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• How to overcome the programmer's block ?

  - by Nicolas Dorier

  How do you do when, during the development of your application, you can't decide yourself what to do next. You have no problem technically speaking, you have no problem to write clean code BUT you have a problem to decide yourself on what to code now. And you spend time thinking and thinking again on your design, in the car, in the shower, and you cannot write a single line of code... I think we call this "analysis paralysis". I hate being in this state ! How can you avoid this ? How do you do to not fall in this state ? I think this occurs when we are writting a big chunk of code with no visible improvement, but I'm not sure... UPDATE Like some of you said, this problem is also what we call the "programmer's block" (analogy with the writer's block). Doing some TDD doesn't help because I'm stuck, I can't decide myself what class to code, what methods to put inside (even a name of method). Though I admit that it helps to break a big chunk of code into smaller ones. Like Talesh said my head becomes full of "what-if".

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• rails not recognizing project

  - by tipu

  I can create a new project using rails and I can use stuff like rails migration ... and i (correctly) get a error because the sqlite gem is missing. but when i try using rails migration ... with a project i checked out from github, it doesn't recognize that it is a rails project i get: Usage: rails new APP_PATH [options] Options: -d, [--database=DATABASE] # Preconfigure for selected database (options: mysql/oracle/postgresql/sqlite3/frontbase/ibm_db) # Default: sqlite3 -O, [--skip-active-record] # Skip Active Record files [--dev] # Setup the application with Gemfile pointing to your Rails checkout -J, [--skip-prototype] # Skip Prototype files -T, [--skip-test-unit] # Skip Test::Unit files -G, [--skip-git] # Skip Git ignores and keeps -b, [--builder=BUILDER] # Path to an application builder (can be a filesystem path or URL) [--edge] # Setup the application with Gemfile pointing to Rails repository -m, [--template=TEMPLATE] # Path to an application template (can be a filesystem path or URL) -r, [--ruby=PATH] # Path to the Ruby binary of your choice # Default: /usr/bin/ruby1.8 [--skip-gemfile] # Don't create a Gemfile and it goes on. any ideas? edit: it's probably an important detail that earlier my rails wasn't working at all. i had to cp /usr/bin/ruby to /usr/bin/local/ruby

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• Strange problem with PHP and sessions

  - by Jhorra

  So the basis of this page is I set a session value when the page loads, and clear it on any other page they visit. Then the page can make an ajax call to download a file. If the session value matches the value I pass through the URL I allow them to download the file. If not I return a 404 error. I was having some weird issues, so I removed the 404 and set it to echo out the values instead to see what I was getting. Here is the top of the code on the page: $code = $this->_request->getParam('code'); $confirm = $_SESSION['mp3_code']; echo $code."-1-".$confirm; if($code != $confirm) echo $code."-2-".$confirm;//header("HTTP/1.1 404 Not Found"); else { Here is what displays on the page from the ajax call 12723430-1-12723430-2- As you can see when it echos out the first time they exist, then somehow after I compare them and it fails you see that it echos out blank values like they suddenly ceased to exist. Any ideas?

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• Codeigniter - accessing variables from an array passed into a page.

  - by Matt

  Hello, I have a controller with an index function as follows: function index() { $this->load->model('products_model'); $data['product'] = $this->products_model->get(3); // 3 = product id $data['product_no'] = 3; $data['main_content'] = 'product_view'; //print_r($data['products']); $this->load->view('includes/template', $data); } This is the get function in the products_model file function get($id) { $results = $this->db->get_where('products', array('id' => $id))->result(); //get the first item $result = $results[0]; return $result; } The products table contains fields such as name, price etc. Please can you tell me how to output variables from $data['product'] after it is passed into the view? I have tried so many things but nothing is working, even though the print_r (commented out) shows the data - it is not being passed into the view. I thought it may have been because the view calls a template file which references the main_content variable: Template file contents: <?php $this->load->view('includes/header'); ?> <?php $this->load->view($main_content); ?> <?php $this->load->view('includes/footer'); ?> but i tried creating a flat view file and still couldn't access the variables. Many thanks,

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• How do I stop js files being cached in IE?

  - by DoctaJonez

  Hello stackers! I've created a page that uses the CKEditor javascript rich edit control. It's a pretty neat control, especially seeing as it's free, but I'm having serious issues with the way it allows you to add templates. To add a template you need to modify the templates js file in the CKEditor templates folder. The documentation page describing it is here. This works fine until I want to update a template or add a new one (or anything else that requires me to modify the js file). Internet Explorer caches the js file and doesn't pick up the update. Emptying the cache allows the update to be picked up, but this isn't an acceptable solution. Whenever I update a template I do not want to tell all of the users across the organisation to empty their IE cache. There must be a better way! Is there a way to stop IE caching the js file? Or is there another solution to this problem?

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• Abstract base class puzzle

  - by 0x80

  In my class design I ran into the following problem: class MyData { int foo; }; class AbstraktA { public: virtual void A() = 0; }; class AbstraktB : public AbstraktA { public: virtual void B() = 0; }; template<class T> class ImplA : public AbstraktA { public: void A(){ cout << "ImplA A()"; } }; class ImplB : public ImplA<MyData>, public AbstraktB { public: void B(){ cout << "ImplB B()"; } }; void TestAbstrakt() { AbstraktB *b = (AbstraktB *) new ImplB; b->A(); b->B(); }; The problem with the code above is that the compiler will complain that AbstraktA::A() is not defined. Interface A is shared by multiple objects. But the implementation of A is dependent on the template argument. Interface B is the seen by the outside world, and needs to be abstrakt. The reason I would like this is that it would allow me to define object C like this: Define the interface C inheriting from abstrakt A. Define the implementation of C using a different datatype for template A. I hope I'm clear. Is there any way to do this, or do I need to rethink my design?

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• Detecting const-ness of nested type

  - by Channel72

  Normally, if I need to detect whether a type is const I just use boost::is_const. However, I ran into trouble when trying to detect the const-ness of a nested type. Consider the following traits template, which is specialized for const types: template <class T> struct traits { typedef T& reference; }; template <class T> struct traits<const T> { typedef T const& reference; }; The problem is that boost::is_const doesn't seem to detect that traits<const T>::reference is a const type. For example: std::cout << std::boolalpha; std::cout << boost::is_const<traits<int>::reference>::value << " "; std::cout << boost::is_const<traits<const int>::reference>::value << std::endl; This outputs: false false Why doesn't it output false true?

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• Memory efficient collection class

  - by Joe

  I'm building an array of dictionaries (called keys) in my iphone application to hold the section names and row counts for a tableview. the code looks like this: [self.results removeAllObjects]; [self.keys removeAllObjects]; NSUInteger i,j = 0; NSString *key = [NSString string]; NSString *prevKey = [NSString string]; if ([self.allResults count] > 0) { prevKey = [NSString stringWithString:[[[self.allResults objectAtIndex:0] valueForKey:@"name"] substringToIndex:1]]; for (NSDictionary *theDict in self.allResults) { key = [NSString stringWithString:[[theDict valueForKey:@"name"] substringToIndex:1]]; if (![key isEqualToString:prevKey]) { NSDictionary *newDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithInt:i],@"count", prevKey,@"section", [NSNumber numberWithInt:j], @"total",nil]; [self.keys addObject:newDictionary]; prevKey = [NSString stringWithString:key]; i = 1; } else { i++; } j++; } NSDictionary *newDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithInt:i],@"count", prevKey,@"section", [NSNumber numberWithInt:j], @"total",nil]; [self.keys addObject:newDictionary]; } [self.tableview reloadData]; The code works fine first time through but I sometimes have to rebuild the entire table so I redo this code which orks fine on the simulator, but on my device the program bombs when I execute the reloadData line : malloc: *** mmap(size=3772944384) failed (error code=12) *** error: can't allocate region *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug malloc: *** mmap(size=3772944384) failed (error code=12) *** error: can't allocate region *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”. If I remove the reloadData line the code works on the device. I'm wondering if this is something to do with the way I've built the keys array (ie using autoreleased strings and dictionaries).

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• Error occurs while validating form input using jQuery in Firebug

  - by Param-Ganak

  I have written a custom validation code in jQuery, which is working fine. I have a login form which has two fields, i.e. userid and password. I have written a custom code for client side validation for these fields. This code is working fine and gives me proper error messages as per the situation. But the problem with this code is that when I enter the invalid data in any or both field and press submit button of form then it displays the proper error message but at the same time when I checked it in Firebug it displays following error message when submit button of the form is clicked validate is not defined function onclick(event) { javascript: return validate(); } (click clientX=473, clientY=273) Here is the JQUERY validation code $(document).ready(function (){ $("#id_login_form").validate({ rules: { userid: { required: true, minlength: 6, maxlength: 20, // basic: true }, password: { required: true, minlength: 6, maxlength: 15, // basic: true } }, messages: { userid: { required: " Please enter the username.", minlength: "User Name should be minimum 6 characters long.", maxlength: "User Name should be maximum 15 characters long.", // basic: "working here" }, password: { required: " Please enter the password.", minlength: "Password should be minimum 6 characters long.", maxlength: "Password should be maximum 15 characters long.", // basic: "working here too.", } }, errorClass: "errortext", errorLabelContainer: "#messagebox" } }); }); /* $.validator.addMethod('username_alphanum', function (value) { return /^(?![0-9]+$)[a-zA-Z 0-9_.]+$/.test(value); }, 'User name should be alphabetic or Alphanumeric and may contain . and _.'); $.validator.addMethod('alphanum', function (value) { return /^(?![a-zA-Z]+$)(?![0-9]+$)[a-zA-Z 0-9]+$/.test(value); }, 'Password should be Alphanumeric.'); $.validator.addMethod('basic', function (value) { return /^[a-zA-Z 0-9_.]+$/.test(value); }, 'working working working'); */ So please tell me where is I am wrong in my jQuery code. Thank You!

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• Loading Dimension Tables - Methodologies

  - by Nev_Rahd

  Hello, Recently I been working on project, where need to populated Dim Tables from EDW Tables. EDW Tables are of type II which does maintain historical data. When comes to load Dim Table, for which source may be multiple EDW Tables or would be single table with multi level pivoting (on attributes). Mean: There would be 10 records - one for each attribute which need to be pivoted on domain_code to make a single row in Dim. Out of these 10 records there would be some attributes with same domain_code but with different sub_domain_code, which needs further pivoting on subdomain code. Ex: if i got domain code: 01,02, 03 = which are straight pivot on domain code I would also have domain code: 10 with subdomain code / version as 2006,2007,2008,2009 That means I need to split my source table with above attributes into two = one for domain code and other for domain_code + version. so far so good. When it comes to load Dim Table: As per design specs for Dimensions (originally written by third party), what they want is: for every single change in EDW (attribute), it should assemble all the related records (for that NK) mean new one with other attribute values which are current = process them to create a new dim record and insert it. That mean if a single extract contains 100 records updated (one for each NK), it should assemble 100 + (100*9) records to insert / update dim table. How good is this approach. Other way I tried to do is just do a lookup into dim table for that NK get the value's of recent records (attributes which not changed) and insert it and update the current one. What would be the better approach assembling records at source side for one attribute change or looking into dim table's recent record and process it. If this doesn't make sense, would like to elaborate it further. Thanks

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• ASP.Net MVC DotNetOpenAuth Sample Issue on publish

  - by Roger D. Pharr

  I'm trying to use the MSDN Open ID project template for ASP.NET MVC C#. I've been able to configure a local copy to run well. But when I publish it to my hosting provider - it craps out. The error is "500 internal server error". Is there something I should know about publishing this template that I haven't noticed? Here are some more details (for diligence): Hosting provider is GoDaddy/SQL2005/IIS7. When I configure & publish the blank MVC template, it works. The local database publishes successfully, but I haven't been able to troubleshoot the connection in web.config yet. I expect there are connection string problems in the file. I tried disabling all of the references to log4net, as it seemed to be invoked several times on startup. But those changes did not seem to make a difference in either the local or published application performance. My IDE is Visual Studio 2010 Pro Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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• Tab bar application with UINavigation Controller MOC not being retained.

  - by iamsmug

  I created a tab bar application from the template and added a navigation controller to one of the tabs. I have already created this app from the navigation app template already and is working. The reason I am doing it this way is because I need to add a tab bar and thought it would be easier starting by using the tab bar project template and adding the nav controller to it rather than the other way round. I have copied the data model over from the other project and added the relevant code to where it should be. The problem I am having is passing the moc from the app delegate to the tab with the nav controller on. Here is a snippet from my applicationDidFinishLaunching method in my app delegate: - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { [self createEditableCopyOfDatabaseIfNeeded]; Top_BananaTableViewController *top_BananaTableViewController = (Top_BananaTableViewController *)[navigationController topViewController]; top_BananaTableViewController.managedObjectContext = self.managedObjectContext; // Add the tab bar controller's current view as a subview of the window [window addSubview:tabBarController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } Everything seems fine here but when it comes to the fetchedResultsController on my nav controller view it bombs out with: '+entityForName: could not locate an NSManagedObjectModel for entity name 'cards'' When I checked what was set to my managedObjectContext on that view it was null. I don't know why or where it is loosing it's setting. Please help.

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• ADO.NET DataTable/DataRow Thread Safety

  - by Allen E. Scharfenberg

  Introduction A user reported to me this morning that he was having an issue with inconsistent results (namely, column values sometimes coming out null when they should not be) of some parallel execution code that we provide as part of an internal framework. This code has worked fine in the past and has not been tampered with lately, but it got me to thinking about the following snippet: Code Sample lock (ResultTable) { newRow = ResultTable.NewRow(); } newRow["Key"] = currentKey; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, object> output in outputs) { object resultValue = output.Value; newRow[output.Name] = resultValue != null ? resultValue : DBNull.Value; } lock (ResultTable) { ResultTable.Rows.Add(newRow); } (No guarantees that that compiles, hand-edited to mask proprietery information.) Explanation We have this cascading type of locking code other places in our system, and it works fine, but this is the first instance of cascading locking code that I have come across that interacts with ADO .NET. As we all know, members of framework objects are usually not thread safe (which is the case in this situation), but the cascading locking should ensure that we are not reading and writing to ResultTable.Rows concurrently. We are safe, right? Hypothesis Well, the cascading lock code does not ensure that we are not reading from or writing to ResultTable.Rows at the same time that we are assigning values to columns in the new row. What if ADO .NET uses some kind of buffer for assigning column values that is not thread safe--even when different object types are involved (DataTable vs. DataRow)? Has anyone run into anything like this before? I thought I would ask here at StackOverflow before beating my head against this for hours on end :) Conclusion Well, the consensus appears to be that changing the cascading lock to a full lock has resolved the issue. That is not the result that I expected, but the full lock version has not produced the issue after many, many, many tests. The lesson: be wary of cascading locks used on APIs that you do not control. Who knows what may be going on under the covers!

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• getSharedPreferences not working for me with concerns to ListPreferences and Integers

  - by ideagent

  I'm stuck at a point where I'm trying to get my project to read a preference value (from a ListPreference listing) and then use that value in a basic mathematical subtraction instance. The problem is that the "seek" preference is not being seen by my Java code, and yet the default value is (I've tried the default value with 3000 and now 0). Am i missing something, is there a bug here, known or unknown? Java code chunk where the issues manifests itself: public static final String PREF_FILE_NAME = "preferences"; seekback.setOnClickListener(new Button.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View view) { try { SharedPreferences preferences = getSharedPreferences(PREF_FILE_NAME, MODE_PRIVATE); Integer storedPreference = preferences.getInt("seek", 0); (mediaPlayer.getCurrentPosition()-storedPreference); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } }); Here are some other code bits for my project: From preferences file: <ListPreference android:entries="@array/seconds" android:entryValues="@array/seconds_values" android:summary="sets the seek interval for the seekback and seekforward buttons" android:title="Seek Interval" android:defaultValue="5000" android:key="@string/seek" From strings file: seek From an array file: Five seconds Fifteen seconds Thirty seconds Sixty seconds 5000 15000 30000 60000 let me know if you need to see more code to figure this one out Thanks in advance for any help that can be offered. I've worked over this issue now for a few hours and I'm burnt, a second pair of eyes on it would be very much appreciated. Arg, not sure how to get the code and plain text to format nicely here, even tried the options, like Code Sample, no luck AndroidCoder

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• Controlling the alpha of a UIImageView with Slider ..Can' t get it

  - by user1824839

  first i' d like to say this Forum was really helpfull for me that just started coding some weeks ago .. I succeed to do a quite nice app for the moment , than, but i m stuck on this : HOW COULD I CONTROL THE ALPHA OF A UIIMAGEVIEW , WITH A SLIDER EMBEDED IN ANOTHER VIEW ??? ; Basically i' like to do like the alpha slider of this : http://www.edumobile.org/iphone/how-to-make-an-app-2/controlling-a-uiviews-properties-for-ipad/ , but for a UIImageView. I promised i searched for hours , and didnt find how to do it ... Could someone have some minutes to give me ideas ?? Sorry for my poor english too. Thanks if you can. L. The resume of the link i posted, only focussing on the alpha property would be : ( considering a UIView ( View ) embeded in a ViewController ( ViewController ): enter code here ----View.h----- @interface View : UIView @property ( nonatomic, assign ) CGFloat alpha; @end enter code here ----View.m---- @implementation View @synthesize alpha; ?} @end enter code here ------ViewController.h----- import "View.h" @interface ViewController : UIViewController @property (nonatomic, strong) IBOutlet View *view; ?- (IBAction)alphaChanged:(UISlider *)sender; @end enter code here -------ViewController.m------ @interface ViewController () @end @implementation ViewController @synthesize view; (View *)view {?     if (!view) {?        view = [[View alloc] init];?    }?    return view;?} enter code here (IBAction)redChanged:(UISlider *)sender? {?    self.circle.alpha = sender.value;?    [self.circle setNeedsDisplay];?} (void)viewDidLoad ?{?    [super viewDidLoad];?         ?    self.circle.alpha = (CGFloat)1;?} (void)didReceiveMemoryWarning? {?  [super didReceiveMemoryWarning];?    @end enter code here

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• Efficiency of manually written loops vs operator overloads (C++)

  - by Sagekilla

  Hi all, in the program I'm working on I have 3-element arrays, which I use as mathematical vectors for all intents and purposes. Through the course of writing my code, I was tempted to just roll my own Vector class with simple +, -, *, /, etc overloads so I can simplify statements like: for (int i = 0; i < 3; i++) r[i] = r1[i] - r2[i]; // becomes: r = r1 - r2; Which should be more or less identical in generated code. But when it comes to more complicated things, could this really impact my performance heavily? One example that I have in my code is this: Manually written version: for (int j = 0; j < 3; j++) { p.vel[j] = p.oldVel[j] + (p.oldAcc[j] + p.acc[j]) * dt2 + (p.oldJerk[j] - p.jerk[j]) * dt12; p.pos[j] = p.oldPos[j] + (p.oldVel[j] + p.vel[j]) * dt2 + (p.oldAcc[j] - p.acc[j]) * dt12; } Using a Vector class with operator overloads: p.vel = p.oldVel + (p.oldAcc + p.acc) * dt2 + (p.oldJerk - p.jerk) * dt12; p.pos = p.oldPos + (p.oldVel + p.vel) * dt2 + (p.oldAcc - p.acc) * dt12; I am compiling my code for maximum possible speed, as it's extremely important that this code runs quickly and calculates accurately. So will me relying on my Vector's for these sorts of things really affect me? For those curious, this is part of some numerical integration code which is not trivial to run in my program. Any insight would be appreciated, as would any idioms or tricks I'm unaware of.

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• C++ using typedefs in non-inline functions

  - by ArunSaha

  I have a class like this template< typename T > class vector { public: typedef T & reference; typedef T const & const_reference; typedef size_t size_type; const_reference at( size_t ) const; reference at( size_t ); and later in the same file template< typename T > typename vector<T>::const_reference // Line X vector<T>::at( size_type i ) const { rangecheck(); return elems_[ i ]; } template< typename T > reference // Line Y vector<T>::at( size_type i ) { rangecheck(); return elems_[ i ]; } Line X compiles fine but Line Y does not compile. The error message from g++ (version 4.4.1) is: foo.h:Y: error: expected initializer before 'vector' From this I gather that, if I want to have non-inline functions then I have to fully qualify the typedef name as in Line X. (Note that, there is no problem for size_type.) However, at least to me, Line X looks clumsy. Is there any alternative approach?

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• How to Implement an Interface that Requires Duplicate Member Names?

  - by Will Marcouiller

  I often have to implement some interfaces such as IEnumerable<T> in my code. Each time, when implementing automatically, I encounter the following: public IEnumerator<T> GetEnumerator() { // Code here... } public IEnumerator GetEnumerator1() { // Code here... } Though I have to implement both GetEnumerator() methods, they impossibly can have the same name, even if we understand that they do the same, somehow. The compiler can't treat them as one being the overload of the other, because only the return type differs. When doing so, I manage to set the GetEnumerator1() accessor to private. This way, the compiler doesn't complaint about not implementing the interface member, and I simply throw a NotImplementedException within the method's body. However, I wonder whether it is a good practice, or if I shall proceed differently, as perhaps a method alias or something like so. What is the best approach while implementing an interface such as IEnumerable<T> that requires the implementation of two different methods with the same name? EDIT #1 Does VB.NET reacts differently from C# while implementing interfaces, since in VB.NET it is explicitly implemented, thus forcing the GetEnumerator1(). Here's the code: Public Function GetEnumerator() As System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerator(Of T) Implements System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable(Of T).GetEnumerator // Code here... End Function Public Function GetEnumerator1() As System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerator Implements System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable.GetEnumerator // Code here... End Function Both GetEnumerator() methods are explicitly implemented, and the compile will refuse them to have the same name. Why?

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• clang does not compile but g++ does

  - by user1095108

  Can someone help me with this code: #include <type_traits> #include <vector> struct nonsense { }; template <struct nonsense const* ptr, typename R> typename std::enable_if<!std::is_void<R>::value, int>::type fo(void* const) { return 0; } template <struct nonsense const* ptr, typename R> typename std::enable_if<std::is_void<R>::value, int>::type fo(void* const) { return 1; } typedef int (*func_type)(void*); template <std::size_t O> void run_me() { static struct nonsense data; typedef std::pair<char const* const, func_type> pair_type; std::vector<pair_type> v; v.push_back(pair_type{ "a", fo<&data, int> }); v.push_back(pair_type{ "b", fo<&data, void> }); } int main(int, char*[]) { run_me<2>(); return 0; } clang-3.3 does not compile this code, but g++-4.8.1 does, which of the two compiler is right? Is something wrong with the code, as I suspect? The error reads: a.cpp:32:15: error: no matching constructor for initialization of 'pair_type' (aka 'pair<const char *const, func_type>') v.push_back(pair_type{ "a", fo<&data, int> }); ^ ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ a.cpp:33:15: error: no matching constructor for initialization of 'pair_type' (aka 'pair<const char *const, func_type>') v.push_back(pair_type{ "b", fo<&data, void> }); ^ ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

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• WPF: Binding an integer to a TextBlock with TemplateBinding

  - by haagel

  I have a custom control in WPF. In this I have a DependencyProperty of the type integer. In the template for the custom control I have a TextBlock, I and would like to show the value of the integer in the TextBlock. But I can't get it to work. I'm using TemplateBinding. If I use the same code but change the type of the DependencyProperty to string it works fine. But I really want it to be an integer for the rest of my application to work. How can I do this? I've written simplified code that shows the problem. First the custom control: public class MyCustomControl : Control { static MyCustomControl() { DefaultStyleKeyProperty.OverrideMetadata(typeof(MyCustomControl), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(typeof(MyCustomControl))); MyIntegerProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("MyInteger", typeof(int), typeof(MyCustomControl), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(0)); } public int MyInteger { get { return (int)GetValue(MyCustomControl.MyIntegerProperty); } set { SetValue(MyCustomControl.MyIntegerProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty MyIntegerProperty; } And this is my default template: <Style TargetType="{x:Type local:MyCustomControl}"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type local:MyCustomControl}"> <Border BorderThickness="1" CornerRadius="4" BorderBrush="Black" Background="Azure"> <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical"> <TextBlock Text="{TemplateBinding MyInteger}" HorizontalAlignment="Center" /> </StackPanel> </Border> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> What am I doing wrong? Thanks // David

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• writing a meta refresh method for rails

  - by aaronstacy

  I want a method in app/controllers/application.rb that can prepend/append text to whatever template gets rendered. Of course I can't call render twice w/o getting a double render error, so is this possible? I want to redirect after a delay using a meta refresh. Here's what I've got: app/controllers/application_controller.rb: def redirect_after_delay (url, delay) @redirect_delay = delay @redirect_url = url render end app/views/layouts/application.html.erb <!DOCTYPE html> <html lang="en"> <head> <%= yield :refresh_tag %> </head> <body> <%= yield %> </body> </html> So then if I want to add a redirect-after-delay, I add the following to 1) my controller and 2) the action's view: app/controllers/my_controller.rb def my_action redirect_after_delay 'http://www.google.com', 3 if some_condition end app/views/my_controller/my_action.html.erb <% content_for :refresh_tag do %> <meta http-equiv='refresh' content='<%=@redirect_delay%>;url=<%=@redirect_url%>'> <% end %> <h1>Please wait while you are redirected...</h1> Since the content_for block never changes, is it possible to do this in some generic way so that I don't have to put <%= yield :refresh_tag %> in each template? (e.g. could redirect_after_delay add it into whatever template is going to be rendered?)

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• Gridview looses ItemTemplate after columns are removed

  - by Middletone

  I'm trying to bind a datatable to a gridview where I've removed some of the autogenerated columns in the code behind. I've got two template columns and it seems that when I alter the gridview in code behind and remove the non-templated columns that the templates loose the controls that are in them. Using the following as a sample, "Header A" will continue to be visible but "Header B" will dissapear after removing any columsn that are located at index 2 and above. I'm creating columns in my codebehind for the grid as a part of a reporting tool. If I don't remove the columns then there doesn't seem to be an issue. <asp:GridView ID="DataGrid1" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false" AllowPaging="True" PageSize="10" GridLines="Horizontal"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Header A" > <ItemTemplate > Text A </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:TemplateField> <HeaderTemplate> Header B </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> Text B </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> For i = 2 To DataGrid1.Columns.Count - 1 DataGrid1.Columns.RemoveAt(2) Next EDIT So from what I've read this seems to be a problem that occurs when the grid is altered. Does anyone know of a good workaround to re-initialize the template columns or set them up again so that when the non-template columns are removed that hte templates don't get removed as well?

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• Open closed prinicple, problem

  - by Marcus

  Hi, I'm trying to apply OCP to a code snippet I have that in it's current state is really smelly, but I feel I'm not getting all the way to the end. Current code: public abstract class SomeObject {} public class SpecificObject1 : SomeObject {} public class SpecificObject2 : SomeObject {} // Smelly code public class Model { public void Store(SomeObject someObject) { if (someObject is SpecificObject1) {} else if (someObject is SpecificObject2) {} } } That is really ugly, my new approach looks like this: // No so smelly code public class Model { public void Store(SomeObject someObject) { throw new Expception("Not allowed!"); } public void Store(SpecificObject1 someObject) {} public void Store(SpecificObject2 someObject) {} } When a new SomeObject type comes along I must implement how that specific object is stored, this will break OCP cause I need to alter the Model-class. To move the store logic to SomeObject also feels wrong cause then I will violate SRP (?), becuase in this case the SomeObject is almost like a DTO, it's resposibility it not how to know to store itself. If a new implementation to SomeObject comes along who's store implementation is missing I will get a runtime error due to exception in Store method in Model class, it also feels like a code smell. This is because calling code will in the form of IEnumerable<SomeObject> sequence; I will not know the specific types of the sequence objects. I can't seem to grasp the OCP-concept. Anyone has any concrete examples or links that is a bit more than just some Car/Fruit example?

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• "Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoSuchMethodError Do i miss library in the installed JDk?

  - by Ahmad

  Hello every body I was using the JDK very well writing the code then i use "javac" to compile it then "java" to run it But Recently when i write a code and compile it then if i try to run it this exception appears to me "Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoSuchMethodError " at first i thought there is something wrong in my code , i searched in the internet for a solving for this problem but i didn't find anything may help me Then i try to run the "HelloWorld" example i made it before, it runs i copied the code and pasted it in another file and changed the name to "HelloWorld2" and compile it by "javac" and tried to run it by "java" the same exception appears i was surprised why? it is the same code then i used the "javap" which decompile the code with both i found this difference in the first one (the old one) "public static void main(java.lang.String[])"; but in the second (the new one) "public static void main(String[])"; without java.lang then i compiled the old one which works and runs by "javac" and when i try to run it, it didn't run and give me the same exception i tried with some of my old codes it run and when i compile it by "javac" it doesn't work I searched to find a solution to this problem and i found nothing

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• stripping random number with substr problem

  - by Jim

  Using a random number to be included with another character. Then I want to strip out the random number and just leave the other character. I have this code that generates the random number (8 characters long) consistently. If you hit your refresh button multiple times, the “ID” field disappears even though the “Random Number” plus “ID” are still there. Not sure what is happening to the random number on refresh in the substr function. This is the code: // Begin Create Random ID Code ///////////////////////////////////////// function gRanStr1() { $length1 = 8; $characters = “0123456789abcdefghijklmnopqrstuvwxyzABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ”; for ($p = 0; $p < $length1; $p++) { $lcrs1 .= $characters[mt_rand(0, strlen($characters)-1)]; } $lcrs9 = str_replace(' ', '', $lcrs9); return $lcrs1; } // End Create Random ID Code ///////////////////////////////////////// // Begin Decode Random ID Code ///////////////////////////////////////// $TrkR99 = "c"; $ResHeadID = gRanStr1() . $TrkR99; $ResHeadID = preg_replace('/[\s]+/',' ',$ResHeadID); echo "”; echo $ResHeadID . ” = echo of Random Number plus ID“; for($i=0; $i if ($ResHeadID == "") { ""; } else { $ResHeadID = preg_replace('/[\s]+/',' ',$ResHeadID); $TrkRa1 = substr($ResHeadID, $Index1 + 8, 1); } $dTrkRes = $TrkRa1; echo $TrkRa1 . " = echo of ID after random number stripped.“; echo “”; // End Decode Random ID Code /////////////////////////////////////////

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