Search Results

Search found 55736 results on 2230 pages for 'asp net mvc 3'.

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

Page 526/2230 | < Previous Page | 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530 531 532 533  | Next Page >

  • Asp.Net (C#) MVC Routing - Trying avoid using the same controller in different places and think rout

    - by sheefy
    Hi Guys, I'm currently building a site which has a bunch of main categories and in each category you can perform a search. Basically, I want my addresses to work like this... When the website loads (as in when someone goes to www.mySite.com) it will redirect them to the default category. www.mySite.com/Category Then when you search within a category, the results would come up in a page like the following. www.mySite.com/Category/Search I want to put everything in one controller and have one main view for the Category and one for the Search, I would then render these based on which category is currently being viewed. Can this be done, maybe with routing? I don't want to have to create a different controller for each category as it's just duplicating a lot of the code. Thanks in advance for your help.

    Read the article

  • Single Sign On with 3 applications

    - by John H.
    I'm building three web applications in .NET that will all share a users database and login information. Lets pretend that application 1 is the "parent" application and applications "A" and "B" are the "child" applications. All users have to be logged into application 1 to have access to applications A and B. Authorization, Authentication, and MachineKey sections of all web configs are present and work correctly. I have the correct web.config settings in all applications to achieve Single Sign On except one problem remains: what do I put in the "loginUrl" attribute of the forms tag in Applications A and B. Assume that the url for the login to application 1 is "www.johnsapp.com/login.aspx" How can I get applications A and B to send the user back to application 1 for authentication using only settings in web.config?

    Read the article

  • Using a custom annotation on a Spring MVC controller method from an interceptor.

    - by Speck
    I have a custom annotation with which I've annotated a method in my Controller alongside a @ReqestMapping. The goal is to use the values set in the custom annotation from a HandlerInterceptor to perform a task. I have the interceptor (HandlerInterceptorAdaptor) mapped and it executes. If I set a breakpoint in my concrete Interceptor I can inspect the HttpServletRequest, HttpServletResponse, and handler Objects. However, I cannot see how to 1, obtain the method which the request is trying to access 2, obtain the Annotations on that method and 3, of course, obtain the values set by the annotation. Can anyone point me to good documentation for this? Please and Thank You.

    Read the article

  • How to add a view for the json result in asp.net mvc?

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I returned json result from a controller but how can i add a view that uses this json result.. public class MaterialsController : Controller { ConstructionRepository consRepository = new ConstructionRepository(); public JsonResult Index() { var materials = consRepository.FindAllMaterials().AsQueryable(); return Json(materials); } } How to add a view to this? Any suggestion...

    Read the article

  • What is the difference between IEditableObject and IRevertibleChangeTracking?

    - by open-collar
    What is the difference between IEditableObject and IRevertibleChangeTracking (both from the System.ComponentModel namespace)? It looks as if the first supports explicit transaction whilst the second is more implicit - but the net result is the same. How should I go about implementing this in code? At the moment I do nothing in BeginEdit and call RejectChanges and AcceptChanges in EndEdit and CancelEdit respectively. My problem is that this will also accept the changes made prior to the BeginEdit. Is that really what MS wanted or am I trying to implement two mutually exclusive interfaces?

    Read the article

  • How do I include a newline in a text message sent as email from an ASP.Net application?

    - by Tim Goodman
    I have an ASP.Net Application that sends text messages to mobile phones. It does this by sending an email. For instance, if your phone number is 555-555-5555 and your wireless carrier is Verizon, you can send an email to [email protected] and it will show up as a text message. I want to be able to include a newline in the body of the message. How do I do this? Also please note that my ASP.Net program gets the message from a database (MS SQL Server) so what I really need to know is what characters to include in the message body when I store it in my database. I already tried \n but it just showed up in the text message as \n

    Read the article

  • How do I access a DIV from javascript, if ASP.NET mangles its ID?

    - by Rising Star
    I have a web page that contains a "div" element. On the page, there is javascript to reference the div: document.getElementById('divId'). This was working fine until another developer redesigned the page to use an ASP master page. Now, document.getElementById('divId') returns null. It appears that ASP.net prepends some characters to the names of elements within contents forms when you use a master page. How can I know what the id of the div is when the page loads? Update Allow me to give a specific example to clarify the question: My page had a div with ID divNotice. After changing my page to use a master page, I see when I print the source to the page that renders that the div ID is ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_divNotice. My question is, how am I supposed to know what the div ID is going to be when the framework is done with it?

    Read the article

  • In .NET MVC, is there an easy way to check if I'm on the home page?

    - by Hairgami_Master
    I need to take a particular action if a user logs in from the home page. In my LogOnModel, I have a hidden field: @Html.Hidden("returnUrl", Request.Url.AbsoluteUri) In my Controller, I need to check if that value is the Home page or not. In the example below, I'm checking to see if the user is on a particular page ("Account/ResetPassword"). Is there a way to check to see if they're on the home page without resorting to regular expressions? [HttpPost] public ActionResult LogOnInt(LogOnModel model) { if (model.returnUrl.Contains("/Account/ResetPassword")) { return Json(new { redirectToUrl = @Url.Action("Index","Home")}); } Any ideas? A million thanks!

    Read the article

  • How do I run asynchronous code in asp.net mvc 2?

    - by SLC
    I tried this: BackgroundWorker bw = new BackgroundWorker(); bw.DoWork += (o, e) => { SendConfEmail(); }; bw.RunWorkerAsync(); but it didn't work. SendConfEmail takes a while to run. I guess it's because BackgroundWorker is designed for winforms not webforms. Any ideas how I can solve the problem?

    Read the article

  • The Report Application Server failed

    - by huMpty duMpty
    This is relevent to this question about Crystal reports exception: “The Report Application Server failed” I have a report which has a on demand subreport. Id been passed to the subreport from the main report. When I run in crystal report it works fine. But I am running on a application, which display the report using crystal reports viewer.(Winform application developed in vb.net) Most of the times when click on the link whick brings the sub-report it comes up with this message The Report Application Server failed It has no details about what the reason is. Can anyone help? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Table Adaptor Error when trying update

    - by JasonMc92
    Hi, I have a rather perplexing issue. I am using VB.net and SQL for my project. I have a database, to which the connection works. I also have a data table and data adaptor, both of which I know work. I am trying to update something in the database, yet it isn't working. Assume everything listed is declared correctly. What am I doing wrong? teacher_control_table.Rows(0)("DATA_TeacherLockPasscode") = txtPasscode1.Text table_adaptor2.Update(teacher_control_table) That last line throws the following exception: InvalidOperationException was unhandled. update requires a valid UpdateCommand when passed DataRow collection with modified rows.

    Read the article

  • MVC design pattern in complex iPad app: is one fat controller acceptable?

    - by nutsmuggler
    I am building a complex iPad application; think of it as a scrapbook. For the purpose of this question, let's consider a page with two images over it. My main view displays my doc data rendered as a single UIImage; this because I need to do some global manipulation over them. This is my DisplayView. When editing I need to instantiate an EditorView with my two images as subviews; this way I can interact with a single image, (rotate it, scale it, move it). When editing is triggered, I hide my DisplayView and show my EditorView. In a iPhone app, I'd associate each main view (that is, a view filling the screen) to a view controller. The problem is here there is just one view controller; I've considered passing the EditorView via a modal view controller, but it's not an option (there a complex layout with a mask covering everything and palettes over it; rebuilding it in the EditorView would create duplicate code). Presently the EditorView incorporates some logic (loads data from the model, invokes some subviews for fine editing, saves data back to the model); EditorView subviews also incorporate some logic (I manipulate images and pass them back to the main EditorView). I feel this logic belongs more to a controller. On the other hand, I am not sure making my only view controller so fat a good idea. What is the best, cocoa-ish implementation of such a class structure? Feel free to ask for clarifications. Cheers.

    Read the article

  • How would I initialize these two lists so that modifying one doesn't modify the other?

    - by Brandon
    I'm aware of why this is happening, but is there any way to do this without having to implement ICloneable or a Copy() method? Preferably .net 2.0, but 3.5 is fine if it is necessary. Essentially I'm trying to implement an undo method. In most cases I can just perform the reverse action in the Undo(), but for others that is not possible. So I want to keep two lists. One for the list of items that I will be modifying, and one for the original, unmodified list of items. This way if I need to do an undo, I just delete the modified items and replace them with the originals. Most of the ways I've tried to assign the _originalItems variable doesn't work, so what would I need to do? public MyClass(List<SelectedItems> selectedItems) { _selectedItems = new List<SelectedItems>(selectedItems); _originalItems = ?? }

    Read the article

  • How to stream audio from ASP.NET MVC controller when it's still encoding?

    - by kyrisu
    Background I have wave files on my server that I want to stream. Because of the size I want to encode them to mp3. I've tried to use FileStreamResult - but it doesn't work because as soon as program leaves the controller stream is closed and I get - "Cannot access a closed stream" FileContentResult - but it's not a stream and the user would need to wait for encoding to finish Question Is there a way to stream audio from the controller while it's still encoding?

    Read the article

  • How to provide warnings during validation in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Alex
    Sometimes user input is not strictly invalid but can be considered problematic. For example: A user enters a long sentence in a single-line Name field. He probably should have used the Description field instead. A user enters a Name that is very similar to that of an existing entity. Perhaps he's inputting the same entity but didn't realize it already exists, or some concurrent user has just entered it. Some of these can easily be checked client-side, some require server-side checks. What's the best way, perhaps something similar to DataAnnotations validation, to provide warnings to the user in such cases? The key here is that the user has to be able to override the warning and still submit the form (or re-submit the form, depending on the implementation). The most viable solution that comes to mind is to create some attribute, similar to a CustomValidationAttribute, that may make an AJAX call and would display some warning text but doesn't affect the ModelState. The intended usage is this: [WarningOnFieldLength(MaxLength = 150)] [WarningOnPossibleDuplicate()] public string Name { get; set; } In the view: @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Name) @Html.WarningMessageFor(model => model.Name) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Name) So, any ideas?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC DataAnnotations different tables. Can it be done?

    - by mazhar kaunain baig
    i have a language table which is as a foreign key in the link table , The link can be in 3 languages meaning there will be 3 rows in the link table every time i enter the record . i am using jQuery tabs to enter the records in 3 languages . OK so that thing is that there will be three text boxes for every field in the table.link name field will have 3 text boxes, description will have 3 text boxes and so on. i am using LINK to SQL with VS2010. i will be creating link class with MetadataType so how will i handle for eg link name attribute 3 times

    Read the article

  • Redirect to current view on error in asp.net mvc?

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I use TempData["message"] which internally uses session.... It works for me but when i do a return RedirectToAction("Create"); my other values are not restored because i am redirecting to Create view... Any suggestion how to retain the values of textboxes in the view..... if (!regrep.registerUser(reg)) { TempData["message"] = string.Format("{0} already exists", reg.EmailId); return RedirectToAction("Create"); } else { return RedirectToAction("Index"); }

    Read the article

  • 'cross-referencing' DataTable's

    - by Lee
    I have a DataGridView that is being filled with data from a table. Inside this table is a column called 'group' that has the ID of an individual group in another table. What I would like to do, is when the DataGridView is filled, instead of showing the ID contained in 'group', I'd like it to display the name of the group. Is there some type of VB.net 'magic' that can do this, or do I need to cross-reference the data myself? Here is a breakdown of what the 2 tables look like: table1 id group (this holds the value of column id in table 2) weight last_update table2 id description (this is what I would like to be displayed in the DGV.) BTW - I am using Visual Studio Express.

    Read the article

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

< Previous Page | 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530 531 532 533  | Next Page >