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  • Same query has nested loops when used with INSERT, but Hash Match without.

    - by AaronLS
    I have two tables, one has about 1500 records and the other has about 300000 child records. About a 1:200 ratio. I stage the parent table to a staging table, SomeParentTable_Staging, and then I stage all of it's child records, but I only want the ones that are related to the records I staged in the parent table. So I use the below query to perform this staging by joining with the parent tables staged data. --Stage child records INSERT INTO [dbo].[SomeChildTable_Staging] ([SomeChildTableId] ,[SomeParentTableId] ,SomeData1 ,SomeData2 ,SomeData3 ,SomeData4 ) SELECT [SomeChildTableId] ,D.[SomeParentTableId] ,SomeData1 ,SomeData2 ,SomeData3 ,SomeData4 FROM [dbo].[SomeChildTable] D INNER JOIN dbo.SomeParentTable_Staging I ON D.SomeParentTableID = I.SomeParentTableID; The execution plan indicates that the tables are being joined with a Nested Loop. When I run just the select portion of the query without the insert, the join is performed with Hash Match. So the select statement is the same, but in the context of an insert it uses the slower nested loop. I have added non-clustered index on the D.SomeParentTableID so that there is an index on both sides of the join. I.SomeParentTableID is a primary key with clustered index. Why does it use a nested loop for inserts that use a join? Is there a way to improve the performance of the join for the insert?

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  • Technical choices in unmarshaling hash-consed data

    - by Pascal Cuoq
    There seems to be quite a bit of folklore knowledge floating about in restricted circles about the pitfalls of hash-consing combined with marshaling-unmarshaling of data. I am looking for citable references to these tidbits. For instance, someone once pointed me to library aterm and mentioned that the authors had clearly thought about this and that the representation on disk was bottom-up (children of a node come before the node itself in the data stream). This is indeed the right way to do things when you need to re-share each node (with a possible identical node already in memory). This re-sharing pass needs to be done bottom-up, so the unmarshaling itself might as well be, too, so that it's possible to do everything in a single pass. I am in the process of describing difficulties encountered in our own context, and the solutions we found. I would appreciate any citable reference to the kind of aforementioned folklore knowledge. Some people obviously have encountered the problems before (the aterm library is only one example). But I didn't find anything in writing. Even the little piece of information I have about aterm is hear-say. I am not worried it's not reliable (you can't make this up), but "personal communication" and "look how it's done in the source code" are considered poor form in citations. I have enough references on hash-consing alone. I am only interested in references where it interferes with other aspects of programming, such as marshaling or distribution.

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  • IIS not responding to the few requests from the client

    - by Haroon
    I am stuck with an issue with IIS 7.0. I need someone's help to find resolution on this, as this is very urgent requirement for us. Scenario I am trying to host the service in my server (Windows Server 2008 R2 and IIS 7.0) and my client is running in the XP machine with IIS 5.1. Few of my request sent from client get successful response and for few request I am getting the below exception in Visual studio when I try to debug. Exception in Visual studio 2010 An error occurred while receiving the HTTP response to This could be due to the service endpoint binding not using the HTTP protocol. This could also be due to HTTP request context being aborted by the server (possibly due to the service shutting down). See the server logs for more details. When referred to the server event viewer log I got the below events(Application error and System warning) during the above exception. Under System logs - Warning A process serving application pool 'DefaultAppPool' suffered a fatal communication error with the Windows Process Activation Service. The process id was '5372'. The data field contains the error number. Under Application log - Error Faulting application name: w3wp.exe, version: 7.5.7600.16385, time stamp: 0x4a5bd0eb Faulting module name: ntdll.dll, version: 6.1.7600.16559, time stamp: 0x4ba9b802 Exception code: 0xc0000374 Fault offset: 0x00000000000c6df2 Faulting process id: 0x14fc Faulting application start time: 0x01cbd042562e92c3 Faulting application path: c:\windows\system32\inetsrv\w3wp.exe Faulting module path: C:\Windows\SYSTEM32\ntdll.dll Report Id: 95f76467-3c35-11e0-a46e-7071bc5cc1ee From internet I am not able to get the exact solution. Therefore could anyone please help me out from getting resolution for the same that would be really a great help for me. Please let me know if you need more details. Thanks in advance.

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  • Get a selected radio button value after POST to set other fields enabled/disabled

    - by Redeemed1
    I have an MVC application with a simple control to all selection of All Dates or selecting a Date Range. The radio buttons have an onclick handler to enable/disable the dat pickers. All work well so far. When I try to set the correct context state for the datepickers after doing a POST I cannot get the jQuery selector to return the radio buttons checked value. The code is as follows: <%= Html.RadioButton("DateSelection.AllDates", "AllDates", Model.AllDates == "AllDates", new { onclick = "setReadOnly(this);" })%>ALL Dates&nbsp; <%= Html.RadioButton("DateSelection.AllDates", "Selection", Model.AllDates == "Selection", new { onclick = "setReadOnly(this);" })%>Selection <%= Html.DatePicker("DateSelection.startdate", Model.StartDate, "", "") %> &nbsp;To&nbsp;<%= Html.DatePicker("DateSelection.enddate", Model.EndDate, "", "") %><br /> The javascript is as follows: <script type="text/jscript" > function setReadOnly(obj) { if (obj.value == "Selection") { $('#DateSelection_startdate').css('backgroundColor', '#ffffff') .removeAttr('readonly') .datepicker('enable'); $('#DateSelection_enddate').css('backgroundColor', '#ffffff') .removeAttr('readonly') .datepicker('enable'); } else { $('#DateSelection_startdate').css('backgroundColor', '#eeeeee') .attr('readonly', 'readonly') .val('') .datepicker('disable'); $('#DateSelection_enddate').css('backgroundColor', '#eeeeee') .attr('readonly', 'readonly') .val('') .datepicker('disable'); } } <script type="text/jscript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#DateSelection_startdate').datepicker('disable').css('backgroundColor', '#eeeeee') .attr('readonly', 'readonly') .val(''); $('#DateSelection_enddate').datepicker('disable').css('backgroundColor', '#eeeeee') .attr('readonly', 'readonly') .val(''); var selected = $('#DateSelection_AllDates:checked'); setReadOnly(selected); }); The javascript line that is causing the problem is var selected = $('#DateSelection_AllDates:checked'); which will NOT return the checked radio button. Using var selected = $('#DateSelection_AllDates'); will return the first radio button value as expected i.e. applying the ':checked' filter ALWAYS returns undefined. Can anyone see anything wrong here?

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  • Entity Framework in layered architecture

    - by Kamyar
    I am using a layered architecture with the Entity Framework. Here's What I came up with till now (All the projects Except UI are class library): Entities: The POCO Entities. Completely persistence ignorant. No Reference to other projects. Generated by Microsoft's ADO.Net POCO Entity Generator. DAL: The EDMX (Entity Model) file with the context class. (t4 generated). References: Entities BLL: Business Logic Layer. Will implement repository pattern on this layer. References: Entities, DAL. This is where the objectcontext gets populated: var ctx=new DAL.MyDBEntities(); UI: The presentation layer: ASP.NET website. References: Entities, BLL + a connection string entry to entities in the config file (question #2). Now my three questions: Is my layer discintion approach correct? In my UI, I access BLL as follows: var customerRep = new BLL.CustomerRepository(); var Customer = customerRep.GetByID(myCustomerID); The problem is that I have to define the entities connection string in my UI's web.config/app.config otherwise I get a runtime exception. IS defining the entities connectionstring in UI spoils the layers' distinction? Or is it accesptible in a muli layered architecture. Should I take any additional steps to perform chage tracking, lazy loading, etc (by etc I mean the features that Entity Framework covers in a conventional, 1 project, non POCO code generation)? Thanks and apologies for the lengthy question.

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  • C# How can I access to a dynamic created array of labels

    - by Markus Betz
    I created an array of labels on runtime. Now i have a problem to access these labels from other functions. Dynamic creation: private void Form1_Shown(object sender, EventArgs e) { Label[] Calendar_Weekday_Day = new Label[7]; for (int i = 0; i < 7; i++) { Calendar_Weekday_Day[i] = new Label(); Calendar_Weekday_Day[i].Location = new System.Drawing.Point(27 + (i * 137), 60); Calendar_Weekday_Day[i].Size = new System.Drawing.Size(132, 14); Calendar_Weekday_Day[i].Text = "Montag, 01.01.1970"; this.TabControl1.Controls.Add(Calendar_Weekday_Day[i]); } } And the function where I want to access to the dynamic created array of labels: private void display_weather_from_db(DateTime Weather_Startdate) { Calendar_Weekday_Day[0].Text = "Test1"; Calendar_Weekday_Day[1].Text = "Test2"; } Error shown: Error 1 The name 'Calendar_Weekday_Day' does not exist in the current context Form1.cs 1523 25 Test I tryed this, but didn't help :( public partial class Form1 : Form { private Label[] Calendar_Weekday_Day; } Someone an idea?

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  • Visual Studio 2010: very slow web applications debugging!

    - by micha12
    I recently installed Visual Studio 2010 (Ultimate edition, final version released in April), and found that debugging a web application became very slow (2-3 times slower than in Visual Studio 2008)! I took the same web application and checked the speed of loading of one of its pages in VS 2008 and VS 2010, and compared the time it takes to load the page. I tested it using 2 approaches: 1) debugging under ASP.NET Development Server (by pressing the "Start" button) and 2) using ASP.NET Development Server without debugging (by using the "View in Browser" menu command). And I got the following results for Visual Studio 2008 and 2010. 1) ASP.NET Development Server withoud debugging ("View in Browser"): the speed of page loading is the same in VS 2008 and 2010. 2) Debugging under ASP.NET Development Server ("Start" button): in VS 2010 the page takes more time to load than in VS 2008 - VS 2010 debugging is 2-3 times slower than in VS 2008! 3) At the same time, when debugging a web application in VS 2008, it takes the same time to load the page compared to when using only the "View in Browser" command. That is, VS 2008 debugging does not introduce any overhead to page loading in the web browser! I wanted to make sure that other people have the same problem with slow debugging of web applications in VS 2010. Can this issue be solved by any means? BTW, I am using Windows XP SP3. Thank you.

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  • grabbing layer contents in a class

    - by Mike
    I have a custom UIImageView class that creates thumbnails (UIImageView) and each thumbnail has a label. The label is created by another class. The label class creates a UIImageView and a UITextView on top of it. This is the init object class' init method: - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { if ([super initWithFrame:frame] == nil) { return nil; } CGRect myFrame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 100, 100); myLabel = [[myLabelClass alloc] initWithFrame: myFrame]; //myLabelClass is a UIImageView based class [myLabel setCenter:CGPointMake(50, 50)]; [self addSubview: myLabel]; return self; } So, I have this MAIN VIEW CONTROLLER | |___ UIImageView WITH LABEL | |____ label background (UIView) |____ UITEXTVIEW (text) Now I want to write the contents of all these 3 components to a quartz context. I need to write using drawInRect, because I need to write the full object to a precise location. I expected object.layer.contents to be the image equivalent to these 3 "layers" flattened, in other words, the object's image, the label background and the label text, as it would if I created these 3 objects in Photoshop and flatten the composition. I also expect object.myLabel.layer.contents to contains the rendered contents of the UITextView over the label background. The problem is that when I use UIImage *myImage = [UIImage imageWithCGImage:objecto.myLabel.layer.contents]; [myImage drawInRect:CGRectMake(0, 0, 100, 100)]; I get nothing. How can I obtain a "flattened" image resultant to the full object (including its subviews)? thanks

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  • Deploying ASP.Net MVC application

    - by a_m0d
    I've recently reached the stage where an ASP.net MVC application I am developing is ready to be deployed to the production server. I've worked out how to publish the application - I've got all the files on the server, and can access them over the internet. However, I can't work out how to deploy my database. The server has the SQL Server Management Studio Express installed, as the database used is a SQL Server Express database. I have the server instance up and running - I just don't know how to add the tables, etc. to the database. I have created the "CREATE TABLE" scripts on the development machine, but as far as I can see, Management Studio does not provide any way to actually run these scripts. I have looked through all the menu items that I could see, and none of them worked. Even using the "Create new query..." option and pasting the script in didn't work. When I try "File-Open..." and select a script to run, set the correct database from the dropdown list on the toolbar, and then execute the script, it complains about not finding the database file (even when I set the USE [...] statement to the correct path. Deleting the USE [...] statement, the script complains that it can't find the [dbo].[Invoices] object; however, it shouldn't be able to find it, because its trying to create it! tl;dr: What's the best way to make sure that the database on the production machine matches the database on my development machine?

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  • How do I control the background color during the iPhone flip view animation transition?

    - by Rob S.
    I have some pretty standing flipping action going on: [UIView beginAnimations:@"swapScreens" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationTransition:UIViewAnimationTransitionFlipFromLeft forView:self.view cache:YES]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1.0]; [self.view exchangeSubviewAtIndex:0 withSubviewAtIndex:1]; [UIView commitAnimations]; To Apple's credit, this style of animation is amazingly easy to work with. Very cool, and I've been able to animate transitions, flips, fades etc. throughout the app very easily. Question: During the flip transition, the background visible 'behind' the two views during the flip is white and I'd like it to be black. I've: Set the background of the containing view (self.view above) - no dice. I really thought that would work. Set the background of each view to black - no dice. I didn't think this would work although you give different things a shot to understand better :) Google'd like crazy; keep landing on Safari-related listings. Thanks in advance!

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  • Instanced drawing with OpenGL ES 2.0

    - by Mårten Wikström
    In short: Is it possible to use the gl_InstanceID built-in variable in OpenGL ES 2.0? And, if so, how? Some more info: I want to draw multiple instances of an object using glDrawArraysInstanced and gl_InstanceID, and I want my application to run on multiple platforms, including iOS. The specification clearly says that these features require ES 3.0. According to the iOS Device Compatibility Reference ES 3.0 is only available on a few devices (those based on the A7 GPU; so iPhone 5s, but not on iPhone 5 or earlier). So my first assumption was that I needed to avoid using instanced drawing on older iOS devices. However, further down in the compatibility reference document it says that the EXT_draw_instanced extension is supported for all SGX Series 5 processors (that includes iPhone 5 and 4s). This makes me think that I could indeed use instanced drawing on older iOS devices too, by looking up and using the appropriate extension function (EXT or ARB) for glDrawArraysInstanced. I'm currently just running some test code using SDL and GLEW on Windows so I haven't tested anything on iOS yet. However, in my current setup I'm having trouble using the gl_InstanceID built-in variable in a vertex shader. I'm getting the following error message: 'gl_InstanceID' : variable is not available in current GLSL version Enabling the "draw_instanced" extension in GLSL has no effect: #extension GL_ARB_draw_instanced : enable #extension GL_EXT_draw_instanced : enable The error goes away when I specifically declare that I need ES 3.0 (GLSL 300 ES): #version 300 es Although that seem to work fine on my Windows desktop machine in an ES 2.0 context I doubt that this would work on an iPhone 5. So, shall I abandon the idea of being able to use instanced drawing on older iOS devices?

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  • How to scale JPEG images with a non-standard sampling factor in Java?

    - by HRJ
    I am using Java AWT for scaling a JPEG image, to create thumbnails. The code works fine when the image has a normal sampling factor ( 2x2,1x1,1x1 ) However, an image which has this sampling factor ( 1x1, 1x1, 1x1 ) creates problem when scaled. The colors get corrupted though the features are recognizable. The original and the thumbnail: The code I am using is roughly equivalent to: static BufferedImage awtScaleImage(BufferedImage image, int maxSize, int hint) { // We use AWT Image scaling because it has far superior quality // compared to JAI scaling. It also performs better (speed)! System.out.println("AWT Scaling image to: " + maxSize); int w = image.getWidth(); int h = image.getHeight(); float scaleFactor = 1.0f; if (w > h) scaleFactor = ((float) maxSize / (float) w); else scaleFactor = ((float) maxSize / (float) h); w = (int)(w * scaleFactor); h = (int)(h * scaleFactor); // since this code can run both headless and in a graphics context // we will just create a standard rgb image here and take the // performance hit in a non-compatible image format if any Image i = image.getScaledInstance(w, h, hint); image = new BufferedImage(w, h, BufferedImage.TYPE_INT_RGB); Graphics2D g = image.createGraphics(); g.drawImage(i, null, null); g.dispose(); i.flush(); return image; } (Code courtesy of this page ) Is there a better way to do this? Here's a test image with sampling factor of [ 1x1, 1x1, 1x1 ].

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  • Error when passing quotes to webservice by AJAX

    - by Radu
    I'm passing data using .ajax and here are my data and contentType attributes: data: '{ "UserInput" : "' + $('#txtInput').val() + '","Options" : { "Foo1":' + bar1 + ', "Foo2":' + Bar2 + ', "Flags":"' + flags + '", "Immunity":' + immunity + '}}', contentType: 'application/json; charset=utf-8', Server side my code looks like this: <WebMethod()> _ Public Shared Function ParseData(ByVal UserInput As String, ByVal Options As Options) As String The userinput is obvious but the Options structure is like the following: Public Structure Options Dim Foo1 As Boolean Dim Foo2 As Boolean Dim Flags As String Dim Immunity As Integer End Structure Everything works fine when $('#txtInput') contains no double-quotes but if they are present I get an error (for an input of asd"): {"Message":"Invalid object passed in, \u0027:\u0027 or \u0027}\u0027 expected. (22): { \"UserInput\" : \"asd\"\",\"Options\" : { \"Foo1\":false, \"Foo2\":false, \"Flags\":\"\", \"Immunity\":0}}","StackTrace":" at System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptObjectDeserializer.DeserializeDictionary(Int32 depth)\r\n at System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptObjectDeserializer.DeserializeInternal(Int32 depth)\r\n at System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptObjectDeserializer.BasicDeserialize(String input, Int32 depthLimit, JavaScriptSerializer serializer)\r\n at System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer.Deserialize[T](String input)\r\n at System.Web.Script.Services.RestHandler.ExecuteWebServiceCall(HttpContext context, WebServiceMethodData methodData)","ExceptionType":"System.ArgumentException"} Any idea how I can avoid this error? Also, when I pass the same input with quotes directly it works fine.

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  • jQuery-driven app. won't work without alert()

    - by webjawns.com
    I have seen a lot of articles on this, but none dealing with jQuery, so here I go... I am implementing a version of a script from http://javascript-array.com/scripts/jquery_simple_drop_down_menu/ into an existing application; however, I cannot get it to work without adding alert('msg...') as the first method within the $(document).ready() call. This has nothing to do with load time... no matter how long I wait, the menu does not work. Add alert(), however, and it works like a charm. var timeout = 500; var closetimer = 0; var ddmenuitem = 0; function jsddm_open() { jsddm_canceltimer(); jsddm_close(); ddmenuitem = $(this).find('ul').css('visibility', 'visible');} function jsddm_close() { if(ddmenuitem) ddmenuitem.css('visibility', 'hidden');} function jsddm_timer() { closetimer = window.setTimeout(jsddm_close, timeout);} function jsddm_canceltimer() { if(closetimer) { window.clearTimeout(closetimer); closetimer = null;}} $(document).ready(function() { $('#jsddm > li').bind('mouseover', jsddm_open) $('#jsddm > li').bind('mouseout', jsddm_timer)}); document.onclick = jsddm_close;

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  • deep linking in Excel sheets exported to html

    - by pomarc
    hello everybody, I am working on a project where I must export to html a lot of Excel files. This is pretty straightforward using automation and saving as html. The problem is that many of these sheets have links to worksheets of some other files. I must find a way to write a link to a single inner worksheet. When you export a multisheet excel file to html, excel creates a main htm file, a folder named filename_file, and inside this folder it writes down several files: a css, an xml list of files, a file that creates the tab bar and several html files named sheetxxx.htm, each one representing a worksheet. When you open the main file, you can click the menu bar at the bottom which lets you select the appropriate sheet. This is in fact a link, which replaces a frame content with the sheetxxx.htm file. When this file is loaded a javascript function that selects the right tab gets called. The exported files will be published on a web site. I will have to post process each file and replace every link to the other xls files to the matching htm file, finding a way to open the right worksheet. I think that I could add a parameter to the processed htm file link url, such as myfile.htm?sh=sheet002.htm if I want to link to the second worksheet of myfile.htm (ex myfile.xls). After I've exported them, I could inject a simple javascript into each of the main files which, when they are loaded, could retrieve the sh parameter with jQuery (this is easy) and use this to somehow replace the frSheet frame contents (where the sheets get loaded), opening the right inner sheet and not the default sheet (this is what I call deep linking) mimicking what happens when a user clicks on a tab. This last step is missing... :) I am considering different options, such as replacing the source of the $("frSheet") frame after document.ready. I'd like to hear from you any advice on what could be the best way to realize that in your opinion. any help is greately appreciated, many thanks.

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  • Core Data: Overkill for simple, static UITableView-based iPhone App?

    - by David Foster
    Hello! I have a rather simple iPhone app consisting of numerous views containing a single, grouped table view. These views are held together in navigation controllers which are grouped in a tab bar. Simple stuff. My table views do little more than list text (like "Dog", "Cat" and "Weasel") and this data is being served from a collection of plists. It's perhaps worth mentioning too that these tables are 'static' in the sense that their data is pre-determined and will only ever be amended—and if so, very rarely indeed—by the developer (in this case, moi). This rudimentary approach has reached its limits though, and I think I'm going to need something a bit more relational. I have worked a tad with Core Data in the past, but only with apps whose data is determined by user input. I have four closely related questions: Is Core Data overkill for an app consisting mainly of a selection of simple table views? Do you recommend using Core Data to manage data which is predetermine and extremely unlikely to ever change? Can one lock Core Data down so that its data can't change, thereby relinquishing my responsibility as the developer to handle the editing and saving of the managed object context? How do I go about giving Core Data my predetermined data, and in a format I know that it can work with? Thanks a bunch guys.

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  • Accessing Web.config directly in ASP.NET MVC 1

    - by Neil T.
    I'm trying to implement integration testing in my ASP.NET MVC 1.0 solution. The technologies in use are LINQ-to-SQL, NUnit and WatiN. I recently discovered a pattern that will allow me to create a testing version of the database on the fly without modifying the development version of the database. I needed this behavior in order to run my user interface tests in WatiN that may modify the database. The plan is to modify the connection string in the Web.config file, and pass that new connection string to the DataContext constructor. This way, I don't have to add routes or modify my URLs in order to perform the integration testing. I've set up the project so that the test setup can modify the connection string to point to the test database when the tests are running. The connection string is stored in web.config. The problem I'm having is that when I try to run the tests, I get a NullReferenceException when trying to access the HTTPContext. From everything that I have read so far, the HTTPContext is only available within the context of a controller. Here is the code for the property that is supposed to give me the reference to the Web.config file: private System.Configuration.Configuration WebConfig { get { ExeConfigurationFileMap fileMap = new ExeConfigurationFileMap(); // NullReferenceException occurs on this line. fileMap.ExeConfigFilename = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~\\web.config"); System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenMappedExeConfiguration(fileMap, ConfigurationUserLevel.None); return config; } } Is there something that I am missing in order to make this work? Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to achieve?

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  • CGLIB proxy error after spring bean definition loading into XmlWebApplicationContext at runtime

    - by VasylV
    I load additional singleton beans definitions at runtime from external jar file into existing XmlWebApplicationContext of my application: BeanFactory beanFactory = xmlWebApplicationContext.getBeanFactory(); DefaultListableBeanFactory defaultFactory = (DefaultListableBeanFactory)beanFactory; final URL url = new URL("external.jar"); final URL[] urls = {url}; ClassLoader loader = new URLClassLoader(urls, this.getClass().getClassLoader()); defaultFactory.setBeanClassLoader(loader); final ClassPathBeanDefinitionScanner scanner = new ClassPathBeanDefinitionScanner(defaultFactory); final DefaultResourceLoader resourceLoader = new DefaultResourceLoader(); resourceLoader.setClassLoader(loader); scanner.setResourceLoader(resourceLoader); scanner.scan("com.*"); Object bean = xmlWebApplicationContext.getBean("externalBean"); After all above xmlWebApplicationContext contains all external definitions of beans. But when i am trying to get bean from context exception is thrown: Couldn't generate CGLIB proxy for class ... I saw in debug mode that in the bean initialization process first time proxy is generated by org.springframework.aop.aspectj.autoproxy.AspectJAwareAdvisorAutoProxyCreator and than it is tried to generate proxy with org.springframework.aop.framework.autoproxy.BeanNameAutoProxyCreator but fails with mentioned exception.

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  • Atomic swap in GNU C++

    - by Steve
    I want to verify that my understanding is correct. This kind of thing is tricky so I'm almost sure I am missing something. I have a program consisting of a real-time thread and a non-real-time thread. I want the non-RT thread to be able to swap a pointer to memory that is used by the RT thread. From the docs, my understanding is that this can be accomplished in g++ with: // global Data *rt_data; Data *swap_data(Data *new_data) { #ifdef __GNUC__ // Atomic pointer swap. Data *old_d = __sync_lock_test_and_set(&rt_data, new_data); #else // Non-atomic, cross your fingers. Data *old_d = rt_data; rt_data = new_data; #endif return old_d; } This is the only place in the program (other than initial setup) where rt_data is modified. When rt_data is used in the real-time context, it is copied to a local pointer. For old_d, later on when it is sure that the old memory is not used, it will be freed in the non-RT thread. Is this correct? Do I need volatile anywhere? Are there other synchronization primitives I should be calling? By the way I am doing this in C++, although I'm interested in whether the answer differs for C. Thanks ahead of time.

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  • Service reference error when moving dev. environment from XP to W7

    - by Peter
    Hi, I am building an application and I am using web services for getting data from a server. It was working fine when I was developing on my XP machine but had to switch to Windows 7. On the new machine I grabbed the latest version of the code using sourcesafe. However, when I try to add a service reference in the solution or update an existing one I get the following error: There was an error downloading 'http://localhost:52490/Service/CustomerService.asmx'. The request failed with the error message: Server Error in '/' Application. Parser Error Description: An error occurred during the parsing of a resource required to service this request. Please review the following specific parse error details and modify your source file appropriately. Parser Error Message: Could not create type 'Digital_Server.CustomerService'. Source Error <%@ WebService Language="vb" CodeBehind="CustomerService.asmx.vb" Class="Digital_Server.CustomerService" % Source File: /Service/CustomerService.asmxLine: 1 Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.4927; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.4927 --. Metadata contains a reference that cannot be resolved: 'http://localhost:52490/Service/CustomerService.asmx'. An error occurred while receiving the HTTP response to http://localhost:52490/Service/CustomerService.asmx. This could be due to the service endpoint binding not using the HTTP protocol. This could also be due to an HTTP request context being aborted by the server (possibly due to the service shutting down). See server logs for more details. The underlying connection was closed: An unexpected error occurred on a receive. Unable to read data from the transport connection: An existing connection was forcibly closed by the remote host. An existing connection was forcibly closed by the remote host If the service is defined in the current solution, try building the solution and adding the service reference again. Does it has anything to do with the IIS or is it any configuration file I have to change in the solution? Any help is appreciated.

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  • Spring can't find a lib and webapp doesn't start up in tomcat 6

    - by gotch4
    I've this problem using STS: I'm building a simple Spring app, just to try out features like MVC and persistence. Now I've created something very simple, out of a bunch of tutorials for Spring 3, that I'm using. The application fails with this, during server startup: Code: org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping#0': Initialization of bean failed; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.CannotLoadBeanClassException: Cannot find class [org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.annotation.AnnotationSessionFactoryBean] for bean with name 'mySessionFactory' defined in ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/spring/appServlet/servlet-context.xml]; nested exception is java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.annotation.AnnotationSessionFactoryBean but I've org.springframework.orm in web-inf/classes folder (I even tried putting it in web-inf/lib). As I copied these libs there, the came out in Web App Libraries folder. Building this project in STS works fine as this dependency is set up in build path throught project properties, but how do I transfer the libs to the web app? (I'm using Tomcat 6 as it is the server I'm going to use sometime in the future for production). Is this a config problem of my XML? Or am I just missing the right way to put this lib? (I encountered the same problem before, but adding the needed lib in classes worked it out). More than this I that if I browse inside my workspace to the folder where the working folder of tomcat should be, I can't find any work directory and any commo

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  • C++ iterators, default initialization and what to use as an uninitialized sentinel.

    - by Hassan Syed
    The Context I have a custom template container class put together from a map and vector. The map resolves a string to an ordinal, and the vector resolves an ordinal (only an initial string to ordinal lookup is done, future references are to the vector) to the entry. The entries are modified intrusively to contain a a bool "assigned" and an iterator_type which is a const_iterator to the container class's map. My container class will use RCF's serialization code (which models boost::serialization) to serialize my container classes to nodes in a network. Serializing iterator's is not possible, or a can of worms, and I can easily regenerate them onces the vectors and maps are serialized on the remote site. The Question I need to default initialize, and be able to test that the iterator has not been assigned to (if it is assigned it is valid, if not it is invalid). Since map iterators are not invalidated upon operations performed on it (unless of course items are removed :D) am I to assume that map<x,y>::end() is a valid sentinel (regardless of the state of the map -- i.e., it could be empty) to initialize to ? I will always have access to the parent map, I'm just unsure wheather end() is the same as the map contents change. I don't want to use another level of indirection (--i.e., boost::optional) to achieve my goal, I'd rather forego compiler checks to correct logic, but it would be nice if I didn't need to. Misc This question exists, but most of its content seems non-sense. Assigning a NULL to an iterator is invalid according to g++ and clang++. This is another similar question, but it focuses on the common use-cases of iterators, which generally tends to be using the iterator to iterate, ofcourse in this use-case the state of the container isn't meant to change whilst iteration is going on.

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  • Popup window size in android

    - by Bostjan
    I'm creating a popup window in a listactivity in the event onListItemClick. LayoutInflater inflater = (LayoutInflater) this.getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); View pop = inflater.inflate(R.layout.popupcontact, null, false); ImageView atnot = (ImageView)pop.findViewById(R.id.aNot); height = pop.getMeasuredHeight(); width = pop.getMeasuredWidth(); Log.e("pw","height: "+String.valueOf(height)+", width: "+String.valueOf(width)); atnot.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { pw.dismiss(); } }); pw = new PopupWindow(pop, width, height, true); // The code below assumes that the root container has an id called 'main' //pw.showAtLocation(v, Gravity.CENTER, 0, 0); pw.showAsDropDown(v, 10, 5); Now, the height and width variables were supposed to be height and width of the layout used for the popup window (popupcontact). But they return 0. I guess that is because the layout isn't rendered yet. Does anyone have a clue, how can I control the size of the popup window without needing to use absolute pixel numbers?

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  • Can't combine "LINQ Join" with other tables

    - by FullmetalBoy
    The main problem is that I recieve the following message: "base {System.SystemException} = {"Unable to create a constant value of type 'BokButik1.Models.Book-Author'. Only primitive types ('such as Int32, String, and Guid') are supported in this context."}" based on this LinQ code: IBookRepository myIBookRepository = new BookRepository(); var allBooks = myIBookRepository.HamtaAllaBocker(); IBok_ForfattareRepository myIBok_ForfattareRepository = new Bok_ForfattareRepository(); var Book-Authors = myIBok_ForfattareRepository.HamtaAllaBok_ForfattareNummer(); var q = from booknn in allBooks join Book-Authornn in Book-Authors on booknn.BookID equals Book-Authornn.BookID select new { booknn.title, Book-AuthorID }; How shall I solve this problem to get a class instance that contain with property title and Book-AuthorID? // Fullmetalboy I also have tried making some dummy by using "allbooks" relation with Code Samples from the address http://www.hookedonlinq.com/JoinOperator.ashx. Unfortunately, still same problem. I also have taken account to Int32 due to entity framework http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb896317.aspx. Unfortunatley, still same problem. Using database with 3 tables and one of them is a many to many relationship. This database is used in relation with entity framework Book-Author Book-Author (int) BookID (int) Forfattare (int) Book BookID (int) title (string) etc etc etc

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  • Ruby -- looking for some sort of "Regexp unescape" method

    - by RubyNoobie
    I have a bunch of strings that appear to have been double-escaped -- eg, I have "\\014\"\\000\"\\016smoothing\"\\011mean\"\\022color\"\\011zero@\\016" but I want "\014"\000"\016smoothing"\011mean"\022color"\011zero@\016" Is there a method I can use to unescape them? I imagine that I could make a regex to remove 1 backslash from every consecutive n backslashes, but I don't have a lot of regex experience and it seems there ought to be a "more elegant" way to do it. For example, when I puts MyString it displays the output I'd like, but I don't know how I might capture that into a variable. Thanks! Edited to add context: I have this class that is being used to marshal / restore some stuff, but when I restore some old strings it spits out a type error which I've determined is because they weren't -- for some inexplicable reason -- stored as base64. They instead appear to be 'double-escaped', when I need them to be 'single-escaped' to get restored. require 'base64' class MarshaledStuff < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :marshaled_obj def contents obj = self.marshaled_obj return Marshal.restore(Base64.decode64(obj)) end def contents=(newcontents) self.marshaled_obj = Base64.encode64(Marshal.dump(newcontents)) end end

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