Short Questions: Is it worth me collating a list of all major crawlers to discount, is any list likely to change regularly? Are there any other obvious filters that Google will be applying to GA data? What other data would you collect that might be of use further down the line? What variables does Google use to work out entrance search keywords to a site? The data is only going to used internally for our own "subsite ranking system", but I would like to show my users some basic data (page views, most popular pages etc) for their reference.

  Read the article

• Grails bean-fields plugin

  - by Don

  Hi, I'm having problems using the Grails bean-fields plugin with a class this is annotated Validateable, but is not a domain/command class. The root cause of the problem appears to be in this method of BeanTagLib.groovy private def getBeanConstraints(bean) { if (bean?.metaClass?.hasProperty(bean, 'constraints')) { def cons = bean.constraints if (cons != null) { if (log.debugEnabled) { log.debug "Bean is of type ${bean.class} - the constraints property was a [${cons.class}]" } // Safety check for the case where bean is no a proper domain/command object // This avoids confusing errors where constraints comes back as a Closure if (!(cons instanceof Map)) { if (log.warnEnabled) { log.warn "Bean of type ${bean.class} is not a domain class, command object or other validateable object - the constraints property was a [${cons.class}]" } } } else { if (log.warnEnabled) { log.warn "Bean of type ${bean.class} has no constraints" } } return cons } else return null } I tested out this method above in the grails console and when I pass an instance of MyBean into this method, it logs: Bean of type ${bean.class} is not a domain class, command object or other validateable object - the constraints property was a [${cons.class}] Because the constraints are returned as an instance of Closure instead of a Map. If I could figue out how to get a Map reference to the constraints of a @Validateable class (that is not a domain/command class), I guess I could resolve the problem. Thanks, Don

  Read the article

• Blackberry Apps - Importing a code-signed jar into an application project

  - by Eric Sniff

  Hi everyone, I'm working on a library project that Blackberry Java developers can import into their projects. It uses protected RIM APIs which require that it be code-signed, which I have done. But, I can't get my Jar imported and working with a simple helloWorld app. I'm using the eclipse plug-in Blackberry-JDE. Here is what I have tried: First: Building myLibProject with BlackBerry_JDE_PluginFull_1.0.0.67 into a JAR, signing it and importing it into a BlackBerry_JDE_PluginFull_1.0.0.67 application project -- I get a class not found error, while compiling the application project. Next: I imported myLibProject into an BlackBerry_JDE_PluginFull_1.1.1.* library project, built it into a jar, signed it and imported it into a BlackBerry_JDE_PluginFull_1.1.1.* application project. It built this time, but while loading up the simulator to test it I get the following error ( Access violation reading from 0xFFFFFFC ) before the simulator can loadup and it crashs the simulator. Other stuff I've tried: I also tried importing the jar into it's own project and having the HelloWorld app project reference that project. If I include the src in my application project it works fine... But Im looking for a way to deploy this as compiled code. Any Ideas? Or help?

  Read the article

• How to save a picture to a file?

  - by Peter vdL

  I'm trying to use a standard Intent that will take a picture, then allow approval or retake. Then I want to save the picture into a file. Here's the Intent I am using: Intent intent = new Intent(android.provider.MediaStore.ACTION_IMAGE_CAPTURE ); startActivityForResult( intent, 22 ); The docs at http://developer.android.com/reference/android/provider/MediaStore.html#ACTION_IMAGE_CAPTURE say "The caller may pass an extra EXTRA_OUTPUT to control where this image will be written. If the EXTRA_OUTPUT is not present, then a small sized image is returned as a Bitmap object in the extra field. If the EXTRA_OUTPUT is present, then the full-sized image will be written to the Uri value of EXTRA_OUTPUT." I don't pass extra output, I hope to get a Bitmap object in the extra field of the Intent passed into onActivityResult() (for this request). So where/how do you extract it? Intent has a getExtras(), but that returns a Bundle, and Bundle wants a key string to give you something back. What do you invoke on the Intent to extract the bitmap?

  Read the article

• PHP, jQuery and Ajax Object Orientation

  - by pastylegs

  I'm a fairly experienced programmer getting my head around PHP and Ajax for the first time, and I'm having a bit of trouble figuring out how to incorperate object oriented PHP into my ajax webapp. I have an admin page (admin.php) that will load and write information (info.xml) from an XML file depending on the users selection of a form on the admin page. I have decided to use an object (ContentManager.php) to manage the loading and writing of the XML file to disk, i.e : class ContentManager{ var $xml_attribute_1 ... function __construct(){ //load the xml file from disk and save its contents into variables $xml_attribute = simplexml_load_file(/path/to/xml) } function get_xml_contents(){ return xml_attribute; } function write_xml($contents_{ } function print_xml(){ } } I create the ContentManager object in admin.php like so <?php include '../includes/CompetitionManager.php'; $cm = new CompetitionManager() ?> <script> ...all my jquery </script> <html> ... all my form elements </html> So now I want to use AJAX to allow the user to retrieve information from the XML file via the ContentManger app using an interface (ajax_handler.php) like so <?php if(_POST[]=="get_a"){ }else if() } ... ?> I understand how this would work if I wasn't using objects, i.e. the hander php file would do a certain action depending on a variable in the .post request, but with my setup, I can't see how I can get a reference to the ContentManager object I have created in admin.php in the ajax_handler.php file? Maybe my understanding of php object scope is flawed. Anyway, if anyone can make sense of what I'm trying to do, I would appreciate some help!

  Read the article

• Asp.Net MVC 2: How exactly does a view model bind back to the model upon post back?

  - by Dr. Zim

  Sorry for the length, but a picture is worth 1000 words: In ASP.NET MVC 2, the input form field "name" attribute must contain exactly the syntax below that you would use to reference the object in C# in order to bind it back to the object upon post back. That said, if you have an object like the following where it contains multiple Orders having multiple OrderLines, the names would look and work well like this (case sensitive): This works: Order[0].id Order[0].orderDate Order[0].Customer.name Order[0].Customer.Address Order[0].OrderLine[0].itemID // first order line Order[0].OrderLine[0].description Order[0].OrderLine[0].qty Order[0].OrderLine[0].price Order[0].OrderLine[1].itemID // second order line, same names Order[0].OrderLine[1].description Order[0].OrderLine[1].qty Order[0].OrderLine[1].price However we want to add order lines and remove order lines at the client browser. Apparently, the indexes must start at zero and contain every consecutive index number to N. The black belt ninja Phil Haack's blog entry here explains how to remove the [0] index, have duplicate names, and let MVC auto-enumerate duplicate names with the [0] notation. However, I have failed to get this to bind back using a nested object: This fails: Order.id // Duplicate names should enumerate at 0 .. N Order.orderDate Order.Customer.name Order.Customer.Address Order.OrderLine.itemID // And likewise for nested properties? Order.OrderLine.description Order.OrderLine.qty Order.OrderLine.price Order.OrderLine.itemID Order.OrderLine.description Order.OrderLine.qty Order.OrderLine.price I haven't found any advice out there yet that describes how this works for binding back nested ViewModels on post. Any links to existing code examples or strict examples on the exact names necessary to do nested binding with ILists? Steve Sanderson has code that does this sort of thing here, but we cannot seem to get this to bind back to nested objects. Anything not having the [0]..[n] AND being consecutive in numbering simply drops off of the return object. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• What is the WCF equivalent?

  - by klausbyskov

  I am trying to port some code that is based on WSE3.0 to WCF. Basically, the old code has the following configuration: <microsoft.web.services3> <diagnostics> <trace enabled="true" input="InputTrace.webinfo" output="OutputTrace.webinfo" /> </diagnostics> <tokenIssuer> <statefulSecurityContextToken enabled="false" /> </tokenIssuer> </microsoft.web.services3> When calling the same service through my "Service Reference" I get this error: Request does not contain required Security header My binding looks like this: <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="LegalUnitGetBinding" closeTimeout="00:01:00" openTimeout="00:01:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:01:00" allowCookies="false" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" maxBufferSize="65536" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536" messageEncoding="Text" textEncoding="utf-8" transferMode="Buffered" useDefaultWebProxy="true"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <security mode="Transport"> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> From what I have understood, the service I'm calling only requires an SSL connection, since it receives a username and password as part of a request parameter. Any help or suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• Per-pixel per-component alpha blending in Windows

  - by Crend King

  I have a 24-bit bitmaps with R, G, B color channels and a 24-bit bitmap with R, G, B alpha channels. I want to alpha blend the first bitmap to a HDC in GDI or RenderTarget in Direct2D with the alpha channels respectively. For example, suppose for one pixel, the bitmap color is (192, 192, 192), the HDC color is (0, 255, 255) and the alpha channels are (30, 40, 50). The final HDC color should be (22, 245, 242). I know I can BitBlt the HDC to a memory HDC first, do alpha blending by manually calculating the color of each pixel and finally BitBlt back. I just want to avoid the additional blitting and leave APIs do their job (faster since they are in kernel space). The first idea comes to my mind is to split the source bitmap into 3 red-only, green-only and blue-only 8-bit bitmaps, do normal alpha blending, then composite the 3 output bitmaps into the HDC. But I don't find a way to do the splitting and composition natively in Windows (would Direct2D layer help?). Also, the splitting and compositing may require many additional copying. The performance overhead would be too high. Or maybe do the alpha blending in 3 passes. Each pass apply the blending for one channel, while maintaining the other 2 unchanged. Thanks for any comment. EDIT: I found this question, and the answer should be good reference to this problem. However, besides AC_SRC_OVER, there is no other blending operation supported. Why don't Microsoft improve their API?

  Read the article

• SSIS Lookup with Lookup Component Vs Script Component.

  - by Nev_Rahd

  Hello, I need to load Dimensions from EDW Tables (which does maintain historical records) and is of type Key-Value-Parameter. My scenario is ok if got a record in EDW as below Key1 Key2 Code Value EffectiveDate EndDate CurrentFlag 100 555 01 AAA 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y 100 555 02 BBB 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y This need to be loaded into DM by pivoting it as key1 and key2 combinations makes Natural key for DM SK NK 01 02 EffectiveDate EndDate CurrentFlag 1 100-555 AAA BBB 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y My ssis package does this all good pivoting... looking up the incoming NK in DIM.. if new will insert .. else with further lookup with effective date and determine if the incoming for same natural key got any new (change) in attribute.. if so updates the current record byy setting its end date and insert the new one with new attribute value and pulling the recent records values for other attributes. My problem is if the same natural key comes twice with same attribute in single extract my first lookup which on natural key .. will let both records pass and try to insert.. where its fails. If i get distinct records on NK the second is not picked and need to run package again. So my question how can i configure lookup or alernative way to handle this scenario when same NK comes twice in single extract, would be able to insert first record if not exists in Dim table and for second one should be able to updated with the changes with reference to one inserted above. Not sure this makes sense what am trying to explain. Will attached the screenshot once back to work desk (on monday). Thanks

  Read the article

• boost::binding that which is already bound

  - by PaulH

  I have a Visual Studio 2008 C++ application that does something like this: template< typename Fcn > inline void Bar( Fcn fcn ) // line 84 { fcn(); }; template< typename Fcn > inline void Foo( Fcn fcn ) { // this works fine Bar( fcn ); // this fails to compile boost::bind( Bar, fcn )(); }; void main() { SYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX status = { 0 }; Foo( boost::bind( ::GetSystemPowerStatusEx, &status, true ) ); // line 160 } *The call to GetSystemPowerStatusEx() is just for demonstration. Insert your favorite call there and the behavior is the same. When I go to compile this, I get 84 errors. I won't post them all unless asked, but they start with this: 1>.\MyApp.cpp(99) : error C2896: 'boost::_bi::bind_t<_bi::dm_result<MT::* ,A1>::type,boost::_mfi::dm<M,T>,_bi::list_av_1<A1>::type> boost::bind(M T::* ,A1)' : cannot use function template 'void Bar(Fcn)' as a function argument 1> .\MyApp.cpp(84) : see declaration of 'Bar' 1> .\MyApp.cpp(160) : see reference to function template instantiation 'void Foo<boost::_bi::bind_t<R,F,L>>(Fcn)' being compiled 1> with 1> [ 1> R=BOOL, 1> F=BOOL (__cdecl *)(PSYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX,BOOL), 1> L=boost::_bi::list2<boost::_bi::value<_SYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX *>,boost::_bi::value<bool>>, 1> Fcn=boost::_bi::bind_t<BOOL,BOOL (__cdecl *)(PSYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX,BOOL),boost::_bi::list2<boost::_bi::value<_SYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX *>,boost::_bi::value<bool>>> 1> ] If anybody can point out what I may be doing wrong, I would appreciate it. Thanks, PaulH

  Read the article

• Why user control with code behind file doesn't want to compile under MVC2?

  - by kyrisu

  I have user control in my MVC2 app placed in the Content folder (it's not supposed to be a view, just reusable part of the app). UserControl1.ascx looks like: <@ Control AutoEventWireup="true" Language="C#" CodeFile="~/Content/UserControl1.ascx.cs" Inherits="MVCDrill.Content.UserControl1" %> <div runat="server" id="mydiv"> <asp:LinkButton id="lb_text" runat="server"></asp:LinkButton> </div> UserControl1.ascx.cs looks like: using System; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; namespace MVCDrill.Content { public class UserControl1 : UserControl { public string Text { get { return this.lb_text.Text; } set { this.lb_text.Text = value; } } } } I'm pretty sure this kind of stuff compiled under webforms but I'm getting compilation error: 'MVCDrill.Content.UserControl1' does not contain a definition for 'lb_text' and no extension method 'lb_text' accepting a first argument of type 'MVCDrill.Content.UserControl1' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Am I missing something? How to change it (what is the alternative) in MVC2 ? p.s. Intellisense sees lb_text with no problem. I've tried with different controls with the same outcome.

  Read the article

• Android : Customizing tabs on state : How do I make a selector a drawable

  - by Chrispix

  I know how to put the icon on each tab, that is no problem. I also ran across this : Stack Overflow thread on pretty much same thing I followed one of the links from that question, and found this Pretty much, it said use a selector defined in the xml, sure, did that. But there is no id associated w/ it so I am not sure how to get the selector function as a drawable so I can use it as the icon for the tabs. Maybe I am going about this the wrong way.. But this is what I have, and obviously missing something. <selector android:id="@+id/myselector" xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <!-- Non focused states --> <item android:state_focused="false" android:state_selected="false" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/darklogo" /> <item android:state_focused="false" android:state_selected="true" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/lightlogo" /> <!-- Focused states --> <item android:state_focused="true" android:state_selected="false" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/lightlogo" /> <item android:state_focused="true" android:state_selected="true" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/lightlogo" /> <!-- Pressed --> <item android:state_pressed="true" android:drawable="@drawable/lightlogo" /> </selector> In my code, an example tab is generated using : host.addTab(host.newTabSpec("three") .setIndicator("map",drawables) .setContent(new Intent(this, Map.class))); Right now drawables is just a reference to an drawable image resource. How do I make the selector a drawable? * This is my question *

  Read the article

• AS3 microphone recording/saving works, in-flash PCM playback double speed

  - by Lowgain

  I have a working mic recording script in AS3 which I have been able to successfully use to save .wav files to a server through AMF. These files playback fine in any audio player with no weird effects. For reference, here is what I am doing to capture the mic's ByteArray: (within a class called AudioRecorder) public function startRecording():void { _rawData = new ByteArray(); _microphone.addEventListener(SampleDataEvent.SAMPLE_DATA, _samplesCaptured, false, 0, true); } private function _samplesCaptured(e:SampleDataEvent):void { _rawData.writeBytes(e.data); } This works with no problems. After the recording is complete I can take the _rawData variable and run it through a WavWriter class, etc. However, if I run this same ByteArray as a sound using the following code which I adapted from the adobe cookbook: (within a class called WavPlayer) public function playSound(data:ByteArray):void { _wavData = data; _wavData.position = 0; _sound.addEventListener(SampleDataEvent.SAMPLE_DATA, _playSoundHandler); _channel = _sound.play(); _channel.addEventListener(Event.SOUND_COMPLETE, _onPlaybackComplete, false, 0, true); } private function _playSoundHandler(e:SampleDataEvent):void { if(_wavData.bytesAvailable <= 0) return; for(var i:int = 0; i < 8192; i++) { var sample:Number = 0; if(_wavData.bytesAvailable > 0) sample = _wavData.readFloat(); e.data.writeFloat(sample); } } The audio file plays at double speed! I checked recording bitrates and such and am pretty sure those are all correct, and I tried changing the buffer size and whatever other numbers I could think of. Could it be a mono vs stereo thing? Hope I was clear enough here, thanks!

  Read the article

• How to temporarily replace one primitive type with another when compiling to different targets in c#

  - by Keith

  How to easily/quickly replace float's for doubles (for example) for compiling to two different targets using these two particular choices of primitive types? Discussion: I have a large amount of c# code under development that I need to compile to alternatively use float, double or decimals depending on the use case of the target assembly. Using something like “class MYNumber : Double” so that it is only necessary to change one line of code does not work as Double is sealed, and obviously there is no #define in C#. Peppering the code with #if #else statements is also not an option, there is just too much supporting Math operators/related code using these particular primitive types. I am at a loss on how to do this apparently simple task, thanks! Edit: Just a quick comment in relation to boxing mentioned in Kyles reply: Unfortunately I need to avoid boxing, mainly since float's are being chosen when maximum speed is required, and decimals when maximum accuracy is the priority (and taking the 20x+ performance hit is acceptable). Boxing would probably rules out decimals as a valid choice and defeat the purpose somewhat. Edit2: For reference, those suggesting generics as a possible answer to this question note that there are many issues which count generics out (at least for our needs). For an overview and further references see Using generics for calculations

  Read the article

• .NET: How do I know if I have an unmanaged resource?

  - by Shiftbit

  I've read that unmanaged resource are considered file handles, streams, anything low level. Does MSDN or any other source explain how to recognize an unmanaged resource? I can't seem to find any examples on the net that show unmanaged code, all the examples just have comments that say unmanaged code here. Can someone perhaps provide a realworld example where I would handle an unmanaged resources in an IDispose interface? I provided the IDisposable interface for your convience. How do I identify an unmanaged resource? Thanks in advance! IDisposable Reference Public Class Sample : Implements IDisposable Private disposedValue As Boolean = False 'To detect redundant calls ' IDisposable Protected Overridable Sub Dispose(ByVal disposing As Boolean) If Not Me.disposedValue Then If disposing Then ' TODO: free other state (managed objects). End If ' TODO: free your own state (unmanaged objects). ' TODO: set large fields to null. End If Me.disposedValue = True End Sub ' This code added by Visual Basic to correctly implement the disposable pattern. Public Sub Dispose() Implements IDisposable.Dispose ' Do not change this code. Put cleanup code in Dispose(ByVal disposing As Boolean) above. Dispose(True) GC.SuppressFinalize(Me) End Sub End Class

  Read the article

• Asymptotic complexity of a compiler

  - by Meinersbur

  What is the maximal acceptable asymptotic runtime of a general-purpose compiler? For clarification: The complexity of compilation process itself, not of the compiled program. Depending on the program size, for instance, the number of source code characters, statements, variables, procedures, basic blocks, intermediate language instructions, assembler instructions, or whatever. This is highly depending on your point of view, so this is a community wiki. See this from the view of someone who writes a compiler. Will the optimisation level -O4 ever be used for larger programs when one of its optimisations takes O(n^6)? Related questions: When is superoptimisation (exponential complexity or even incomputable) acceptable? What is acceptable for JITs? Does it have to be linear? What is the complexity of established compilers? GCC? VC? Intel? Java? C#? Turbo Pascal? LCC? LLVM? (Reference?) If you do not know what asymptotic complexity is: How long are you willing to wait until the compiler compiled your project? (scripting languages excluded)

  Read the article

• Weak event handler model for use with lambdas

  - by Benjol

  OK, so this is more of an answer than a question, but after asking this question, and pulling together the various bits from Dustin Campbell, Egor, and also one last tip from the 'IObservable/Rx/Reactive framework', I think I've worked out a workable solution for this particular problem. It may be completely superseded by IObservable/Rx/Reactive framework, but only experience will show that. I've deliberately created a new question, to give me space to explain how I got to this solution, as it may not be immediately obvious. There are many related questions, most telling you you can't use inline lambdas if you want to be able to detach them later: Weak events in .Net? Unhooking events with lambdas in C# Can using lambdas as event handlers cause a memory leak? How to unsubscribe from an event which uses a lambda expression? Unsubscribe anonymous method in C# And it is true that if YOU want to be able to detach them later, you need to keep a reference to your lambda. However, if you just want the event handler to detach itself when your subscriber falls out of scope, this answer is for you.

  Read the article

• Difficulties using custom control - RichTextEditor

  - by Chris

  I am working on a school project that uses ASP.NET. I found this TextEditor control ( http://blogs.msdn.com/kirti/archive/2007/11/10/rich-text-editor-is-here.aspx ) that I am trying to include but it isn't working. The error I am getting is: Error Rendering Control - TextEditor. An unhandled exception has occurred. Index was out of range. Must be non-negative and less than the size of the collection. Parameter name: index. I see this error when I go Design part of the editor. I just don't understand this error at all. Also I am a lil bit confused as there is no parameter called index. :( What I have done is reference the binary in my project and then on the page I am trying to use it have registered its namespace and assembly with this line: <%@ Register Assembly="RichTextEditor" Namespace="AjaxControls" TagPrefix="rtt" %> I then go ahead and try to add the control to the page with this line of code: <rtt:richtexteditor ID="TextEditor" Theme="Blue" runat="server" /> Any help would be much appreciated. I haven't done anything like add a custom control before.

  Read the article

• how to write this typical mysql query( ho to use subquery column into main query)

  - by I Like PHP

  I HAVE TWO TABLES shown below table_joining id join_id(PK) transfer_id(FK) unit_id transfer_date joining_date 1 j_1 t_1 u_1 2010-06-05 2010-03-05 2 j_2 t_2 u_3 2010-05-10 2010-03-10 3 j_3 t_3 u_6 2010-04-10 2010-01-01 4 j_5 NULL u_3 NULL 2010-06-05 5 j_6 NULL u_4 NULL 2010-05-05 table_transfer id transfer_id(PK) pastUnitId futureUnitId effective_transfer_date 1 t_1 u_3 u_1 2010-06-05 2 t_2 u_6 u_1 2010-05-10 3 t_3 u_5 u_3 2010-04-10 now i want to know total employee detalis( using join_id) which are currently working on unit u_3 . means i want only join_id j_1 (has transfered but effective_transfer_date is future date, right now in u_3) j_2 ( tansfered and right now in `u_3` bcoz effective_transfer_date has been passed) j_6 ( right now in `u_3` and never transfered) what i need to take care of below steps( as far as i know ) <1> first need to check from table_joining whether transfer_id is NULL or not <2> if transfer_id= is NULL then see unit_id=u_3 where joining_date <=CURDATE() ( means that person already joined u_3) <3> if transfer_id is NOT NULL then go to table_transfer using transfer_id (foreign key reference) <4> now see the effective_transfer_date regrading that transfer_id whether effective_transfer_date<=CURDATE() <5> if transfer date has been passed(means transfer has been done) then return futureUnitID otherwise return pastUnitID i used two separate query but don't know how to join those query?? for step <1 ans <2 SELECT unit_id FROM table_joining WHERE joining_date<=CURDATE() AND transfer_id IS NULL AND unit_id='u_3' for step<5 SELECT IF(effective_transfer_date <= CURDATE(),futureUnitId,pastUnitId) AS currentUnitID FROM table_transfer // here how do we select only those rows which have currentUnitID='u_3' ?? please guide me the process?? i m just confused with JOINS. i think using LEFT JOIN can return the data i need, but i m not getting how to implement ...please help me. Thanks for helping me alwayz

  Read the article

• InvalidCastException in DataGridView

  - by Max Yaffe

  (Using VS 2010 Beta 2 - .Net 4.0 B2 Rel) I have a class, MyTable, derived from BindingList where S is a struct. S is made up of several other structs, for example: public class MyTable<S>:BindingList<S> where S: struct { ... } public struct MyStruct { public MyReal r1; public MyReal r2; public MyReal R1 {get{...} set{...}} public MyReal R2 {get{...} set{...}} ... } public struct MyReal { private Double d; private void InitFromString(string) {this.d = ...;} public MyReal(Double d) { this.d = d;} public MyReal(string val) { this.d = default(Double); InitFromString(val);} public override string ToString() { return this.real.ToString();} public static explicit operator MyReal(string s) { return new MyReal(s);} public static implicit operator String(MyReal r) { return r.ToString();} ... } OK, I use the MyTable as a binding source for a DataGridView. I can load the data grid easily using InitFromString on individual fields in MyStruct. The problem comes when I try to edit a value in a cell of the DataGridView. Going to the first row, first column, I change the value of the existing number. It gives an exception blizzard, the first line of which says: System.FormatException: Invalid cast from 'System.String' to 'MyReal' I've looked at the casting discussions and reference books but don't see any obvious problems. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Java: volatile guarantees and out-of-order execution

  - by WizardOfOdds

  Note that this question is solely about the volatile keyword and the volatile guarantees: it is not about the synchronized keyword (so please don't answer "you must use synchronize" for I don't have any issue to solve: I simply want to understand the volatile guarantees (or lack of guarantees) regarding out-of-order execution). Say we have an object containing two volatile String references that are initialized to null by the constructor and that we have only one way to modify the two String: by calling setBoth(...) and that we can only set their references afterwards to non-null reference (only the constructor is allowed to set them to null). For example (it's just an example, there's no question yet): public class SO { private volatile String a; private volatile String b; public SO() { a = null; b = null; } public void setBoth( @NotNull final String one, @NotNull final String two ) { a = one; b = two; } public String getA() { return a; } public String getB() { return b; } } In setBoth(...), the line assigning the non-null parameter "a" appears before the line assigning the non-null parameter "b". Then if I do this (once again, there's no question, the question is coming next): if ( so.getB() != null ) { System.out.println( so.getA().length ); } Am I correct in my understanding that due to out-of-order execution I can get a NullPointerException? In other words: there's no guarantee that because I read a non-null "b" I'll read a non-null "a"? Because due to out-of-order (multi)processor and the way volatile works "b" could be assigned before "a"? volatile guarantees that reads subsequent to a write shall always see the last written value, but here there's an out-of-order "issue" right? (once again, the "issue" is made on purpose to try to understand the semantics of the volatile keyword and the Java Memory Model, not to solve a problem).

  Read the article

• C++ .NET DLL vs C# Managed Code ? (File Encrypting AES-128+XTS)

  - by Ranhiru

  I need to create a Windows Mobile Application (WinMo 6.x - C#) which is used to encrypt/decrypt files. However it is my duty to write the encryption algorithm which is AES-128 along with XTS as the mode of operation. RijndaelManaged just doesn't cut it :( Very much slower than DES and 3DES CryptoServiceProviders :O I know it all depends on how good I am at writing the algorithm in the most efficient way. (And yes I my self have to write it from scratch but i can take a look @ other implementations) Nevertheless, does writing a C++ .NET DLL to create the encryption/decryption algorithm + all the file handling and using it from C# have a significant performance advantage OVER writing the encryption algorithm + file handling in completely managed C# code? If I use C++ .NET to create the encryption algorithm, should I use MFC Smart Device DLL or ATL? What is the difference and is there any impact on which one I choose? And can i just add a reference to the C++ DLL from C# or should I use P/Invoke? I am fairly competent with C# than C++ but performance plays a major role as I have convinced my lecturers that AES is a very efficient cryptographic algorithm for resource constrained devices. Thanx a bunch :)

  Read the article

• sqrt(int_value + 0.0) -- Does it have a purpose?

  - by Earlz

  Hello, while doing some homework in my very strange C++ book, which I've been told before to throw away, had a very peculiar code segment. I know homework stuff always throws in extra "mystery" to try to confuse you like indenting 2 lines after a single-statement for-loop. But this one I'm confused on because it seems to serve some real-purpose. basically it is like this: int counter=10; ... if(pow(floor(sqrt(counter+0.0)),2) == counter) ... I'm interested in this part especially: sqrt(counter+0.0) Is there some purpose to the +0.0? Is this the poormans way of doing a static cast to a double? Does this avoid some compiler warning on some compiler I do not use? The entire program printed the exact same thing and compiled without warnings on g++ whenever I left out the +0.0 part. Maybe I'm not using a weird enough compiler? Edit: Also, does gcc just break standard and not make an error for Ambiguous reference since sqrt can take 3 different types of parameters? [earlz@EarlzBeta-~/projects/homework1] $ cat calc.cpp #include <cmath> int main(){ int counter=0; sqrt(counter); } [earlz@EarlzBeta-~/projects/homework1] $ g++ calc.cpp /usr/lib/libstdc++.so.47.0: warning: strcpy() is almost always misused, please use strlcpy() /usr/lib/libstdc++.so.47.0: warning: strcat() is almost always misused, please use strlcat() [earlz@EarlzBeta-~/projects/homework1] $

  Read the article

• MVC View Model Intellisense / Compile error

  - by Marty Trenouth

  I have one Library with my ORM and am working with a MVC Application. I have a problem where the pages won't compile because the Views can't see the Model's properties (which are inherited from lower level base classes). They system throws a compile error saying that 'object' does not contain a definition for 'ID' and no extension method 'ID' accepting a first argument of type 'object' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) implying that the View is not seeing the model. In the Controller I have full access to the Model and have check the Inherits from portion of the view to validate the correct type is being passed. Controller: return View(new TeraViral_Blog()); View: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<com.models.TeraViral_Blog>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> Index2 </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2>Index2</h2> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <p> ID: <%= Html.Encode(Model.ID) %> </p> </fieldset> </asp:Content>

  Read the article

• Spinner in Android crashing when visibilty changes while handling OnClick in a button

  - by Dave George

  I have a spinner in UI, which I want to hide when I handle onClick method for a button. But the application is crashing all the time. Is it that I can't use the setVisibility(View.Gone) on spinners (it is not written anywhere). If I comment it out, then application run fine. I am getting NullPointerException and I am using RelativeLayout. Also, can I do this: public void onItemSelected(AdapterView<?> arg0, View view, int pos, long arg3) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Toast.makeText(SpinnerActivity.this,selected , Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); spinner.setVisibility(View.GONE); } } Spinner code fore reference: itemsCity=getResources().getStringArray(R.array.cities_array); ArrayAdapter<CharSequence> adapter = ArrayAdapter.createFromResource( this, R.array.cities_array, android.R.layout.simple_spinner_item); adapter.setDropDownViewResource(android.R.layout.simple_spinner_dropdown_item); spinnerCity.setAdapter(adapter); And here is Button code: private class BtClickListner implements View.OnClickListener{ @Override public void onClick(View v) { essEditText.setVisibility(View.GONE); spinnerCity.setEnabled(false);// Getting exception here // Also tried spinnerCity.setVisibility(View.GONE);// Exception SameBt.setVisibility(View.GONE);// This is same button for which I am handliing event, but it allows me to change tis property at run time. }

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 519 520 521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530  | Next Page >