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• Table borders don't display properly when converted from HTML page into MS Word 2003

  - by Daria

  Hello everyone, I've got a bit of a complicated set up. I specialise in XSLT which I write for 3rd party system. All CSS looks fine in the browser. Now that system provides a button that converts my generated HTML into MS Word 2003. However, table borders don't convert as they appear in a Browser. There are lots of tables and they have different borders setup. For example there is one that uses only outside border and no borders inside it. When converting to MS Word, a table appears with ALL the borders in between cells. Which I don't want. I've tried search the Internet, but didn't come across anything useful. Maybe there are tips or tricks on how to set up tables borders so it's understood properly by MS Word. The third party said the following: "The system just passes the HTML created through the converter it finds in the installed version of Word". I would really appreciate any tips and help! Dasha

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• MySQL-python 1.2.3 and OS X 10.5: 64- or 32-bit?

  - by Dave Everitt

  I've been happily using Django and MySQL in development on an existing machine running OS X 10.4 Tiger, and have set up a similar environment in 10.5 Leopard on a new 64-bit MacBook, with a working MySQL and Python 2.6.4. However, now I want them to communicate, easy_install MySQL-python gave ld warnings that the file is not of the required architecture, which led me to test my Python 2.4.6 install (from the Mac OS X disc image): >>> import sys >>> sys.maxint 2147483647 Ah. So my Python install appears to be 32-bit and (I think?) won't install MySQL-python for my 64-bit MySQL. There are lots of hacks out there for MySQL-python on OS X (mostly 1.2.2), but - after hours of reading - I'm pretty sure they won't fix this architecture mismatch. So I'm stuck because I can't decide whether to: give up, remove the 64-bit MySQL install (thorough methods, please?) and use the 32-bit MySQL disc image instead; re-install Python in 64-bit mode from the tarball, --with-universal archs-64-bit and --enable-universalsdk= as detailed in Python.org's 2.6 news. So my questions for anyone who has encountered this issue are: Is installing 64-bit Python on OS X 10.5 worth bothering with? If so, (naive, lazy question!) how are the two required arguments combined? If I just skip along in 32-bit (as on my working setup) what am I missing? I'm after a hassle-free install that's easy to reproduce on other machines (possible student use) so I'd really welcome your opinions, please!

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• virtualenv macosX --no-site-package ignored

  - by Tristram Gräbener

  Hello, I'm having problems with macOSX and virtualenv. It seems to ignore --no-site-package. Using exactly the same commands with linux (archlinux) it works. It it macOSX 10.5 with python 2.5 curl -o virtualenv.py 'http://bitbucket.org/ianb/virtualenv/raw/tip/virtualenv.py Create a new environment python virtualenv.py --no-site-packages foo New python executable in foo/bin/python Installing setuptools...........................done. Activate it source foo/bin/activate Try to install something in it. Despite virtualenv it looks for the system-wide install easy_install cherrypy Searching for cherrypy Best match: CherryPy 3.1.2 Adding CherryPy 3.1.2 to easy-install.pth file Using /Library/Python/2.5/site-packages Processing dependencies for cherrypy Finished processing dependencies for cherrypy Yet it doesn't find the module (foo)guidage-multimodal:~ tristram$ python Python 2.5.1 (r251:54863, Feb 6 2009, 19:02:12) [GCC 4.0.1 (Apple Inc. build 5465)] on darwin Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> import cherrypy Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> ImportError: No module named cherrypy I tried PIP after looking at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1382925/virtualenv-no-site-packages-and-pip-still-finding-global-packages However it fails installing psycopg2 (some problems with gcc). Also I would like to be able to have a setup.py (from distribute) that does the whole woork

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• Display an Android Sensors List

  - by Skatephone

  I'm trying to display a list of available sensors but it's like there are not! I was thinking that it was because of the emulator, but i tried it on the phone and the result is the same. private SensorManager mSensorManager; TextView mSensorsTot,mSensorAvailables; ...... public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); // Get the texts fields of the layout and setup to invisible mSensorsTot = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.sensoritot); mSensorAvailables = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.sensoridisponibili); // Get the SensorManager mSensorManager= (SensorManager) getSystemService(SENSOR_SERVICE); // List of Sensors Available List<Sensor> msensorList = mSensorManager.getSensorList(SensorManager.SENSOR_ALL); // Print how may Sensors are there mSensorsTot.setText(msensorList.size()+" "+this.getString(R.string.sensors)+"!"); // Print each Sensor available using sSensList as the String to be printed String sSensList = new String(""); Sensor tmp; int x,i; for (i=0;i<msensorList.size();i++){ tmp = msensorList.get(i); sSensList = " "+sSensList+tmp.getName(); // Add the sensor name to the string of sensors available } // if there are sensors available show the list if (i>0){ sSensList = getString(R.string.sensors)+":"+sSensList; mSensorAvailables.setText(sSensList); } } Thank's Valerio From Italy :)

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• Replace in place, parsing & string manipulation.

  - by Mark Tomlin

  I'm trying to replace a set of characters within a string. The string may or may not have any data to change. The string is marked up in a way that allows for it to change it's color from a set of characters. The string can reset it's it's formatting to default by using a defined set of characters. This setup is very much like the ECMA-48 standard used on LINUX consoles for colors and other special effects. Where one string could be ^0Black^1Red^2Green^3Yellow^4Blue^5Purple^6Cyan^7White Producing the following HTML: <span style="color: #000">Black</span><span style="color: #F00">Red</span><span style="color: #0F0">Green</span><span style="color: #FF0">Yellow</span><span style="color: #00F">Blue</span><span style="color: #F0F">Purple</span><span style="color: #0FF">Cyan</span><span style="color: #FFF">White</span> Another string (^1Error^8: ^3User Error) could also produce: <span style="color: #F00">Error</span>: <span style="color: #FF0">User Error</span> You might of noticed the ^8 part of that string resets the color for that part of the string. What's the best way to go about parsing these kinds of strings?

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• Why not lump all service classes into a Factory method (instead of injecting interfaces)?

  - by Andrew

  We are building an ASP.NET project, and encapsulating all of our business logic in service classes. Some is in the domain objects, but generally those are rather anemic (due to the ORM we are using, that won't change). To better enable unit testing, we define interfaces for each service and utilize D.I.. E.g. here are a couple of the interfaces: IEmployeeService IDepartmentService IOrderService ... All of the methods in these services are basically groups of tasks, and the classes contain no private member variables (other than references to the dependent services). Before we worried about Unit Testing, we'd just declare all these classes as static and have them call each other directly. Now we'll set up the class like this if the service depends on other services: public EmployeeService : IEmployeeService { private readonly IOrderService _orderSvc; private readonly IDepartmentService _deptSvc; private readonly IEmployeeRepository _empRep; public EmployeeService(IOrderService orderSvc , IDepartmentService deptSvc , IEmployeeRepository empRep) { _orderSvc = orderSvc; _deptSvc = deptSvc; _empRep = empRep; } //methods down here } This really isn't usually a problem, but I wonder why not set up a factory class that we pass around instead? i.e. public ServiceFactory { virtual IEmployeeService GetEmployeeService(); virtual IDepartmentService GetDepartmentService(); virtual IOrderService GetOrderService(); } Then instead of calling: _orderSvc.CalcOrderTotal(orderId) we'd call _svcFactory.GetOrderService.CalcOrderTotal(orderid) What's the downfall of this method? It's still testable, it still allows us to use D.I. (and handle external dependencies like database contexts and e-mail senders via D.I. within and outside the factory), and it eliminates a lot of D.I. setup and consolidates dependencies more. Thanks for your thoughts!

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• OpenGL behaving strangely

  - by Mk12

  OpenGL is acting very strangely for some reason. In my subclass of NSOpenGLView, I have the following code in -prepareOpenGL: - (void)prepareOpenGL { GLfloat lightAmbient[] = { 0.5f, 0.5f, 0.5f, 1.0f }; GLfloat lightDiffuse[] = { 1.0f, 1.0f, 1.0f, 1.0f }; GLfloat lightPosition[] = { 0.0f, 0.0f, 2.0f }; quality = 0; zCoord = -6; [self loadTextures]; glEnable(GL_LIGHTING); glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glShadeModel(GL_SMOOTH); glClearColor(0.2f, 0.2f, 0.2f, 0.0f); glClearDepth(1.0f); glEnable(GL_DEPTH_TEST); glDepthFunc(GL_LEQUAL); glHint(GL_PERSPECTIVE_CORRECTION_HINT, GL_NICEST); glLightfv(GL_LIGHT1, GL_AMBIENT, lightAmbient); glLightfv(GL_LIGHT1, GL_DIFFUSE, lightDiffuse); glLightfv(GL_LIGHT1, GL_POSITION, lightPosition); glEnable(GL_LIGHT1); gameState = kGameStateRunning; int i = 0; // HERE ******** [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:0.03f target:self selector:@selector(processKeys) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; // Synchronize buffer swaps with vertical refresh rate GLint swapInt = 1; [[self openGLContext] setValues:&swapInt forParameter:NSOpenGLCPSwapInterval]; // Setup and start displayLink [self setupDisplayLink]; } I wanted to assign the timer that processes key input to an ivar so that I could invalidate it when the game is paused (and reinstantiate it on resume), however when I did that (as apposed to leaving it at [NSTimer scheduledTimer…), OpenGL doesn't display the cube I draw. When I take it away, it's fine. So i tried just adding a harmless statement, int i = 0; (maked // HERE *******), and that makes the lighting not work! When I take it away, everything is fine, but when I put it back, everything is dark. Can someone come up with a rational explanation for this? Thanks.

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• autocommit and @Transactional and Cascading with spring, jpa and hibernate

  - by subes

  Hi, what I would like to accomplish is the following: have autocommit enabled so per default all queries get commited if there is a @Transactional on a method, it overrides the autocommit and encloses all queries into a single transaction, thus overriding the autocommit if there is a @Transactional method that calls other @Transactional annotated methods, the outer most annotation should override the inner annotaions and create a larger transaction, thus annotations also override eachother I am currently still learning about spring-orm and couldn't find documentation about this and don't have a test project for this yet. So my questions are: What is the default behaviour of transactions in spring? If the default differs from my requirement, is there a way to configure my desired behaviour? Or is there a totally different best practice for transactions? --EDIT-- I have the following test-setup: @javax.persistence.Entity public class Entity { @Id @GeneratedValue private Integer id; private String name; public Integer getId() { return id; } public void setId(Integer id) { this.id = id; } public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } } @Repository public class Dao { @PersistenceContext private EntityManager em; public void insert(Entity ent) { em.persist(ent); } @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public List<Entity> selectAll() { List<Entity> ents = em.createQuery("select e from " + Entity.class.getName() + " e").getResultList(); return ents; } } If I have it like this, even with autocommit enabled in hibernate, the insert method does nothing. I have to add @Transactional to the insert or the method calling insert for it to work... Is there a way to make @Transactional completely optional?

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• How to avoid serializing zero values with Simple Xml

  - by Bram Vandenbussche

  I'm trying to serialise an object using simple xml (http://simple.sourceforge.net/). The object setup is pretty simple: @Root(name = "order_history") public class OrderHistory { @Element(name = "id", required = false) public int ID; @Element(name = "id_order_state") public int StateID; @Element(name = "id_order") public int OrderID; } The problem is when I create a new instance of this class without an ID: OrderHistory newhistory = new OrderHistory(); newhistory.OrderID = _orderid; newhistory.StateID = _stateid; and I serialize it via simple xml: StringWriter xml = new StringWriter(); Serializer serializer = new Persister(); serializer.write(newhistory, xml); it still reads 0 in the resulting xml: <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8'?> <order_history> <id>0</id> <id_order>2</id_order> <id_order_state>8</id_order_state> </order_history> I'm guessing the reason for this is that the ID property is not null, since integers can't be null. But I really need to get rid of this node, and I'd rather not remove it manually. Any clues anyone?

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• [Google Maps] Trouble with invalid argument when switching jQueryUI based tabs

  - by Chad

  Here's a page with the issue To reproduce the error, using IE - click the directions tab, then any of the others. What I'm trying to do is this: On page load, do nothing really. However, when the directions tab loads - setup the map. Like so: $('#tabs').bind('tabsshow', function(event, ui) { if (ui.panel.id == "tabs-5") { // get map for directions var dirMap = new GMap2($("div#dirMap").get(0)); dirMap.setCenter(new GLatLng(35.79648921414565,139.40663874149323), 12); dirMap.enableScrollWheelZoom(); dirMap.addControl(new PanoMapTypeControl()); geocoder = new GClientGeocoder(); $("#dirMap").resizable({ stop: function() { dirMap.checkResize(); } }); // clear dirText $("div#dirMapText").html(""); dirMap.clearOverlays(); var polygon = new GPolygon([new GLatLng(35.724496338474104,139.3444061279297),new GLatLng(35.74748750802863,139.3363380432129),new GLatLng(35.75765724051559,139.34303283691406),new GLatLng(35.76545779822543,139.3418312072754),new GLatLng(35.767547103447725,139.3476676940918),new GLatLng(35.75835374997911,139.34955596923828),new GLatLng(35.755149755962755,139.3567657470703),new GLatLng(35.74679090345495,139.35796737670898),new GLatLng(35.74762682821177,139.36294555664062),new GLatLng(35.744422402303826,139.36346054077148),new GLatLng(35.74860206266584,139.36946868896484),new GLatLng(35.735644401200986,139.36843872070312),new GLatLng(35.73843117306677,139.36174392700195),new GLatLng(35.73592308277646,139.3531608581543),new GLatLng(35.72686543236113,139.35298919677734),new GLatLng(35.724496338474104,139.3444061279297)], "#f33f00", 5, 1, "#ff0000", 0.2);dirMap.addOverlay(polygon); // load directions directions = new GDirections(dirMap, $("div#dirMapText").get(0)); directions.load("from: [email protected],139.37083393335342 to: Ruby [email protected],139.40663874149323"); } }); What the heck is causing the error? The IE javascript debugger claims the error lies in main.js, line 139 character 28. (the google maps api file). Which is this line: function zf(a,b){a=a.style;a.width=b.getWidthString();a.height=b.getHeightString()} Any ideas? Thanks in advance!

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• Android animation's first frame is applied too early on ImageView

  - by Robert

  I have the following View setup in one of my Activities: <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/photoLayout" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <ImageView android:id="@+id/photoImageView" android:src="@drawable/backyardPhoto" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:gravity="center" android:scaleType="centerInside" android:padding="45dip" > </ImageView> </LinearLayout> Without an animation set, this displays just fine. However I want to display a very simple animation. So in my Activity's onStart override, I have the following: @Override public void onStart() { super.onStart(); mPhotoImageView = (ImageView) findViewById(R.id.photoImageView); float offset = -25; int top = mPhotoImageView.getTop(); TranslateAnimation anim1 = new TranslateAnimation( Animation.ABSOLUTE, 0, Animation.ABSOLUTE, 0, Animation.ABSOLUTE, top, Animation.ABSOLUTE, offset); anim1.setInterpolator(new AnticipateInterpolator()); anim1.setDuration(1500); anim1.setStartOffset(5000); TranslateAnimation anim2 = new TranslateAnimation( Animation.ABSOLUTE, 0, Animation.ABSOLUTE, 0, Animation.ABSOLUTE, offset, Animation.ABSOLUTE, top); anim2.setInterpolator(new BounceInterpolator()); anim2.setDuration(3500); anim2.setStartOffset(6500); mBouncingAnimation = new AnimationSet(false); mBouncingAnimation.addAnimation(anim1); mBouncingAnimation.addAnimation(anim2); mPhotoImageView.setAnimation(mBouncingAnimation); } The problem is that when the Activity displays for the first time, the initial position of the photo is not in the center of the screen with padding around. It seems like the first frame of the animation is loaded already. Only after the animation is completed, does the photoImageView "snap" back to the intended location. I've looked and looked and could not find how to avoid this problem. I want the photoImageView to start in the center of the screen, and then the animation to happen, and return it to the center of the screen. The animation should happen by itself without interaction from the user.

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• How to move the Windows 7 bootloader to the Windows 7 partition?

  - by pauldoo

  I recently installed Windows 7 in a triple boot setup alongside XP and Linux. When I was finished and was in the process of restoring the bootloader for Linux I discovered something strange about what Windows 7 had done. I discovered that Windows 7 had not installed a bootloader to it's own partition, and instead had instead set up a bootloader on the pre-existing XP partition that offers a choice between 7 and XP. This behaviour has been noticed by others. Now my booting is slightly odd. I have GRUB on the MBR which lets me choose between Linux and Windows. When I select Windows I have Grub boot to the XP partition where I get the 2nd choice between 7 and XP. Why doesn't the Windows 7 installer put the Windows 7 bootloader on the Windows 7 partition like all previous MS OSs? This is now going to be a real problem for me, as I now want to wipe the XP partition and install something else there (probably another non-MS OS). How can I move the bootloader for Windows 7 onto the Windows 7 partition, thus making it bootable and allowing me to safely wipe the XP partition?

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• Modelling Business Logic with NON-Techies

  - by cbmeeks

  The setup: Winform/ASP.NET MVC projects. Learning NHibernate SQL-Server driven apps I work with clients that have no idea how to model an application. That's what I'm for. However, we have lots of conflicts with validation, mis-understandings, etc. For example, the client will ask for an order entry screen. The screen should require a "product". That's fine and dandy. However, the client didn't know to tell me that the user can't order a product of "Class A" unless it's Tuesday. Or, they need a time entry screen. 2 days before it's rolled into production, they casually forgot to mention that certain activities are only valid for certain situations. These situations being a week of coding. That's of course, some crude examples (not by much!). But the problem is getting these non-technical clients to layout their business logic. They somehow didn't realize that the "Class A" problem would come up two weeks later, etc. I'm all for agile programming but is there an easy way to somehow make business logic like this extremely easy to implement and change on almost a daily basis? I of course am splitting the project into hopefully intelligent pieces, using NHibernate, etc. But making this BI logic so dynamic is really making it hard to project timelines, etc. Any suggestions? I know there will never be a perfect client (or a perfect provider) but how do you guys deal with the constant mis-understandings? Thanks.

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• The type of field isn't supported by declared persistence strategy "OneToMany"

  - by Robert

  We are new to JPA and trying to setup a very simple one to many relationship where a pojo called Message can have a list of integer group id's defined by a join table called GROUP_ASSOC. Here is the DDL: CREATE TABLE "APP"."MESSAGE" ( "MESSAGE_ID" INTEGER NOT NULL GENERATED ALWAYS AS IDENTITY (START WITH 1, INCREMENT BY 1) ); ALTER TABLE "APP"."MESSAGE" ADD CONSTRAINT "MESSAGE_PK" PRIMARY KEY ("MESSAGE_ID"); CREATE TABLE "APP"."GROUP_ASSOC" ( "GROUP_ID" INTEGER NOT NULL, "MESSAGE_ID" INTEGER NOT NULL ); ALTER TABLE "APP"."GROUP_ASSOC" ADD CONSTRAINT "GROUP_ASSOC_PK" PRIMARY KEY ("MESSAGE_ID", "GROUP_ID"); ALTER TABLE "APP"."GROUP_ASSOC" ADD CONSTRAINT "GROUP_ASSOC_FK" FOREIGN KEY ("MESSAGE_ID") REFERENCES "APP"."MESSAGE" ("MESSAGE_ID"); Here is the pojo: @Entity @Table(name = "MESSAGE") public class Message { @Id @Column(name = "MESSAGE_ID") @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) private int messageId; @OneToMany(fetch=FetchType.LAZY, cascade=CascadeType.PERSIST) private List groupIds; public int getMessageId() { return messageId; } public void setMessageId(int messageId) { this.messageId = messageId; } public List getGroupIds() { return groupIds; } public void setGroupIds(List groupIds) { this.groupIds = groupIds; } } When we try to execute the following test code we get <openjpa-1.2.3-SNAPSHOT-r422266:907835 fatal user error> org.apache.openjpa.util.MetaDataException: The type of field "pojo.Message.groupIds" isn't supported by declared persistence strategy "OneToMany". Please choose a different strategy. Message msg = new Message(); List groups = new ArrayList(); groups.add(101); groups.add(102); EntityManager em = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory("TestDBWeb").createEntityManager(); em.getTransaction().begin(); em.persist(msg); em.getTransaction().commit(); Help!

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• Office Automation: What does destroy my encoding?

  - by Filburt

  I'm facing a problem with a Word Mail Merge Automation controlled by our CRM system. The setup Base for the Mail Merge is a Word .dot template which fires a macro on Document.New. Inside this macro I create a .Net component registered for COM. Set myCOMObject = CreateObject("MyCOMObject") The component pulls some data from a database and hands string values which are assigned to Word DocumentVariables. Set someClass = myCOMObject.GetSomeClass(123) ActiveDocument.Variables("docaddress") = someClass.GetSenderAddress(456) All string values returned from the component are encoded in UTF-8 (codepage 1200). What happens The problem arises when the CRM system calls Word to perform the Mail Merge: The string values from the component are turned into UTF-8 encoded strings. All the static text inside the template and the data pulled for the Mail Merge stay nicely encoded in UTF-16 - example the umlaut ü inside my DocumentVariables is turned into c3 b0 while it stays fc for the rest of the document (checked file in hex editor). If I'm creating a document from a template with the same macro functionallity but without performing a Mail Merge all strings are fine; i.e. are encoded in UTF-16. What changed According to the CRM software vendor the encoding of the Mail Merge data export was changed to UTF-16 with the new version we're currently testing. I found out that MS states that you'll expirience issues when the document and the Mail Merge data file encoding don't match. What I tried Since I'm assuming to merge with UTF-16 encoded data I added the following lines to my macro: ActiveDocument.TextEncoding = msoEncodingWestern ActiveDocument.SaveEncoding = msoEncodingUnicodeLittleEndian This is what the Mail Merge data document specifies in its document properties.

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• SqlLite/Fluent NHibernate integration test harness initialization not repeatable after large data se

  - by Mark Rogers

  In one of my main data integration test harnesses I create and use Fluent NHibernate's SingleConnectionSessionSourceForSQLiteInMemoryTesting, to get a fresh session for each test. After each test, I close the connection, session, and session factory, and throw out the nested StructureMap container they came from. This works for almost any simple data integration test I can think, including ones that utilize Fluent NHib's PersistenceSpecification object. When I test the application's lengthy database bootstrapping process, which creates and saves thousands of domain objects, I start seeing issues. It's not that the setup and tear down fails, in fact, the test successfully bootstraps the in-memory database as the application would bootstrap the real database in the production environment. The problem occurs when the database bootstrapping occurs a second time on a new in-memory database, with a new session and session factory. The error is: NHibernate.StaleStateException : Unexpected row count: 0; expected: 1 The row count is indeed Unexpected, the row that the application under test is looking for should be in the session. You see, it's not that any data from the last integration test is sticking around, it's that for some reason the session just stops working mid-database-boostrap. And I've looked everywhere for a place I might be holding on to an old session and I can't find one. I've searched through the code for static singleton objects, but there are none anywhere near the code in question. I have a couple StructureMap InstanceScope singleton's but they are getting thrown out with each nested container that is lost after every test teardown. I've tried every possible variation on disposing and closing every object involved with each test teardown and it still fails on this lengthy database bootstrap. But non-bootstrap related database tests appear to work fine. I'm starting to run out of options and may have to surrender lengthy database integration tests in favor of WatiN-based acceptance tests. Can anyone give me any clue about how I can figure out why some of my SingleConnectionSessionSourceForSQLiteInMemoryTesting aren't repeatable? Any advice at all, about how to make an NHibernate SqlLite database integration test harness repeatable?

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• Eclipse on windows doesnt start

  - by sap

  I usually do all my java development on linux, using fedora package manager setting up a development environment is easy and fast. Now I have to start using windows but I never used it for java development and im having a few difficulties having it setup. So I downloaded and installed thye java 6 JDK (just the standard edition, not the EE) and installed it. Next I downloaded eclipse classic package, which doesnt have an installer, you just unzip it and run it. I had to add the java bin directory to the PATH variable, which I did. But when I start eclipse.exe I get this: http://img02.imagefra.me/img/img02/1/12/12/f_12c33ivd2m_c79c09f.jpg I already made a new environment variable called CLASSPATH and add the d:/java sdk/lib directory to it, but it the same thing. Am I missing something? Thanks. UPDATE: so i wrote the path to the java.exe on the eclipse.ini file (linking to jvm.dll didnt work) and now it just opens a console window for a few seconds and then closes (doesnt output anything). also launching it like: java -jar plugins/org.eclipse.equinox.launcher_1.0.0.v20070208a.jar make the vm work for about 1-2 seconds and then it returns, with no outputs. UPDATE2: i didnt know it was writting a log file, found it and read it and it said i was using GWT x32 libraries on a x64 VM, so i just downloaded an eclipse x64 version and it worked. i still had to use the .ini trick to say where the JVM is installed. thanks a lot for the help.

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• TypeError: Error #1009 - (Null reference error) With Flash.

  - by Wind Chimez

  I am not an expert in flash, but i do work with AS and tweak Flash projects , though not having deep expertise in it. Currently i need to revamp a flash website done by one another guy, and the code base given to me, upon execution is throwing the following error. "--- TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. at NewSite_fla::MainTimeline/__setProp_ContactOutP1_ContactOut_Contents_0() at NewSite_fla::MainTimeline/frame1() --" The structure of the project is like, it has the different sections split into different movie clips. There is no single main timeline, but click actions on different areas of seperate movie clips will take them between one another. All the AS logic of event handling are written inline in FLA , no seperate Document class exists. Preloader Movie clip is the first one getting loaded. As i understood the error is getting thrown initially itself, and it is not happening due to any Action script logic written inline, because it is throwing error even before hitting the first inline AS code. I am not able to figure Out what exactly it causing the problem, or where to resolve it. I setup the stuff online, for reference if anybody want to take a look at it, and here is the link.You need to have flash debugger turned ON in your browser, if need to see the exception getting triggered. http://tinyurl.com/2alvlfx I really got stuck at this point. Any help will be great.I had not seen the particular solution i am looking for anywhere yet, though Error #1009 is common.

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• Facebox with other jquery in it

  - by dakemz

  So I have facebox setup and it works. when I load an external page with a tab based navigation (JQuery too) the modal works but the nav doesnt. If it isnt clear I actually want the tabs to be inside the lightbox. And I also have php/mysql running inside the lightbox if that can change anything. Thanks for any help. <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-ui-1.7.2.custom.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function(){ $('#tabs').tabs(); }); </script> <div id="tabs"> <ul> <li><a href="#tabs-1">Informations</a></li> <li><a href="#tabs-2">Factures en attente</a></li> <li><a href="#tabs-3">Marché en cours</a></li> </ul>

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• How can i Execute a Controller's ActionMethod programatically?

  - by Pure.Krome

  Hi folks, I'm trying to execute a controller's Action Method programatically and I'm not sure how. Scenario: When my ControllerFactory fails to find the controller, I wish it to manually execute a single action method which i have on a simple, custom controller. I don't want to rely on using any route data to determine the controller/method .. because that route might not have been wired up. Eg. // NOTE: Error handling removed from this example. public class MyControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { protected override IController GetControllerInstance(Type controllerType) { IController result = null; // Try and load the controller, based on the controllerType argument. // ... snip // Did we retrieve a controller? if (controller == null) { result = new MyCustomController(); ((MyCustomController)result).Execute404NotFound(); // <-- HERE! } return result; } } .. and that method is .. public static void Execute404NotFound(this Controller controller) { result = new 404NotFound(); // Setup any ViewData.Model stuff. result.ExecuteResult(controller.ControllerContext); // <-- RUNTIME // ERROR's HERE } Now, when I run the controller factory fails to find a controller, i then manually create my own basic controller. I then call the extension method 'Execute404NotFound' on this controller instance. That's fine .. until it runs the ExecuteResult(..) method. Why? the controller has no ControllerContext data. As such, the ExecuteResult crashes because it requires some ControllerContext. So - can someone out there help me? see what I'm doing wrong. Remember - i'm trying to get my controller factory to manually / programmatically call a method on a controller which of course would return an ActionResult. Please help!

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• WIKI replacement solution for SharePoint?

  - by Jakub

  I'm trying to research a replacement for the pathetic WIKI that comes with WSS (only wiki code it has is to create url links). I have looked at a few but most 'replacements' I see are MOSS only? (or so it just states MOSS for requirements). Has anyone faced this situation? What did you end up using? I would like something that I can have all in one location (not different apps, hence WSS). With LDAP / AD Integration like WSS. Thanks appreciate any input. I would like to see ~ $3k solutions tho (nothing super expensive, hence why we don't run MOSS). EDIT: Anyone else have any suggestions? EDIT2: Actually since I haven't had much feedback (thanks to those that have). I installed mediawiki under IIS with PHP enabled, and enabled the IIS AD hack for authentication. IIS ends up prompting for authentication (user/pass) if you use a non IE browser, then it sets the $_SERVER["REMOTE_USER"] variable, and grabs some AD info (groups etc). Works rather well, only issues is the UGLY urls so far. But its fully working. Seems like a good setup. Other than having to rely on MYSQL (my company strives to be mainly SQL Server)

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• unix at command pass variable to shell script?

  - by Andrew

  Hi, I'm trying to setup a simple timer that gets started from a Rails Application. This timer should wait out its duration and then start a shell script that will start up ./script/runner and complete the initial request. I need script/runner because I need access to ActiveRecord. Here's my test lines in Rails output = `at #{(Time.now + 60).strftime("%H:%M")} < #{Rails.root}/lib/parking_timer.sh STRING_VARIABLE` return render :text => output Then my parking_timer.sh looks like this #!/bin/sh ~/PATH_TO_APP/script/runner -e development ~/PATH_TO_APP/lib/ParkingTimer.rb $1 echo "All Done" Finally, ParkingTimer.rb reads the passed variable with ARGV.each do|a| puts "Argument: #{a}" end The problem is that the Unix command "at" doesn't seem to like variables and only wants to deal with filenames. I either get one of two errors depending on how I position "s If I put quotes around the right hand side like so ... "~/PATH_TO_APP/lib/parking_timer.sh STRING_VARIABLE" I get, -bash: ~/PATH_TO_APP/lib/parking_timer.sh STRING_VARIABLE: No such file or directory I I leave the quotes out, I get, at: garbled time This is all happening on a Mac OS 10.6 box running Rails 2.3 & Ruby 1.8.6 I've already messed around w/ BackgrounDrb, and decided its a total PITA. I need to be able to cancel the job at any time before it is due.

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• ExternalInterface

  - by Jesse

  Hey, so I'm having a bunch of trouble getting ExternalInterface to work, which is odd, because I use it somewhat often. I'm hoping it's something I just missed because I've been looking at it too long. The flash_ready function is correctly returning the objectID, and as far as I can tell, everything else is in order. Unfortunately, when I run it, I get an error (varying by browser) telling me that basically document.getElementById(<movename>).test() is not a valid method. Here's the code: javascript: function flash_ready(i){ document.getElementById(i).test('success!'); } Embed Html (Generated): <script type="text/javascript"> swfobject.embedSWF("/chainmaille/includes/media/flash/upload_image.swf", "/chainmaille/includes/media/flash/upload_image", "500", "50", "9.0.0","expressInstall.swf", {}, {allowScriptAccess:'always', wmode:'transparent'},{id:'uploader_flash',name:'uploader_flash'}); </script> <object type="application/x-shockwave-flash" id="uploader_flash" name="uploader_flash" data="/chainmaille/includes/media/flash/upload_image.swf" width="500" height="50"><param name="allowScriptAccess" value="always"><param name="wmode" value="transparent"></object> AS3 : package com.jesseditson.uploader { import flash.display.MovieClip; import flash.external.ExternalInterface; import flash.system.Security; public class UI extends MovieClip { // Initialization: public function UI() { Security.allowDomain('*'); ExternalInterface.addCallback("test", test); var jscommand:String = "flash_ready('"+ExternalInterface.objectID+"');"; var url:URLRequest = new URLRequest("javascript:" + jscommand + " void(0);"); navigateToURL(url, "_self"); } public function test(t){ trace(t); } } } Swfobject is being included via google code, and the flash embeds just fine, so that's not the problem. I've got a very similar setup working on another server, but can't seem to get it working on this one. It's a Hostgator shared server. Could it be the server's fault? Anybody see any obvious syntax problems? Thanks in advance!

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• iPhone 4.0 on iPhone but still Ad-Hoc compile for 3.1.3?

  - by Mark

  Device: Version : 3.1 Build: 3511 Device: iPhone OS: iPhone OS 4.0 xCode 3.2.2 (Old) xCode 3.2.3 (New; For iPhone 4.0 Beta) Background: As you can see I installed 4.0 on my iPhone as I read on this forum it's really hard to near impossible to downgrade back to 3.1.3, but it's my only device I have and use for development. When I try to continue to develop and build with the old xCode it tells me that "No provisioned iPhone OS device is connected". When I select Simulator it does compile and build, however when I spread this file it does not work on the devices of my testers, they get a Signed error. When I run the new xCode, it does compile and build on the Device and when I spread this file, it does work on the devices of my testers (which are running the current official version 3.1.3). Questions: Why is there a difference between building for Simulator and Device? A simulator build never seem to work on the devices of my testers because of signing issues and the build for device does work. Currently it seems the old xCode became useless, however I read that you may not use the Beta xCode to build your application for release. So knowing the above how am I able to pull this off with my current setup due the fact the old xCode won't let me build properly.

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• web.config + asp.net MVC + location > system.web > authorization + Integrated Security

  - by vdh_ant

  Hi guys I have an ASP.Net MVC app using Integrated Security that I need to be able grant open access to a specific route. The route in question is '~/Agreements/Upload' and the config I have setup looks like this: <configuration> ... <location path="~/Agreements/Upload"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> ... </configuration> I have tried a few things and nothing has worked thus far. In IIS under Directory Security Authentication Methods I only have "Integrated Windows Authentication" selected. Now this could be part of my problem (as even though IIS allows the above IIS doesn't). But if that's the case how do I configure it so that Integrated Security works but allows people who aren't authenticated to access the given route. Cheers Anthony

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