Search Results

Search found 92113 results on 3685 pages for 'code template'.

Page 531/3685 | < Previous Page | 527 528 529 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538  | Next Page >

  • Abstract base class puzzle

    - by 0x80
    In my class design I ran into the following problem: class MyData { int foo; }; class AbstraktA { public: virtual void A() = 0; }; class AbstraktB : public AbstraktA { public: virtual void B() = 0; }; template<class T> class ImplA : public AbstraktA { public: void A(){ cout << "ImplA A()"; } }; class ImplB : public ImplA<MyData>, public AbstraktB { public: void B(){ cout << "ImplB B()"; } }; void TestAbstrakt() { AbstraktB *b = (AbstraktB *) new ImplB; b->A(); b->B(); }; The problem with the code above is that the compiler will complain that AbstraktA::A() is not defined. Interface A is shared by multiple objects. But the implementation of A is dependent on the template argument. Interface B is the seen by the outside world, and needs to be abstrakt. The reason I would like this is that it would allow me to define object C like this: Define the interface C inheriting from abstrakt A. Define the implementation of C using a different datatype for template A. I hope I'm clear. Is there any way to do this, or do I need to rethink my design?

    Read the article

  • Render multiple Form instances

    - by vorpyg
    I have a simple application where users are supposed to bet on outcome of a match. A match consists of two teams, a result and a stake. Matches with teams are created in the Django admin, and participants are to fill in result and stake. The form must be generated dynamically, based on the matches in the database. My idea is to have one (Django) Form instance for each match and pass these instances to the template. It works fine when I do it from django shell, but the instances aren't rendered when I load my view. The form looks like this: class SuggestionForm(forms.Form): def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): try: match = kwargs.pop('match') except KeyError: pass super(SuggestionForm, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) label = match self.fields['result'] = forms.ChoiceField(label=label, required=True, choices=CHOICES, widget=forms.RadioSelect()) self.fields['stake'] = forms.IntegerField(label='', required=True, max_value=50, min_value=10, initial=10) My (preliminary) view looks like this: def suggestion_form(request): matches = Match.objects.all() form_collection = {} for match in matches: f = SuggestionForm(request.POST or None, match=match) form_collection['match_%s' % match.id] = f return render_to_response('app/suggestion_form.html', { 'forms': form_collection, }, context_instance = RequestContext(request) ) My initial thought was that I could pass the form_collection to the template and the loop throught the collection like this, but id does not work: {% for form in forms %} {% for field in form %} {{ field }} {% endfor %} {% endfor %} (The output is actually the dict keys with added spaces in between each letter - I've no idea why…) It works if I only pass one Form instance to the template and only runs the inner loop. Suggestions are greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How do I stop js files being cached in IE?

    - by DoctaJonez
    Hello stackers! I've created a page that uses the CKEditor javascript rich edit control. It's a pretty neat control, especially seeing as it's free, but I'm having serious issues with the way it allows you to add templates. To add a template you need to modify the templates js file in the CKEditor templates folder. The documentation page describing it is here. This works fine until I want to update a template or add a new one (or anything else that requires me to modify the js file). Internet Explorer caches the js file and doesn't pick up the update. Emptying the cache allows the update to be picked up, but this isn't an acceptable solution. Whenever I update a template I do not want to tell all of the users across the organisation to empty their IE cache. There must be a better way! Is there a way to stop IE caching the js file? Or is there another solution to this problem?

    Read the article

  • Memory efficient collection class

    - by Joe
    I'm building an array of dictionaries (called keys) in my iphone application to hold the section names and row counts for a tableview. the code looks like this: [self.results removeAllObjects]; [self.keys removeAllObjects]; NSUInteger i,j = 0; NSString *key = [NSString string]; NSString *prevKey = [NSString string]; if ([self.allResults count] > 0) { prevKey = [NSString stringWithString:[[[self.allResults objectAtIndex:0] valueForKey:@"name"] substringToIndex:1]]; for (NSDictionary *theDict in self.allResults) { key = [NSString stringWithString:[[theDict valueForKey:@"name"] substringToIndex:1]]; if (![key isEqualToString:prevKey]) { NSDictionary *newDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithInt:i],@"count", prevKey,@"section", [NSNumber numberWithInt:j], @"total",nil]; [self.keys addObject:newDictionary]; prevKey = [NSString stringWithString:key]; i = 1; } else { i++; } j++; } NSDictionary *newDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithInt:i],@"count", prevKey,@"section", [NSNumber numberWithInt:j], @"total",nil]; [self.keys addObject:newDictionary]; } [self.tableview reloadData]; The code works fine first time through but I sometimes have to rebuild the entire table so I redo this code which orks fine on the simulator, but on my device the program bombs when I execute the reloadData line : malloc: *** mmap(size=3772944384) failed (error code=12) *** error: can't allocate region *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug malloc: *** mmap(size=3772944384) failed (error code=12) *** error: can't allocate region *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”. If I remove the reloadData line the code works on the device. I'm wondering if this is something to do with the way I've built the keys array (ie using autoreleased strings and dictionaries).

    Read the article

  • Why does GCC need extra declarations in templates when VS does not?

    - by Kyle
    template<typename T> class Base { protected: Base() {} T& get() { return t; } T t; }; template<typename T> class Derived : public Base<T> { public: Base<T>::get; // Line A Base<T>::t; // Line B void foo() { t = 4; get(); } }; int main() { return 0; } If I comment out lines A and B, this code compiles fine under Visual Studio 2008. Yet when I compile under GCC 4.1 with lines A and B commented, I get these errors: In member function ‘void TemplateDerived::foo()’: error: ‘t’ was not declared in this scope error: there are no arguments to ‘get’ that depend on a template parameter, so a declaration of ‘get’ must be available Why would one compiler require lines A and B while the other doesn't? Is there a way to simplify this? In other words, if derived classes use 20 things from the base class, I have to put 20 lines of declarations for every class deriving from Base! Is there a way around this that doesn't require so many declarations?

    Read the article

  • Group panel of WPF ListBox

    - by rulestein
    I have a listbox that is grouping the items with a GroupStyle. I would like add a control at the bottom of the stackpanel that holds all of the groups. This additional control needs to be part of the scrolling content so that the user would scroll to the bottom of the list to see the control. If I were using a listbox without the groups, this task would be easy by modifying the ListBox template. However, with the items grouped, the ListBox template seems to only apply on a per group basis. I can modify the GroupStyle.Panel, but that doesn't allow me to add items to that panel. <ListBox> <ListBox.ItemsPanel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <WrapPanel/> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </ListBox.ItemsPanel> <ListBox.GroupStyle> <GroupStyle> <GroupStyle.Panel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <VirtualizingStackPanel/> **<----- I would like to add a control to this stackpanel** </ItemsPanelTemplate> </GroupStyle.Panel> <GroupStyle.ContainerStyle> <Style TargetType="{x:Type GroupItem}"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type GroupItem}"> <Grid> <ItemsPresenter /> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> </GroupStyle.ContainerStyle> </GroupStyle> </ListBox.GroupStyle> This should give an idea of what I need to do:

    Read the article

  • Tab bar application with UINavigation Controller MOC not being retained.

    - by iamsmug
    I created a tab bar application from the template and added a navigation controller to one of the tabs. I have already created this app from the navigation app template already and is working. The reason I am doing it this way is because I need to add a tab bar and thought it would be easier starting by using the tab bar project template and adding the nav controller to it rather than the other way round. I have copied the data model over from the other project and added the relevant code to where it should be. The problem I am having is passing the moc from the app delegate to the tab with the nav controller on. Here is a snippet from my applicationDidFinishLaunching method in my app delegate: - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { [self createEditableCopyOfDatabaseIfNeeded]; Top_BananaTableViewController *top_BananaTableViewController = (Top_BananaTableViewController *)[navigationController topViewController]; top_BananaTableViewController.managedObjectContext = self.managedObjectContext; // Add the tab bar controller's current view as a subview of the window [window addSubview:tabBarController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } Everything seems fine here but when it comes to the fetchedResultsController on my nav controller view it bombs out with: '+entityForName: could not locate an NSManagedObjectModel for entity name 'cards'' When I checked what was set to my managedObjectContext on that view it was null. I don't know why or where it is loosing it's setting. Please help.

    Read the article

  • Detecting const-ness of nested type

    - by Channel72
    Normally, if I need to detect whether a type is const I just use boost::is_const. However, I ran into trouble when trying to detect the const-ness of a nested type. Consider the following traits template, which is specialized for const types: template <class T> struct traits { typedef T& reference; }; template <class T> struct traits<const T> { typedef T const& reference; }; The problem is that boost::is_const doesn't seem to detect that traits<const T>::reference is a const type. For example: std::cout << std::boolalpha; std::cout << boost::is_const<traits<int>::reference>::value << " "; std::cout << boost::is_const<traits<const int>::reference>::value << std::endl; This outputs: false false Why doesn't it output false true?

    Read the article

  • ADO.NET DataTable/DataRow Thread Safety

    - by Allen E. Scharfenberg
    Introduction A user reported to me this morning that he was having an issue with inconsistent results (namely, column values sometimes coming out null when they should not be) of some parallel execution code that we provide as part of an internal framework. This code has worked fine in the past and has not been tampered with lately, but it got me to thinking about the following snippet: Code Sample lock (ResultTable) { newRow = ResultTable.NewRow(); } newRow["Key"] = currentKey; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, object> output in outputs) { object resultValue = output.Value; newRow[output.Name] = resultValue != null ? resultValue : DBNull.Value; } lock (ResultTable) { ResultTable.Rows.Add(newRow); } (No guarantees that that compiles, hand-edited to mask proprietery information.) Explanation We have this cascading type of locking code other places in our system, and it works fine, but this is the first instance of cascading locking code that I have come across that interacts with ADO .NET. As we all know, members of framework objects are usually not thread safe (which is the case in this situation), but the cascading locking should ensure that we are not reading and writing to ResultTable.Rows concurrently. We are safe, right? Hypothesis Well, the cascading lock code does not ensure that we are not reading from or writing to ResultTable.Rows at the same time that we are assigning values to columns in the new row. What if ADO .NET uses some kind of buffer for assigning column values that is not thread safe--even when different object types are involved (DataTable vs. DataRow)? Has anyone run into anything like this before? I thought I would ask here at StackOverflow before beating my head against this for hours on end :) Conclusion Well, the consensus appears to be that changing the cascading lock to a full lock has resolved the issue. That is not the result that I expected, but the full lock version has not produced the issue after many, many, many tests. The lesson: be wary of cascading locks used on APIs that you do not control. Who knows what may be going on under the covers!

    Read the article

  • getSharedPreferences not working for me with concerns to ListPreferences and Integers

    - by ideagent
    I'm stuck at a point where I'm trying to get my project to read a preference value (from a ListPreference listing) and then use that value in a basic mathematical subtraction instance. The problem is that the "seek" preference is not being seen by my Java code, and yet the default value is (I've tried the default value with 3000 and now 0). Am i missing something, is there a bug here, known or unknown? Java code chunk where the issues manifests itself: public static final String PREF_FILE_NAME = "preferences"; seekback.setOnClickListener(new Button.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View view) { try { SharedPreferences preferences = getSharedPreferences(PREF_FILE_NAME, MODE_PRIVATE); Integer storedPreference = preferences.getInt("seek", 0); (mediaPlayer.getCurrentPosition()-storedPreference); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } }); Here are some other code bits for my project: From preferences file: <ListPreference android:entries="@array/seconds" android:entryValues="@array/seconds_values" android:summary="sets the seek interval for the seekback and seekforward buttons" android:title="Seek Interval" android:defaultValue="5000" android:key="@string/seek" From strings file: seek From an array file: Five seconds Fifteen seconds Thirty seconds Sixty seconds 5000 15000 30000 60000 let me know if you need to see more code to figure this one out Thanks in advance for any help that can be offered. I've worked over this issue now for a few hours and I'm burnt, a second pair of eyes on it would be very much appreciated. Arg, not sure how to get the code and plain text to format nicely here, even tried the options, like Code Sample, no luck AndroidCoder

    Read the article

  • rails not recognizing project

    - by tipu
    I can create a new project using rails and I can use stuff like rails migration ... and i (correctly) get a error because the sqlite gem is missing. but when i try using rails migration ... with a project i checked out from github, it doesn't recognize that it is a rails project i get: Usage: rails new APP_PATH [options] Options: -d, [--database=DATABASE] # Preconfigure for selected database (options: mysql/oracle/postgresql/sqlite3/frontbase/ibm_db) # Default: sqlite3 -O, [--skip-active-record] # Skip Active Record files [--dev] # Setup the application with Gemfile pointing to your Rails checkout -J, [--skip-prototype] # Skip Prototype files -T, [--skip-test-unit] # Skip Test::Unit files -G, [--skip-git] # Skip Git ignores and keeps -b, [--builder=BUILDER] # Path to an application builder (can be a filesystem path or URL) [--edge] # Setup the application with Gemfile pointing to Rails repository -m, [--template=TEMPLATE] # Path to an application template (can be a filesystem path or URL) -r, [--ruby=PATH] # Path to the Ruby binary of your choice # Default: /usr/bin/ruby1.8 [--skip-gemfile] # Don't create a Gemfile and it goes on. any ideas? edit: it's probably an important detail that earlier my rails wasn't working at all. i had to cp /usr/bin/ruby to /usr/bin/local/ruby

    Read the article

  • WPF: Binding an integer to a TextBlock with TemplateBinding

    - by haagel
    I have a custom control in WPF. In this I have a DependencyProperty of the type integer. In the template for the custom control I have a TextBlock, I and would like to show the value of the integer in the TextBlock. But I can't get it to work. I'm using TemplateBinding. If I use the same code but change the type of the DependencyProperty to string it works fine. But I really want it to be an integer for the rest of my application to work. How can I do this? I've written simplified code that shows the problem. First the custom control: public class MyCustomControl : Control { static MyCustomControl() { DefaultStyleKeyProperty.OverrideMetadata(typeof(MyCustomControl), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(typeof(MyCustomControl))); MyIntegerProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("MyInteger", typeof(int), typeof(MyCustomControl), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(0)); } public int MyInteger { get { return (int)GetValue(MyCustomControl.MyIntegerProperty); } set { SetValue(MyCustomControl.MyIntegerProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty MyIntegerProperty; } And this is my default template: <Style TargetType="{x:Type local:MyCustomControl}"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type local:MyCustomControl}"> <Border BorderThickness="1" CornerRadius="4" BorderBrush="Black" Background="Azure"> <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical"> <TextBlock Text="{TemplateBinding MyInteger}" HorizontalAlignment="Center" /> </StackPanel> </Border> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> What am I doing wrong? Thanks // David

    Read the article

  • C++ using typedefs in non-inline functions

    - by ArunSaha
    I have a class like this template< typename T > class vector { public: typedef T & reference; typedef T const & const_reference; typedef size_t size_type; const_reference at( size_t ) const; reference at( size_t ); and later in the same file template< typename T > typename vector<T>::const_reference // Line X vector<T>::at( size_type i ) const { rangecheck(); return elems_[ i ]; } template< typename T > reference // Line Y vector<T>::at( size_type i ) { rangecheck(); return elems_[ i ]; } Line X compiles fine but Line Y does not compile. The error message from g++ (version 4.4.1) is: foo.h:Y: error: expected initializer before 'vector' From this I gather that, if I want to have non-inline functions then I have to fully qualify the typedef name as in Line X. (Note that, there is no problem for size_type.) However, at least to me, Line X looks clumsy. Is there any alternative approach?

    Read the article

  • Gridview looses ItemTemplate after columns are removed

    - by Middletone
    I'm trying to bind a datatable to a gridview where I've removed some of the autogenerated columns in the code behind. I've got two template columns and it seems that when I alter the gridview in code behind and remove the non-templated columns that the templates loose the controls that are in them. Using the following as a sample, "Header A" will continue to be visible but "Header B" will dissapear after removing any columsn that are located at index 2 and above. I'm creating columns in my codebehind for the grid as a part of a reporting tool. If I don't remove the columns then there doesn't seem to be an issue. <asp:GridView ID="DataGrid1" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false" AllowPaging="True" PageSize="10" GridLines="Horizontal"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Header A" > <ItemTemplate > Text A </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:TemplateField> <HeaderTemplate> Header B </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> Text B </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> For i = 2 To DataGrid1.Columns.Count - 1 DataGrid1.Columns.RemoveAt(2) Next EDIT So from what I've read this seems to be a problem that occurs when the grid is altered. Does anyone know of a good workaround to re-initialize the template columns or set them up again so that when the non-template columns are removed that hte templates don't get removed as well?

    Read the article

  • Error occurs while validating form input using jQuery in Firebug

    - by Param-Ganak
    I have written a custom validation code in jQuery, which is working fine. I have a login form which has two fields, i.e. userid and password. I have written a custom code for client side validation for these fields. This code is working fine and gives me proper error messages as per the situation. But the problem with this code is that when I enter the invalid data in any or both field and press submit button of form then it displays the proper error message but at the same time when I checked it in Firebug it displays following error message when submit button of the form is clicked validate is not defined function onclick(event) { javascript: return validate(); } (click clientX=473, clientY=273) Here is the JQUERY validation code $(document).ready(function (){ $("#id_login_form").validate({ rules: { userid: { required: true, minlength: 6, maxlength: 20, // basic: true }, password: { required: true, minlength: 6, maxlength: 15, // basic: true } }, messages: { userid: { required: " Please enter the username.", minlength: "User Name should be minimum 6 characters long.", maxlength: "User Name should be maximum 15 characters long.", // basic: "working here" }, password: { required: " Please enter the password.", minlength: "Password should be minimum 6 characters long.", maxlength: "Password should be maximum 15 characters long.", // basic: "working here too.", } }, errorClass: "errortext", errorLabelContainer: "#messagebox" } }); }); /* $.validator.addMethod('username_alphanum', function (value) { return /^(?![0-9]+$)[a-zA-Z 0-9_.]+$/.test(value); }, 'User name should be alphabetic or Alphanumeric and may contain . and _.'); $.validator.addMethod('alphanum', function (value) { return /^(?![a-zA-Z]+$)(?![0-9]+$)[a-zA-Z 0-9]+$/.test(value); }, 'Password should be Alphanumeric.'); $.validator.addMethod('basic', function (value) { return /^[a-zA-Z 0-9_.]+$/.test(value); }, 'working working working'); */ So please tell me where is I am wrong in my jQuery code. Thank You!

    Read the article

  • Loading Dimension Tables - Methodologies

    - by Nev_Rahd
    Hello, Recently I been working on project, where need to populated Dim Tables from EDW Tables. EDW Tables are of type II which does maintain historical data. When comes to load Dim Table, for which source may be multiple EDW Tables or would be single table with multi level pivoting (on attributes). Mean: There would be 10 records - one for each attribute which need to be pivoted on domain_code to make a single row in Dim. Out of these 10 records there would be some attributes with same domain_code but with different sub_domain_code, which needs further pivoting on subdomain code. Ex: if i got domain code: 01,02, 03 = which are straight pivot on domain code I would also have domain code: 10 with subdomain code / version as 2006,2007,2008,2009 That means I need to split my source table with above attributes into two = one for domain code and other for domain_code + version. so far so good. When it comes to load Dim Table: As per design specs for Dimensions (originally written by third party), what they want is: for every single change in EDW (attribute), it should assemble all the related records (for that NK) mean new one with other attribute values which are current = process them to create a new dim record and insert it. That mean if a single extract contains 100 records updated (one for each NK), it should assemble 100 + (100*9) records to insert / update dim table. How good is this approach. Other way I tried to do is just do a lookup into dim table for that NK get the value's of recent records (attributes which not changed) and insert it and update the current one. What would be the better approach assembling records at source side for one attribute change or looking into dim table's recent record and process it. If this doesn't make sense, would like to elaborate it further. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Efficiency of manually written loops vs operator overloads (C++)

    - by Sagekilla
    Hi all, in the program I'm working on I have 3-element arrays, which I use as mathematical vectors for all intents and purposes. Through the course of writing my code, I was tempted to just roll my own Vector class with simple +, -, *, /, etc overloads so I can simplify statements like: for (int i = 0; i < 3; i++) r[i] = r1[i] - r2[i]; // becomes: r = r1 - r2; Which should be more or less identical in generated code. But when it comes to more complicated things, could this really impact my performance heavily? One example that I have in my code is this: Manually written version: for (int j = 0; j < 3; j++) { p.vel[j] = p.oldVel[j] + (p.oldAcc[j] + p.acc[j]) * dt2 + (p.oldJerk[j] - p.jerk[j]) * dt12; p.pos[j] = p.oldPos[j] + (p.oldVel[j] + p.vel[j]) * dt2 + (p.oldAcc[j] - p.acc[j]) * dt12; } Using a Vector class with operator overloads: p.vel = p.oldVel + (p.oldAcc + p.acc) * dt2 + (p.oldJerk - p.jerk) * dt12; p.pos = p.oldPos + (p.oldVel + p.vel) * dt2 + (p.oldAcc - p.acc) * dt12; I am compiling my code for maximum possible speed, as it's extremely important that this code runs quickly and calculates accurately. So will me relying on my Vector's for these sorts of things really affect me? For those curious, this is part of some numerical integration code which is not trivial to run in my program. Any insight would be appreciated, as would any idioms or tricks I'm unaware of.

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net MVC DotNetOpenAuth Sample Issue on publish

    - by Roger D. Pharr
    I'm trying to use the MSDN Open ID project template for ASP.NET MVC C#. I've been able to configure a local copy to run well. But when I publish it to my hosting provider - it craps out. The error is "500 internal server error". Is there something I should know about publishing this template that I haven't noticed? Here are some more details (for diligence): Hosting provider is GoDaddy/SQL2005/IIS7. When I configure & publish the blank MVC template, it works. The local database publishes successfully, but I haven't been able to troubleshoot the connection in web.config yet. I expect there are connection string problems in the file. I tried disabling all of the references to log4net, as it seemed to be invoked several times on startup. But those changes did not seem to make a difference in either the local or published application performance. My IDE is Visual Studio 2010 Pro Any help would be greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Controlling the alpha of a UIImageView with Slider ..Can' t get it

    - by user1824839
    first i' d like to say this Forum was really helpfull for me that just started coding some weeks ago .. I succeed to do a quite nice app for the moment , than, but i m stuck on this : HOW COULD I CONTROL THE ALPHA OF A UIIMAGEVIEW , WITH A SLIDER EMBEDED IN ANOTHER VIEW ??? ; Basically i' like to do like the alpha slider of this : http://www.edumobile.org/iphone/how-to-make-an-app-2/controlling-a-uiviews-properties-for-ipad/ , but for a UIImageView. I promised i searched for hours , and didnt find how to do it ... Could someone have some minutes to give me ideas ?? Sorry for my poor english too. Thanks if you can. L. The resume of the link i posted, only focussing on the alpha property would be : ( considering a UIView ( View ) embeded in a ViewController ( ViewController ): enter code here ----View.h----- @interface View : UIView @property ( nonatomic, assign ) CGFloat alpha; @end enter code here ----View.m---- @implementation View @synthesize alpha; ?} @end enter code here ------ViewController.h----- import "View.h" @interface ViewController : UIViewController @property (nonatomic, strong) IBOutlet View *view; ?- (IBAction)alphaChanged:(UISlider *)sender; @end enter code here -------ViewController.m------ @interface ViewController () @end @implementation ViewController @synthesize view; (View *)view {?     if (!view) {?        view = [[View alloc] init];?    }?    return view;?} enter code here (IBAction)redChanged:(UISlider *)sender? {?    self.circle.alpha = sender.value;?    [self.circle setNeedsDisplay];?} (void)viewDidLoad ?{?    [super viewDidLoad];?         ?    self.circle.alpha = (CGFloat)1;?} (void)didReceiveMemoryWarning? {?  [super didReceiveMemoryWarning];?    @end enter code here

    Read the article

  • How to Implement an Interface that Requires Duplicate Member Names?

    - by Will Marcouiller
    I often have to implement some interfaces such as IEnumerable<T> in my code. Each time, when implementing automatically, I encounter the following: public IEnumerator<T> GetEnumerator() { // Code here... } public IEnumerator GetEnumerator1() { // Code here... } Though I have to implement both GetEnumerator() methods, they impossibly can have the same name, even if we understand that they do the same, somehow. The compiler can't treat them as one being the overload of the other, because only the return type differs. When doing so, I manage to set the GetEnumerator1() accessor to private. This way, the compiler doesn't complaint about not implementing the interface member, and I simply throw a NotImplementedException within the method's body. However, I wonder whether it is a good practice, or if I shall proceed differently, as perhaps a method alias or something like so. What is the best approach while implementing an interface such as IEnumerable<T> that requires the implementation of two different methods with the same name? EDIT #1 Does VB.NET reacts differently from C# while implementing interfaces, since in VB.NET it is explicitly implemented, thus forcing the GetEnumerator1(). Here's the code: Public Function GetEnumerator() As System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerator(Of T) Implements System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable(Of T).GetEnumerator // Code here... End Function Public Function GetEnumerator1() As System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerator Implements System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable.GetEnumerator // Code here... End Function Both GetEnumerator() methods are explicitly implemented, and the compile will refuse them to have the same name. Why?

    Read the article

  • writing a meta refresh method for rails

    - by aaronstacy
    I want a method in app/controllers/application.rb that can prepend/append text to whatever template gets rendered. Of course I can't call render twice w/o getting a double render error, so is this possible? I want to redirect after a delay using a meta refresh. Here's what I've got: app/controllers/application_controller.rb: def redirect_after_delay (url, delay) @redirect_delay = delay @redirect_url = url render end app/views/layouts/application.html.erb <!DOCTYPE html> <html lang="en"> <head> <%= yield :refresh_tag %> </head> <body> <%= yield %> </body> </html> So then if I want to add a redirect-after-delay, I add the following to 1) my controller and 2) the action's view: app/controllers/my_controller.rb def my_action redirect_after_delay 'http://www.google.com', 3 if some_condition end app/views/my_controller/my_action.html.erb <% content_for :refresh_tag do %> <meta http-equiv='refresh' content='<%=@redirect_delay%>;url=<%=@redirect_url%>'> <% end %> <h1>Please wait while you are redirected...</h1> Since the content_for block never changes, is it possible to do this in some generic way so that I don't have to put <%= yield :refresh_tag %> in each template? (e.g. could redirect_after_delay add it into whatever template is going to be rendered?)

    Read the article

  • Open closed prinicple, problem

    - by Marcus
    Hi, I'm trying to apply OCP to a code snippet I have that in it's current state is really smelly, but I feel I'm not getting all the way to the end. Current code: public abstract class SomeObject {} public class SpecificObject1 : SomeObject {} public class SpecificObject2 : SomeObject {} // Smelly code public class Model { public void Store(SomeObject someObject) { if (someObject is SpecificObject1) {} else if (someObject is SpecificObject2) {} } } That is really ugly, my new approach looks like this: // No so smelly code public class Model { public void Store(SomeObject someObject) { throw new Expception("Not allowed!"); } public void Store(SpecificObject1 someObject) {} public void Store(SpecificObject2 someObject) {} } When a new SomeObject type comes along I must implement how that specific object is stored, this will break OCP cause I need to alter the Model-class. To move the store logic to SomeObject also feels wrong cause then I will violate SRP (?), becuase in this case the SomeObject is almost like a DTO, it's resposibility it not how to know to store itself. If a new implementation to SomeObject comes along who's store implementation is missing I will get a runtime error due to exception in Store method in Model class, it also feels like a code smell. This is because calling code will in the form of IEnumerable<SomeObject> sequence; I will not know the specific types of the sequence objects. I can't seem to grasp the OCP-concept. Anyone has any concrete examples or links that is a bit more than just some Car/Fruit example?

    Read the article

  • How to debug memory allocation issues?

    - by amitabh
    Hi I am writing an iPhone app that that is trying to create a second a view when the user clicks on an element in UITableView. The code looks like ReplyToViewController *reply = [[ReplyToViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ReplyTo" bundle:nil]; reply.delegate = self; Message *message = [resultData objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; int dbid = [message.bizid intValue]; NSLog(@"dbid=%d",dbid); reply.currentMessage = message; reply.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:reply animated:YES]; The reply object gets created properly and the view is proper. Last line in above code segment calls some framework code which eventually calls the viewDidLoad method of the ReplyToViewController. Address of the reply object in the above code and the address of the object in viewDidLoad is not same. Any idea where this new object is coming from? How do I debug? I also added init method the following method in ReplyToViewController hoping that it will get called and I can find who is creating this new object. But it does not stop in this method. Any help will be greatly appreciated. - (id) init { /* first initialize the base class */ self = [super init]; return self; } // Following gets called from the 1st code segment. - (id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil { if (self = [super initWithNibName:nibNameOrNil bundle:nibBundleOrNil]) { // Custom initialization } return self; } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSLog(currentMessage.text]; // THIS returns nil and the program fails later in the code. }

    Read the article

  • Best Functional Approach

    - by dbyrne
    I have some mutable scala code that I am trying to rewrite in a more functional style. It is a fairly intricate piece of code, so I am trying to refactor it in pieces. My first thought was this: def iterate(count:Int,d:MyComplexType) = { //Generate next value n //Process n causing some side effects return iterate(count - 1, n) } This didn't seem functional at all to me, since I still have side effects mixed throughout my code. My second thought was this: def generateStream(d:MyComplexType):Stream[MyComplexType] = { //Generate next value n return Stream.cons(n, generateStream(n)) } for (n <- generateStream(initialValue).take(2000000)) { //process n causing some side effects } This seemed like a better solution to me, because at least I've isolated my functional value-generation code from the mutable value-processing code. However, this is much less memory efficient because I am generating a large list that I don't really need to store. This leaves me with 3 choices: Write a tail-recursive function, bite the bullet and refactor the value-processing code Use a lazy list. This is not a memory sensitive app (although it is performance sensitive) Come up with a new approach. I guess what I really want is a lazily evaluated sequence where I can discard the values after I've processed them. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • .Net Inherited Control Property Default

    - by Yisman
    Hello fellows Im trying to make a simple "ButtonPlus" control. the main idea is to inherit from the button control and add some default property values (such as font,color,padding...) No matter how i try, the WinForm always generates (or "serializes") the property value in the client forms the whole point is to have minimal and clean code, not that every instance of the buttonPlus should have 5 lines of init code. I want that the form designer should not generate any code for theses properties and be able to control them from the ButtonPlus code. In other words, if I change the ForeColor from red to blue only 1 single bingle line of code in the app should change. heres my code so far. as you can see, ive tried using defaultvalue, reset , shouldserialize.... anything i was able to find on the web! Public Class ButtonPlus Inherits Button Sub New() 'AutoSize = True AutoSizeMode = Windows.Forms.AutoSizeMode.GrowAndShrink Font = New System.Drawing.Font("Arial", 11.0!, System.Drawing.FontStyle.Bold, System.Drawing.GraphicsUnit.Point, CType(177, Byte)) Padding = New System.Windows.Forms.Padding(3) Anchor = AnchorStyles.Left + AnchorStyles.Right + AnchorStyles.Top ForeColor = Color.Aqua End Sub ' _ 'Public Overrides Property AutoSize() As Boolean ' Get ' Return MyBase.AutoSize ' End Get ' Set(ByVal value As Boolean) ' MyBase.AutoSize = value ' End Set 'End Property Public Function ShouldSerializeAutoSize() As Boolean Return False ' Not AutoSize = True End Function Public Function ShouldSerializeForeColor() As Boolean Return False 'Not ForeColor = Color.Aqua End Function Public Overrides Sub ResetForeColor() ForeColor = Color.Aqua End Sub End Class Thank you very much for taking the time to look this over and answer all the best

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 527 528 529 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538  | Next Page >