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  • What's the largest (most complex) PHP algorithm ever implemented in a single monolithic PHP script?

    - by Alex R
    I'm working on a tool which converts PHP code to Scala. As one of the finishing touches, I'm in need of a really good (er, somewhat biased) benchmark. By dumb luck my first benchmark attempt was with some code which uses bcmath extensively, which unfortunately is 1000x slower in Java, making the Scala code 22x slower overall than the original PHP. So I'm looking for some meaningful PHP benchmark with the following characteristics: The source needs to be in a single file. I need it to be simple to setup - no databases, hard-to-find input files, etc. Simple text input and output preferred. It should not use features that are slow in Java (BigInteger, trigonometric functions, etc). It should not use exoteric or dynamic PHP functions (e.g. no "eval" or "variable vars"). It should not over-rely on built-in libraries, e.g. MD5, crypt, etc. It should not be I/O bound. A CPU-bound memory-hungry algorithm is preferred. Basically, intensive OO operations, integer and string manipulation, recursion, etc would be great. Thanks

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  • RSS feed created with PHP only shows the title in the feed reader

    - by James Simpson
    I am using the following PHP code to generate the XML for an RSS feed, but it doesn't seem to be working correctly. No short description is displayed in the feed reader, all I see is the title of the article. Also, all of the articles say they were published at the same time. This is the first time I have tried to setup an RSS feed, so I'm sure I've made several stupid mistakes. $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM blog ORDER BY id DESC LIMIT 10"); $date = date(DATE_RFC822); header('Content-type: text/xml'); echo ("<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"UTF-8\"?>\n"); echo ("<rss version=\"2.0\">\n"); echo ("<channel>\n"); echo ("<lastBuildDate>$date</lastBuildDate>\n"); echo ("<pubDate>$date</pubDate>\n"); echo ("<title>my website name</title>\n"); echo ("<description><![CDATA[the description]]></description>\n"); echo ("<link>http://my-domain.com</link>\n"); echo ("<language>en</language>\n"); $ch=100; while ($a = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { $headline = htmlentities(stripslashes($a['subject'])); $posturl = $a[perm_link]; $content = $a['post']; $date = date(DATE_RFC822, $a['posted']); echo ("<item>\n"); echo ("<title>$headline</title>\n"); echo ("<link>$posturl</link>\n"); echo ("<description><![CDATA[$content]]></description>\n"); echo ("<guid isPermaLink=\"true\">$posturl</guid>\n"); echo ("<pubDate>$date2</pubDate>\n"); echo ("</item>\n"); } echo ("</channel>\n"); echo ("</rss>\n");

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  • Magento- custom attribute causes blank order number.

    - by frank
    Hi- I created a simple custom attribute on the sales/order entity. Now, for new orders, order number is null. I looked at the sales_order table, and sure enough, increment_id is null... can anyone help me out, I am stumped? This is my setup.php: `public function getDefaultEntities() { return array( 'order' => array( 'entity_model' => 'sales/order', //'attribute_model' => 'catalog/resource_eav_attribute', 'table' => 'sales/order', 'attributes' => array( 'pr_email_sent' => array( 'label' => 'prEmailSent', 'type' => 'varchar', 'default' => 'false' ), ) ) ); }` This is my config.xml <fieldsets> <sales_order> <pr_email_sent><create>1</create><update>1</update></pr_email_sent> </sales_order> </fieldsets> Thanks.

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  • Using hg repository as web site

    - by Tex
    This is somewhat related to my security question here. Is it a bad idea to use an hg / mercurial repository for a live website? If so, why? Furthermore, we have dev, test and production installations of our website, like dev.example.com, test.example.com and www.example.com. If it's a bad idea to use a repository for a live/production website, would it be OK to use an hg repository for the dev and test sites? I'm also concerned about ease of deployment. We have technical and less technical co-workers who will be working with the site. The technical guys (software engineers) won't have any problem working with the command line or TortoiseHG. I'm more concerned about the less technical guys (web designers). They won't be comfortable working on the command line, and may even find TortoiseHG daunting. These guys mostly upload .css files and images to the server. I'd like for these files (at least the .css files) to be under version control, but I want this to be as transparent as possible for the non technical guys. What's the best way to achieve this? Edit: Our 'site' is actually a multi-site CMS setup with a main repository and several subrepositories. Mock-up of the repository structure: /root [main repository containing core files and subrepositories] /modules [modules subrepository] /sites/global [subrepository for global .css and .php files] /sites/site1 [site1 subrepository] ... /sites/siteN [siteN subrepository] Software engineers would work in the root, modules and sites/global repositories. Less technical guys (web designers) would work only in the site1 ... siteN subrepositories.

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  • NIS password mapping question

    - by papoyan
    I have NIS server with user "techsupport", which has uid/gid = 517 I've configured NIS and NFS on that server, as well as NFS/NIS client on the remote web server. Now I need to techsupport user to be able to login to web server using techsupport username, but HAVE root privileges. I need this, so I can easily track, which support agent doing what on the web server. Everything works fine, when from NIS server, I ssh to the web server with tech support user nisserver# ssh [email protected] I can authenticate against the NIS server just fine, and my home directory that is on NIS server, get's mounted on web server just fine. The Only two problems I have are : my GID on web server is webserver# id uid=517(techsupport) gid=517(client_jonny) groups=517(client_jonny) (as you can see, that it picked up gid of a client that exists on the web server, since it's same number) I need to make sure, that my "techsupport" user has ROOT privileges. How can I achieve this? I remember that I've seen identical results elsewhere, but LDAP was used, is there a way to achieve this with NIS/NFS setup? Thank you in advance,

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  • Handling dependencies with IoC that change within a single function call

    - by Jess
    We are trying to figure out how to setup Dependency Injection for situations where service classes can have different dependencies based on how they are used. In our specific case, we have a web app where 95% of the time the connection string is the same for the entire Request (this is a web application), but sometimes it can change. For example, we might have 2 classes with the following dependencies (simplified version - service actually has 4 dependencies): public LoginService (IUserRepository userRep) { } public UserRepository (IContext dbContext) { } In our IoC container, most of our dependencies are auto-wired except the Context for which I have something like this (not actual code, it's from memory ... this is StructureMap): x.ForRequestedType().Use() .WithCtorArg("connectionString").EqualTo(Session["ConnString"]); For 95% of our web application, this works perfectly. However, we have some admin-type functions that must operate across thousands of databases (one per client). Basically, we'd want to do this: public CreateUserList(IList<string> connStrings) { foreach (connString in connStrings) { //first create dependency graph using new connection string ???? //then call service method on new database _loginService.GetReportDataForAllUsers(); } } My question is: How do we create that new dependency graph for each time through the loop, while maintaining something that can easily be tested?

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  • Rails: Custom template for email "deliver_" method?

    - by neezer
    I'm building an email system that stores my different emails in the database and calls the appropriate "deliver_" method via method_missing (since I can't explicitly declare methods since they're user-generated). My problem is that my rails app still tries to render the template for whatever the generated email is, though those templates don't exist. I want to force all emails to use the same template (views/test_email.html.haml), which will be setup to draw their formatting from my database records. How can I accomplish this? I tried adding render :template => 'test_email' in the test_email method in emailer_controller with no luck. models/emailer.rb: class Emailer < ActionMailer::Base def method_missing(method, *args) # not been implemented yet logger.info "method missing was called!!" end end controller/emailer_controller.rb: class EmailerController < ApplicationController def test_email @email = Email.find(params[:id]) Emailer.send("deliver_#{@email.name}") end end views/emails/index.html.haml: %h1 Listing emails %table{ :cellspacing => 0 } %tr %th Name %th Subject - @emails.each do |email| %tr %td=h email.name %td=h email.subject %td= link_to 'Show', email %td= link_to 'Edit', edit_email_path(email) %td= link_to 'Send Test Message', :controller => 'emailer', :action => 'test_email', :params => { :id => email.id } %td= link_to 'Destroy', email, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete %p= link_to 'New email', new_email_path Error I'm getting with the above: Template is missing Missing template emailer/name_of_email_in_database.erb in view path app/views

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  • How to preload images using jquery for carousel?

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I used jquery stepcarousel plugin and it works fine... But how to preload images that is used by the plugin... I am using this, <div id="mygallery" class="stepcarousel"> <div class="belt"> <div class="panel"> <img src="Images/img1.jpg" /> </div> <div class="panel"> <img src="Images/img2.jpg" /> </div> </div> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> stepcarousel.setup({ galleryid: 'mygallery', //id of carousel DIV beltclass: 'belt', //class of inner "belt" DIV containing all the panel DIVs panelclass: 'panel', //class of panel DIVs each holding content autostep: { enable: true, moveby: 1, pause: 3000 }, panelbehavior: { speed: 500, wraparound: false, persist: true }, defaultbuttons: { enable: true, moveby: 1, leftnav: ['Images/lft_arrow.jpg', -5, 220], rightnav: ['Images/rit_arrow.jpg', -5, 220] }, statusvars: ['statusA', 'statusB', 'statusC'], //register 3 variables that contain current panel (start), current panel (last), and total panels contenttype: ['inline'] //content setting ['inline'] or ['ajax', 'path_to_external_file'] }) </script> How to preload images used by mygallery div such that i can avoid flickering.....

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  • How do I copy or move an NSManagedObject from one context to another?

    - by Aeonaut
    I have what I assume is a fairly standard setup, with one scratchpad MOC which is never saved (containing a bunch of objects downloaded from the web) and another permanent MOC which persists objects. When the user selects an object from scratchMOC to add to her library, I want to either 1) remove the object from scratchMOC and insert into permanentMOC, or 2) copy the object into permanentMOC. The Core Data FAQ says I can copy an object like this: NSManagedObjectID *objectID = [managedObject objectID]; NSManagedObject *copy = [context2 objectWithID:objectID]; (In this case, context2 would be permanentMOC.) However, when I do this, the copied object is faulted; the data is initially unresolved. When it does get resolved, later, all of the values are nil; none of the data (attributes or relationships) from the original managedObject are actually copied or referenced. Therefore I can't see any difference between using this objectWithID: method and just inserting an entirely new object into permanentMOC using insertNewObjectForEntityForName:. I realize I can create a new object in permanentMOC and manually copy each key-value pair from the old object, but I'm not very happy with that solution. (I have a number of different managed objects for which I have this problem, so I don't want to have to write and update copy: methods for all of them as I continue developing.) Is there a better way?

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  • iPhone OpenGL and NSTimer issues

    - by Kyle
    I have an NSTimer that runs at 60hz. With an OpenGL scene loaded and rendering, my game can get 60fps, solid, all day long.. Then if I go and recompile the app, or reload it, it will get 40fps. Same resources loaded. I've been running into this problem for years, and I just want to know why. It's crazy, and I want to know if I should just abandon this stupid Timer. Conditions are not different on my 3GS between loads. It will just get 40fps sometimes. Obviously the clockrate is not different between loads, so the performance figures should be constant given a constant scene. Here is a log of my framerates: A good load: :-) FrameRate: 61 FrameRate: 61 FrameRate: 61 FrameRate: 60 FrameRate: 60 FrameRate: 61 FrameRate: 60 FrameRate: 60 FrameRate: 61 FrameRate: 60 FrameRate: 61 Now, I'll go ahead and do nothing, recompile, and run: FrameRate: 43 FrameRate: 50 FrameRate: 45 FrameRate: 48 FrameRate: 40 FrameRate: 45 FrameRate: 42 FrameRate: 41 FrameRate: 42 FrameRate: 44 FrameRate: 41 FrameRate: 46 ^- Massive difference visually. What the flying heck could cause this? SAME area of the scene, SAME camera setup. No variables are different.

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  • Distributed development systems

    - by Nathan Adams
    I am interested in a system that allows for distributed development with an authentication piece. What do I mean by that? Ok so lets take SVN, SVN keeps track of revisions and doesn't care who submits, as long as you have the right to submit you can submit, really, to any part in the repository. Where does my system come into play? Being able to granulate access control and give a stackoverflow like feel to the environment. In the system I am describing we have 4 users Bob, Alice, Dan, Joe. Bob is a project managed, Alice and Dan are programmers under Bob and Joe is a random programmer on the internet who wants to help. Ideally in this system, Bob can commit any changes and won't require approval. Alice and Dan can commit to their branches, or a branch, but a commit to the trunk would need approval by Bob. This is where Joe comes in, wants to help, however, you just don't want to give him the keys to the kingdom just yet so to speak, so in my system you would setup a "low user" account. Any commits that Joe makes would need to be approved by Dan, Alice or both. However, in the system, Joe can build up "Karma" where after so many approved commits it would only need approval by one of the programmers, and then eventually no approval would be necessary. Does that make sense and do you know if a system like that exists? Or am I just crazy to even think such a system/environment would be possible?

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  • Selenium tests not building due to NUnit error (Mono+OS X)

    - by Jem
    I'm running Selenium RC on my Mac and driving my tests using NUnit in C#. My problem is that when I try and build a simple test in Mono I get the following error. Error CS0433: The imported type `NUnit.Framework.Assert' is defined multiple times (CS0433) (TestProject) When I comment out the Assert's it runs fine. The code I'm using currently is just a dump from the openqa site using System; using System.Text; using System.Text.RegularExpressions; using System.Threading; using NUnit.Framework; using Selenium; namespace SeleniumTests { [TestFixture] public class AllTests { private ISelenium selenium; private StringBuilder verificationErrors; [SetUp] public void SetupTest () { selenium = new DefaultSelenium ("localhost", 4444, "*safari", "http://www.google.co.uk"); selenium.Start (); verificationErrors = new StringBuilder (); } [TearDown] public void TeardownTest () { try { selenium.Stop (); } catch (Exception) { // Ignore errors if unable to close the browser } Assert.AreEqual ("", verificationErrors.ToString ()); } [Test] public void GoogleHomepageTests () { // Open Google search engine. selenium.Open ("http://www.google.com/"); // Assert Title of page. Assert.AreEqual ("Google", selenium.GetTitle ()); // Provide search term as "Selenium OpenQA" selenium.Type ("q", "Selenium OpenQA"); // Read the keyed search term and assert it. Assert.AreEqual ("Selenium OpenQA", selenium.GetValue ("q")); // Click on Search button. selenium.Click ("btnG"); // Wait for page to load. selenium.WaitForPageToLoad ("5000"); // Assert that "www.openqa.org" is available in search results. Assert.IsTrue (selenium.IsTextPresent ("www.openqa.org")); // Assert that page title is - "Selenium OpenQA - Google Search" Assert.AreEqual ("Selenium OpenQA - Google Search", selenium.GetTitle ()); } } } Any ideas? Is it a OSX/Mono thing?

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  • Can I have two separate projects, 1 WebForms and 1 ASP.NET MVC, to both point to the same domain?

    - by Hamman359
    Is it possible to setup two separate projects, 1 WebForms and 1 ASP.NET MVC, to both point to the same domain? i.e. both point to different pages within www.somesite.com. Here's some background on the application and why I'm asking. This is a brownfield application that is currently 2.0 WebForms and is full of WebFormy 'goodness' (i.e. ObjectDataSources, FormView controls, UpdatePanels, etc...) There are lost of other 'fun' things in the code base like 600+ Stored Procedures and 200+ line methods in the business layer code that get data from the DB via stored proc, do some processing on the data, build an HTML string using string concatenation and then return that string to the UI layer. What we are planning on doing is developing new features in MVC and slowly converting the existing features over to MVC one at a time. As part of this transition, we will also be re-writing the layers below the UI to clean up the mess there and to do things like replace the stored procedures with NHibernate and introduce an IOC container. I know that you can run WebForms and MVC side-by-side in the same project, however, because we will be making wholesale changes to the way we do many things throughout our entire development stack, I'd like the new stuff to be a completely separate project within the solution. This should help serve as very visual reminder that this is a different way of doing things than before and make it easier to remove the old code as it is no longer needed. What I don't know is, is this even possible? Can two separate project point to the same domain? Here's an quick example of what I'm thinking: www.somesite.com/orders.aspx?id=123 (Orders page from existing WebForms project) www.somesite.com/customer/987 (Customer page from new MVC project)

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  • Excel VBA Select Case Loop Sub

    - by Zack
    In my excel file, I have a table setup with formulas. with Cells from Range("B2:B12"), Range ("D2:D12"), and etc every other row containing the answers to these formulas. for these cells (with the formula answers), I need to apply conditional formatting, but I have 7 conditions, so I've been using "select case" in VBA to change their interior background based on their number. I have the select case function currently set up within the sheet code, as opposed to it's own macro Private Sub Worksheet_Change(ByVal Target As Range) Dim iColor As Integer If Not Intersect(Target, Range("B2:L12")) Is Nothing Then Select Case Target Case 0 iColor = 2 Case 0.01 To 0.49 iColor = 36 Case 0.5 To 0.99 iColor = 6 Case 1 To 1.99 iColor = 44 Case 2 To 2.49 iColor = 45 Case 2.5 To 2.99 iColor = 46 Case 3 To 5 iColor = 3 End Select Target.Interior.ColorIndex = iColor End If End Sub but using this method, you must be actually entering the value into the cell for the formatting to work. which is why I want to write a subroutine to to do this as a macro. I can input my data, let the formulas work, and when everything is ready, I can run the macro and format those specific cells. I want an easy way to do this, obviously I could waste a load of time, typing out all the cases for every cell, but I figured it'd be easier with a loop. how would I go about writing a select case loop to change the formatting on a a specific range of cells every other row? thank you in advance.

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  • Django tests failing on invalid keyword argument

    - by Darwin Tech
    I have a models.py like so: from django.db import models from django.contrib.auth.models import User from datetime import datetime class UserProfile(models.Model): user = models.OneToOneField(User) def __unicode__(self): return self.user.username class Project(models.Model): user = models.ForeignKey(UserProfile) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) updated = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) product = models.ForeignKey('tool.product') module = models.ForeignKey('tool.module') model = models.ForeignKey('tool.model') zipcode = models.IntegerField(max_length=5) def __unicode__(self): return unicode(self.id) And my tests.py: from django.test import TestCase, Client # --- import app models from django.contrib.auth.models import User from tool.models import Module, Model, Product from user_profile.models import Project, UserProfile # --- unit tests --- # class UserProjectTests(TestCase): fixtures = ['admin_user.json'] def setUp(self): self.product1 = Product.objects.create( name='bar', ) self.module1 = Module.objects.create( name='foo', enable=True ) self.model1 = Model.objects.create( module=self.module1, name='baz', enable=True ) self.user1 = User.objects.get(pk=1) ... def test_can_create_project(self): self.project1 = Model.objects.create( user=self.user1, product=self.product1, module=self.module1, model=self.model1, zipcode=90210 ) self.assertEquals(self.project1.zipcode, 90210) But I get a TypeError: 'product' is an invalid keyword argument for this function error. I'm not sure what is failing but I'm guessing something to do with the FK relationships... Any help would be much appreciated.

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  • Why do people say that Ruby is slow?

    - by stephen murdoch
    I like Ruby on Rails and I use it for all my web development projects. A few years ago there was a lot of talk about Rails being a memory hog and about how it didn't scale very well but these suggestions were put to bed by Gregg Pollack here. Lately though, I've been hearing people saying that Ruby itself is slow. Why is Ruby considered slow? I do not find Ruby to be slow but then again, I'm just using it to make simple CRUD apps and company blogs. What sort of projects would I need to be doing before I find Ruby becoming slow? Or is this slowness just something that affects all programming languages? What are your options as a Ruby programmer if you want to deal with this "slowness"? Which version of Ruby would best suit an application like Stack Overflow where speed is critical and traffic is intense? The questions are subjective, and I realise that architectural setup (EC2 vs standalone servers etc) makes a big difference but I'd like to hear what people think about Ruby being slow. Finally, I can't find much news on Ruby 2.0 - I take it we're a good few years away from that then?

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  • Problem with RVM and gem that has an executable

    - by djhworld
    Hi there, I've recently made the plunge to use RVM on Ubuntu. Everything seems to have gone swimmingly...except for one thing. I'm in the process of developing a gem of mine that has a script placed within its own bin/ directory, all of the gemspec and things were generated by Jeweler. The bin/mygem file contains the following code: - #!/usr/bin/env ruby begin require 'mygem' rescue LoadError require 'rubygems' require 'mygem' end app = MyGem::Application.new app.run That was working fine on the system version of Ruby. Now...recently I've moved to RVM to manage my ruby versions a bit better, except now my gem doesn't appear to be working. Firstly I do this: - rvm 1.9.2 Then I do this: - rvm 1.9.2 gem install mygem Which installs fine, except...when I try to run the command for mygem mygem I just get the following exception: - daniel@daniel-VirtualBox:~$ mygem <internal:lib/rubygems/custom_require>:29:in `require': no such file to load -- mygem (LoadError) from <internal:lib/rubygems/custom_require>:29:in `require' from /home/daniel/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p136/gems/mygem-0.1.4/bin/mygem:2:in `<top (required)>' from /home/daniel/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p136/bin/mygem:19:in `load' from /home/daniel/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p136/bin/mygem:19:in `<main>'mygem NOTE: I have a similar RVM setup on MAC OSX and my gem works fine there so I think this might be something to do with Ubuntu?

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  • Programmatically open an email from a POP3 and extract an attachment

    - by Josh
    We have a vendor that sends CSV files as email attachments. These CSV files contain statuses that are imported into our application. I'm trying to automate the process end-to-end, but it currently depends on someone opening an email, saving the attachment to a server share, so the application can use the file. Since I cannot convince the vendor to change their process, such as offering an FTP location or a Web Service, I'm stuck with trying to automate the existing process. Does anyone know of a way to programmatically open an email from a POP3 account and extract an attachment? The preferred solution would reside on a Windows 2003 server, be written VB.NET and secure. The application can reside on the same server as the POP3 server, for example, we could setup the free POP3 server that comes with Windows Server and pull against the mail file stored on the file system. BTW, we are willing to pay for an off-the-shelf solution, if one exists. Note: I did look at this question but the answer points to a CodeProject solution that doesn't deal with attachments.

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  • How to mock the Request.ServerVariables using MOQ for ASP.NET MVC?

    - by melaos
    hi guys, i'm just learning to put in unit testing for my asp.net mvc when i came to learn about the mock and the different frameworks there is out there now. after checking SO, i found that MOQ seems to be the easiest to pick up. as of now i'm stuck trying to mock the Request.ServerVariables, as after reading this post, i've learned that it's better to abstract them into property. as such: /// <summary> /// Return the server port /// </summary> protected string ServerPort { get { return Request.ServerVariables.Get("SERVER_PORT"); } } But i'm having a hard time learning how to properly mock this. I have a home controller ActionResult function which grabs the user server information and proceed to create a form to grab the user's information. i tried to use hanselman's mvcmockhelpers class but i'm not sure how to use it. this is what i have so far... [Test] public void Create_Redirects_To_ProductAdded_On_Success() { FakeViewEngine engine = new FakeViewEngine(); HomeController controller = new HomeController(); controller.ViewEngine = engine; MvcMockHelpers.SetFakeControllerContext(controller); controller.Create(); var results = controller.Create(); var typedResults = results as RedirectToRouteResult; Assert.AreEqual("", typedResults.RouteValues["action"], "Wrong action"); Assert.AreEqual("", typedResults.RouteValues["controller"], "Wrong controller"); } Questions: As of now i'm still getting null exception error when i'm running the test. So what am i missing here? And if i use the mvcmockhelpers class, how can i still call the request.verifyall function to ensure all the mocking are properly setup?

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  • Mercurial Hg Clone fails on C# project with GUID

    - by AnneTheAgile
    UPDATE: In trying to replicate this problem one more time to answer your questions I could not! I can only conclude that my initial setup of Mercurial was problematic and/or possibly I was trying to checkin a build that failed compilation before the checkin. Sigh! Thank you so very much for your help. I gave credit for the help on how to do a script. I need to try that for general purposes. hi all, I hope you can help me :). I am trying to see if Mercurial would be a good DCVS for my project at work, and I'm surely a newbie to many things. We have a fairly large codebase in C# (Dotnet3.0 not 3.5 , WindowsXP) and it utilizes the GUID feature. I confess to know little about how or why we use the GUID, but I do know that I cannot touch it. So, when I try hg clone, it fails unless I change the GUID in the cloned directory (ie create new GUID in Visual Studio and then paste that new GUID to replace the old one). To me, this completely defeats the purpose and utility of quick easy clones. It also makes difficult all the many workflows that require multiple clones. Is there a workaround, or is there something I'm doing wrong? How can I simplify and/or remove this problem? Would Bazaar make this easier? Thank you!

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  • Properly using Log4r in Ruby Application

    - by Spencer
    I must really be missing something obvious, but I'm having trouble with general use of Log4r in my Ruby application. I am able to log without issue, but the overhead seems clunky the way I have it setup. I'm basically passing the full path to a filename to log in each class in my application. The ruby script that is called pulls the log file from one of the arguments in ARGV which is then passed around and set in each class that I call in ruby. In each class I use the patternFormatter to insert the class/file name into the log statement. Is there a better way to make this work? It feels like no matter what I think of will require something to be passed to each class in my ruby application. I could set the log file in a yaml configuration file instead, but then I would be passing around the configuration file to each class as well. Any advice? If this doesn't make sense I could try and post some more specific code samples to further explain what I mean. Thanks!

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  • Moq a function with 5+ parameters and access invocation arguments.

    - by beerncircus
    I have a function I want to Moq. The problem is that it takes 5 parameters. The framework only contains Action<T1,T2,T3,T4> and Moq's generic CallBack() only overloads Action and the four generic versions. Is there an elegant workaround for this? This is what I want to do: public class Filter : IFilter { public int Filter(int i1, int i2, int i3, int i4, int i5){return 0;} } //Moq code: var mocker = new Mock<IFilter>(); mocker.Setup(x => x.Filter( It.IsAny<int>(), It.IsAny<int>(), It.IsAny<int>(), It.IsAny<int>(), It.IsAny<int>(), It.IsAny<int>()) .Callback ( (int i1, int i2, int i3, int i4, int i5) => i1 * 2 ); Moq doesn't allow this because there is no generic Action that takes 5+ parameters. I've resorted to making my own stub. Obviously, it would be better to use Moq with all of its verifications, etc.

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  • Convert ADO.Net EF Connection String To Be SQL Azure Cloud Connection String Compatible!?

    - by Goober
    The Scenario I have written a Silverlight 3 Application that uses an SQL Server database. I'm moving the application onto the Cloud (Azure Platform). In order to do this I have had to setup my database on SQL Azure. I am using the ADO.Net Entity Framework to model my database. I have got the application running on the cloud, but I cannot get it to connect to the database. Below is the original localhost connection string, followed by the SQL Azure connection string that isn't working. The application itself runs fine, but fails when trying to retrieve data. The Original Localhost Connection String <add name="InmZenEntities" connectionString="metadata=res://*/InmZenModel.csdl|res://*/InmZenModel.ssdl|res://*/InmZenModel.msl; provider=System.Data.SqlClient; provider connection string=&quot; Data Source=localhost; Initial Catalog=InmarsatZenith; Integrated Security=True; MultipleActiveResultSets=True&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> The Converted SQL Azure Connection String <add name="InmZenEntities" connectionString="metadata=res://*/InmZenModel.csdl|res://*/InmZenModel.ssdl|res://*/InmZenModel.msl; provider=System.Data.SqlClient; provider connection string=&quot; Server=tcp:MYSERVER.ctp.database.windows.net; Database=InmarsatZenith; UserID=MYUSERID;Password=MYPASSWORD; Trusted_Connection=False; MultipleActiveResultSets=True&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> The Question Anyone know if this connection string for SQL Azure is correct? Help greatly appreciated.

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  • Hibernate triggering constraint violations using orphanRemoval

    - by ptomli
    I'm having trouble with a JPA/Hibernate (3.5.3) setup, where I have an entity, an "Account" class, which has a list of child entities, "Contact" instances. I'm trying to be able to add/remove instances of Contact into a List<Contact> property of Account. Adding a new instance into the set and calling saveOrUpdate(account) persists everything lovely. If I then choose to remove the contact from the list and again call saveOrUpdate, the SQL Hibernate seems to produce involves setting the account_id column to null, which violates a database constraint. What am I doing wrong? The code below is clearly a simplified abstract but I think it covers the problem as I'm seeing the same results in different code, which really is about this simple. SQL: CREATE TABLE account ( INT account_id ); CREATE TABLE contact ( INT contact_id, INT account_id REFERENCES account (account_id) ); Java: @Entity class Account { @Id @Column public Long id; @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, orphanRemoval = true) @JoinColumn(name = "account_id") public List<Contact> contacts; } @Entity class Contact { @Id @Column public Long id; @ManyToOne(optional = false) @JoinColumn(name = "account_id", nullable = false) public Account account; } Account account = new Account(); Contact contact = new Contact(); account.contacts.add(contact); saveOrUpdate(account); // some time later, like another servlet request.... account.contacts.remove(contact); saveOrUpdate(account); Result: UPDATE contact SET account_id = null WHERE contact_id = ? Edit #1: It might be that this is actually a bug http://opensource.atlassian.com/projects/hibernate/browse/HHH-5091

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  • Object created in Interface Builder getting dealloc'ed too soon

    - by Collin Allen
    The Project I'm working on a relatively simple iPhone OS project that's navigation controller based, with a root table view and a detail table view. Tap an item in the main list to see its details in a pushed table view. The Setup I broke out the data source for both views into their own objects so as not to muddy the purpose of a view controller. Having done this, the table views no longer have data sources since those methods are now in separate files, so I created an instance of each data source class in the appropriate XIB files with the Object item (dragged it in, then set its class). Then, to actually connect the tableviews to their data sources, I set the dataSource outlet of each tableview to the yellow data source object in Interface Builder. The table view delegates are still set to their view controllers. The Problem The root table view works just fine, but when you tap a row to push to the detail view, the data source object gets instantiated as expected, then immediately dealloc'ed, causing a crash (numberOfSectionsInTableView: gets called on the freed object). I can't figure out why the data source is getting automatically dealloc-ed when I need it right then and there for the detail view, as indicated by my data source object creation and tableview connection in Interface Builder. What's more perplexing is that the very approach works fine for the root tableview! The Question Is there anything obvious I'm missing that would cause this to happen? Or, is this even the right way to instantiate a data source for a table view controller? It seems like poor object oriented programming to do it from within the view controller, which should only be concerned with the view. I could cram everything in two table view controller classes and it would probably work, but it would not be as modular as I'd like. Thanks!

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