Search Results

Search found 15385 results on 616 pages for 'context menu'.

Page 541/616 | < Previous Page | 537 538 539 540 541 542 543 544 545 546 547 548  | Next Page >

  • .net remoting - Better solution to wait for a service to initialize ?

    - by CitizenInsane
    Context I have a client application (which i cannot modify, i.e. i only have the binary) that needs to run from time to time external commands that depends on a resource which is very long to initialize (about 20s). I thus decided to initialize this resource once for all in a "CommandServer.exe" application (single instance in the system tray) and let my client application call an intermediate "ExecuteCommand.exe" program that uses .net remoting to perform the operation on the server. The "ExecuteCommand.exe" is in charge for starting the server on first call and then leave it alive to speed up further commands. The service: public interface IMyService { void ExecuteCommand(string[] args); } The "CommandServer.exe" (using WindowsFormsApplicationBase for single instance management + user friendly splash screen during resource initializations): private void onStartupFirstInstance(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { // Register communication channel channel = new TcpServerChannel("CommandServerChannel", 8234); ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(channel, false); // Register service var resource = veryLongToInitialize(); service = new MyServiceImpl(resource); RemotingServices.Marshal(service, "CommandServer"); // Create icon in system tray notifyIcon = new NotifyIcon(); ... } The intermediate "ExecuteCommand.exe": static void Main(string[] args) { startCommandServerIfRequired(); var channel = new TcpClientChannel(); ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(channel, false); var service = (IMyService)Activator.GetObject(typeof(IMyService), "tcp://localhost:8234/CommandServer"); service.RunCommand(args); } Problem As the server is very long to start (about 20s to initialize the required resources), the "ExecuteCommand.exe" fails on service.RunCommand(args) line because the server is yet not available. Question Is there a elegant way I can tune the delay before to receive "service not available" when calling service.RunCommand ? NB1: Currently I'm working around the issue by adding a mutex in server to indicate for complete initiliazation and have "ExecuteCommand.exe" to wait for this mutex before to call service.RunCommand. NB2: I have no background with .net remoting, nor WCF which is recommended replacer. (I chose .net remoting because this looked easier to set-up for this single shot issue in running external commands).

    Read the article

  • RoR routing problem. Calling custom action, but getting redirected to show action

    - by conorgil
    I am working on a project in ruby on rails and I am having a very difficult time with a basic problem. I am trying to call a custom action in one of my controllers, but the request is somehow getting redirected to the default 'show' action and I cannot figure out why. link in edit.html.erb: <%= link_to 'Mass Text Entry', :action=>"create_or_add_food_item_from_text" %> Error from development.log: ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound (Couldn't find Menu with ID=create_or_add_food_item_from_text): app/controllers/menus_controller.rb:20:in `show' routes.rb file: ActionController::Routing::Routes.draw do |map| map.resources :nutrition_objects map.resources :preference_objects map.resources :institutions map.resources :locations map.resources :menus map.resources :food_items map.resources :napkins map.resources :users map.resource :session, :controller => 'session' map.root :controller=>'pages', :action=>'index' map.about '/about', :controller=>'pages', :action=>'about' map.contact '/contact', :controller=>'pages', :action=>'contact' map.home '/home', :controller=>'pages', :action=>'index' map.user_home '/user/home', :controller=>'rater', :action=>'index' map.user_napkins '/user/napkins', :controller=>'rater', :action=>'view_napkins' map.user_preferences '/user/preferences',:controller=>'rater', :action=>'preferences' map.blog '/blog', :controller=>'pages', :action=>'blog' map.signup '/signup', :controller=>'users', :action=>'new' map.login '/login', :controller=>'session', :action=>'new' map.logout '/logout', :controller=>'session', :action=>'destroy' # Install the default routes as the lowest priority. map.connect ':controller/:action' map.connect ':controller/:action/:id' map.connect ':controller/:action/:id.:format' end Menus_controller.rb: class MenusController < ApplicationController ... def create_or_add_food_item_from_text end ... end create_or_add_food_item_from_text.html.erb simply has a div to show a form with a text box in it. I have the rest of my app working fine, but this is stumping me. Any help is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • java web templates across multiple WAR files

    - by Casey
    I have a multi WAR web application that was designed badly. There is a single WAR that is responsible for handling some authorization against a database and defines a standard web page using a jsp taglib. The main WAR basically checks the privileges of the user and than based on that, displays links to the context path of the other deployed WARS. Each of the other deployed WARs includes this custom tag lib. I am working on redesigning this application, and one of the nice things that I want to retain is that we have other project teams that have developed these WAR modules that "plug into" our current system to take advantage of other things we have to offer. I am not entirely sure how to handle the page templates though. I need a templating system that would be easy enough to use across multiple wars (I was thinking of jsp fragments??). I really only need to define a consistent header and main navigation section. Whatever else is displayed on the page is up to the individual web project. Any suggestions? I hope that this is clear, if not I can elaborate more.

    Read the article

  • How to configure a NSPopupButton for displaying multiple values in a TableView?

    - by jekmac
    Hi there! I'm using two entities A and B with to-many-to-many relationship. Lets say I got an entity A with attribute aAttrib and a to-many relationship aRelat to another entity B with attribute bAttrib and a to-many relationship bRelat with entity A. Now I am building an interface with two tables one for entity A and another for entity B. The table for entity B has two columns one for bAttrib and one for the relationship aRelat. The aRelat-column should be a NSPopupButtonCell to display multiple aAttrib values. I'd like to set all the bindings in InterfaceBuilder in Table Column Bindings: -- I have two NSArrayController each for one entity: Object Controller Mode:Entity Array Controller Bindings: Parameters Managed Object Context bind to File's Owner -- One Table Cloumn with a PopUpButtonCell: TableCloumnBindings Content bind to Entity A with ControllerKey arrangedObjects; Content Values bind to Entity A with ModelKeyPath aAttrib Selected Object bind to Entity B with ModelKeyPath bRelat I know that this configuration doesn't allow multiple value setting. But I don't know how to do the right one. Getting the following message: HIToolbox: ignoring exception 'Unacceptable type of value for to-many relationship: property = "bRelat"; desired type = NSSet; given type = NSCFString; value = testValue.' that raised inside Carbon event dispatch... Does anyone have any idea?

    Read the article

  • How to test a C++ library usability in configure.in?

    - by jbatista
    Hi, I'm working on a C++ project and I'm looking for a way to test the existence and usability of IBM Informix's library with the Autotools - namely, editing a configure.in. I don't have experience with Autotools, so basically I'm picking up from the project's configure.in et al. scripts and copying&changing where I feel needs to be changed. IOW, I've been adapting from the existing text in configure.in. So far I've been using successfully the AC_ CHECK_ LIB in configure.in to test whether a certain library both exists and is usable. But this only seems to work with libraries with functions, not e.g. classes. Namely, this fails when testing Informix's libifc++.so: AC_CHECK_LIB(ifc++, ITString, INFORMIX_LIB="-L$INFORMIX_LIB_LOCATION/c++ -lifc++ -L$INFORMIX_LIB_LOCATION -L$INFORMIX_LIB_LOCATION/dmi -L$INFORMIX_LIB_LOCATION/esql -lifdmi -lifsql -lifasf -lifgen -lifos -lifgls -lifglx $INFORMIX_LIB_LOCATION/esql/checkapi.o -lm -ldl -lcrypt -lnsl", echo "* WARNING: libifc++.so not found!" INFORMIX_INC="" INFORMIX_LIB="" ) I've also tried using other combinations, like ITString::ITString, etc. I haven't found a "pure" function in Informix's API (i.e., one that isn't contexted in a C++ class). So I'm hoping that either there's a way to use AC_CHECK_LIB in this context, or there's another autoconf/configure.in "command" for this specific use. Thanks in advance for your feedback.

    Read the article

  • NSFetchedResultsController sort different sections differently (ascending/descending)?

    - by PartiallyFinite
    In my app, I have a task list (no, it's not just another todo app), and I display the tasks in a UITableView using an NSFetchedResultsController. Here is the relevant initialisation code: NSSortDescriptor *dueDateSortDescriptor = [NSSortDescriptor sortDescriptorWithKey:@"due" YES]; NSSortDescriptor *completionSortDescriptor = [NSSortDescriptor sortDescriptorWithKey:@"completed" ascending:YES]; [fetchRequest setSortDescriptors:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:completionSortDescriptor, dueDateSortDescriptor, nil]]; _fetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:fetchRequest managedObjectContext:context sectionNameKeyPath:@"completed" cacheName:nil]; What this does is sorts the tasks such that I have an incomplete tasks section at the top, sorting with the tasks due first on top, and tasks due later further down. This all works. However, this means that the second section, the one with the completed tasks, also sorts this way, so the earliest due tasks are on top. What I want to do is change it so the second section sorts the other way around (in descending order), but the first section stays sorted in ascending order. Is this even possible? How would I go about this? Why I want to do this: The way it currently works, the tasks at the top of the second section (and therefore the most visible) are the ones that were completed ages ago. It is more likely that the user would want to see the tasks that are more recently completed (and uncheck one if it was accidentally checked), and presumably the tasks with a more recent due date were more recently completed. I am happy to add a separate completion date field to the Core Data task object if necessary (This isn't a shipping application yet, so I can change the data format however I like).

    Read the article

  • Recreating a workflow instance with the same instance id

    - by Miron Brezuleanu
    We have some objects that have an associated workflow instance. The objects are identified with a GUID, which is also the GUID of the workflow instance associated with the object. We need to restart (see NOTE 3 for the meaning of 'restart') the workflow instance if the workflow definition changed (there is no state in the workflow itself and it is written to support restarting in this manner). The restarting is performed by calling Terminate on the WorkflowInstance, then recreating the instance with the same GUID. The weird part is that this works every other attempt (odd attempts - the workflow is stopped, but for some reason doesn't restart, even attempt - the already terminated workflow is recreated and started successfully). While I admit that using 'second hand' GUIDs is a sign of extraordinary cheapness (and something we plan to change), I'm wondering why this isn't working. Any ideas? NOTES: The terminated workflow instance is passivated (waiting for a notification) at the time of the termination. The Terminate call successfully deletes the data persisted in the database for that instance. We're using 'restarting' with a meaning that's less common in the context of WF - not restarting a passivated instance, but force the workflow to start again from the beginning of its definition. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • IE is stops Javascript with an error?

    - by Mahmoud
    hey there, i have complete of creating a javascript that well allow visitors ones the mouse is over the button a menu drops down, at some point on FireFox its working fine and also safari, but when it comes to IE it stops the script from running, where on the IE i debugged my script using IE debugger and i found out the error causing is frag+='<br /><li><form action="' + menuobj.items[i][1] + '" ><input type="submit" value="' + menuobj.items[i][0] + '" style="background-color:#000;border:hidden;color:#FFF"/></form></li><br />\n' for reference below is the full function code getmenuHTML:function(menuobj){ var menucontent=[] var frag="" for (var i=0; i < menuobj.items.length; i++){ frag+='<br /><li><form action="' + menuobj.items[i][1] + '" ><input type="submit" value="' + menuobj.items[i][0] + '" style="background-color:#000;border:hidden;color:#FFF"/></form></li><br />\n' if (menuobj.items[i][2]=="efc" || i==menuobj.items.length-1){ menucontent.push(frag) frag="" } } if (typeof menuobj.cols=="undefined") return '<ul>\n' + menucontent.join('') + '\n</ul>' else{ frag="" for (var i=0; i<menucontent.length; i++){ frag+='<div class="' + menuobj.cols.divclass + '" style="' + menuobj.cols.inlinestyle + '">\n<ul>\n' + menucontent[i] + '</ul>\n</div>\n' } return frag } },

    Read the article

  • When is it safe to use a broken hash function?

    - by The Rook
    It is trivial to use a secure hash function like SHA256 and continuing to use md5 is reckless behavior. However, there are some complexities to hash function vulnerabilities that I would like to better understand. Collisions have been generated for md4 and md5. According to NIST md5() is not a secure hash function. It only takes 2^39th operations to generate a collision and should never be used for passwords. However SHA1 is vulnerable to a similar collision attack in which a collision can be found in 2^69 operations, where as brute force is 2^80th. No one has generated a sha1 collision and NIST still lists sha1 as a secure message digest function. So when is it safe to use a broken hash function? Even though a function is broken it can still be "big enough". According to Schneier a hash function vulnerable to a collsion attack can still be used as an HMAC. I believe this is because the security of an HMAC is Dependant on its secret key and a collision cannot be found until this key is obtained. Once you have the key used in a HMAC its already broken, so its a moot point. What hash function vulnerabilities would undermine the security of an HMAC? Lets take this property a bit further. Does it then become safe to use a very weak message digest like md4 for passwords if a salt is perpended to the password? Keep in mind the md4 and md5 attacks are prefixing attacks, and if a salt is perpended then an attacker cannot control the prefix of the message. If the salt is truly a secret, and isn't known to the attacker, then does it matter if its a appended to the end of the password? Is it safe to assume that an attacker cannot generate a collision until the entire message has been obtained? Do you know of other cases where a broken hash function can be used in a security context without introducing a vulnerability? (Please post supporting evidence because it is awesome!)

    Read the article

  • Android Organizing Strings.xml

    - by Neb
    I'm making an android app and since I've just started I want to try get the most organised code/resources. In my strings.xml file so far I have this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <resources> <string name="app_name">GameController</string> <string name="stop">Stop</string> <string name="start">Start</string> <string name="preferences">Preferences</string> <string name="back">Back</string> </resources> All of the strings except app_name are used in an options menu. But since I will be adding much more strings I was thinking that it might be better to do something like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <resources> <string name="app_name">GameController</string> <string name="menu_stop">Stop</string> <string name="menu_start">Start</string> <string name="menu_preferences">Preferences</string> <string name="menu_back">Back</string> </resources> Is it the best way or should I use another system?

    Read the article

  • Html 5 Time Tag not recognized by IE8 when cloning

    - by matsientst
    I have been having trouble getting IE to recognize the new Time tag in this context. This all works great in FF. Here is the code: var origComment = $('.articleComment:first div'); if (origComment.length > 0) { var commentHtml = origComment.clone(true); commentHtml.find('time').text('today'); var html = '<article class="' + ((side == 'LEFT') ? '' : 'that') + '">' + commentHtml.html() + '</article>'; $(html).insertAfter('.articleComment:last'); The HTML looks something like this: <article class="articleComment that"> <div id="156" class="parent"> <div class="byline"> <p>Posted <time pubdate="pubdate" datetime="2010-05-07T09:11:08">today</time> by<br/> <a class="username" href="/u/matt">matt</a> </p> <p class="report"><a href="#">Report?</a></p> </div> <div class="comment">left</div> </div> </article> IE can find the Time tag but it returns a collection of 2 elements. I assume the beginning and ending. However, I cannot access it to modify it. I have tried val(), html() and text(). I also can't drop to the actual HTMLElement. I can't get(0).innerHTML. But, if I .get(0).tagName it actually is the Time tag I've got. Any ideas? I hope this makes sense.

    Read the article

  • Performing centralized authorization for multiple applications

    - by Vaibhav
    Here's a question that I have been wrestling with for a while. We have a situation wherein we have a number of applications that we have created. These have grown organically over a period of time. All of these applications have permissions code built into them that controls access to various parts of the application depending on whether the currently logged in user has the necessary permissions or not. Alongside these applications is a utility application which allows an administrator to map users to permissions for all applications - the way it works is that every application has code which reads this external database of the said utility application to check if the currently logged in user has the necessary permission or not. Now, the question is this. Should the user-permissions mapping information reside in and be owned by the applications themselves, or is it okay to have this information reside within an external entity/DB (as in this case the utility application's database). Part of me thinks that application permissions are very specific to the application context itself, so shouldn't be separated from the application itself. But I am not sure. Any comments?

    Read the article

  • How to negate a predicate function using operator ! in C++?

    - by Chan
    Hi, I want to erase all the elements that do not satisfy a criterion. For example: delete all the characters in a string that are not digit. My solution using boost::is_digit worked well. struct my_is_digit { bool operator()( char c ) const { return c >= '0' && c <= '9'; } }; int main() { string s( "1a2b3c4d" ); s.erase( remove_if( s.begin(), s.end(), !boost::is_digit() ), s.end() ); s.erase( remove_if( s.begin(), s.end(), !my_is_digit() ), s.end() ); cout << s << endl; return 0; } Then I tried my own version, the compiler complained :( error C2675: unary '!' : 'my_is_digit' does not define this operator or a conversion to a type acceptable to the predefined operator I could use not1() adapter, however I still think the operator ! is more meaningful in my current context. How could I implement such a ! like boost::is_digit() ? Any idea? Thanks, Chan Nguyen

    Read the article

  • Get value of selected field from a dropdown list

    - by 47
    I have this class in my model: class ServiceCharge(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=30) amount = models.PositiveIntegerField() extends_membership = models.BooleanField(default=False) def __unicode__(self): return str(self.name) What I want to have is in the form for charging users a service charge, when a charge is selected from the dropdown menu, the two values for amount and extends_membership are updated on the form depending on the selected charge. My forms.py: class vModelChoiceField(forms.ModelChoiceField): def label_from_instance(self, obj): return "%s" % obj.name class PayServiceChargeForm(PaymentsForm): service_charge = vModelChoiceField(queryset=ServiceCharge.objects.all(), empty_label=" ") class Meta(PaymentsForm.Meta): exclude = ('member', 'payment_type', 'transacted_by', 'description') Then the form template: <table border="0"> <tr> <td><strong>{% trans "Service Charge" %}</strong></td> <td>{{ form.service_charge }}</td> <td><strong>{% trans "Extends Membership" %}</strong></td> <td>{{ form.extends_membership }}</td> </tr> <tr> <td valign="top"><strong>{% trans "Expiry Date" %}</strong></td> <td valign="top">{{ form.expiry_date }}</td> <td valign="top"><strong>{% trans "Amount" %}</strong></td> <td>{{ form.amount }}</td> </tr> </table> I was trying out some jQuery but I got stuck after getting the currently selected charge: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#id_service_charge").change(onSelectChange); }); function onSelectChange(){ var selected = $("#id_service_charge option:selected"); var output = ""; if(selected.val() != 0){ charge = selected.val(); .... (update values) .... } } </script>

    Read the article

  • How can I load an external jQuery gallery/slideshow into a div

    - by DanTransformer
    Ive got a jQuery navigation menu loading external content into my #main div, which works fine when the content is static, but the site im working on contains jQuery galleries/slideshows which id like to call into the div. The problem im having is when the gallery is loaded, the images all appear but the jQuery functionality does not work. Any help appreciated. here is the javascript im using... $(document).ready(function() { // Check for hash value in URL var hash = window.location.hash.substr(1); var href = $('#accordion ul li a').each(function(){ var href = $(this).attr('href'); if(hash==href.substr(0,href.length-5)){ var toLoad = hash+'.html #main'; $('#main').load(toLoad) } }); $('#accordion ul li a').click(function(){ var toLoad = $(this).attr('href')+' #main'; $('#main').hide('fast',loadContent); $('#load').remove(); $('#wrapper').append('<span id="load">LOADING...</span>'); $('#load').fadeIn('normal'); window.location.hash = $(this).attr('href').substr(0,$(this).attr('href').length-5); function loadContent() { $('#main').load(toLoad,'',showNewContent()) } function showNewContent() { $('#main').show('normal',hideLoader()); } function hideLoader() { $('#load').fadeOut('normal'); } return false; }); });

    Read the article

  • Protocol specification in XML

    - by Mathijs
    Is there a way to specify a packet-based protocol in XML, so (de)serialization can happen automatically? The context is as follows. I have a device that communicates through a serial port. It sends and receives a byte stream consisting of 'packets'. A packet is a collection of elementary data types and (sometimes) other packets. Some elements of packets are conditional; their inclusion depends on earlier elements. I have a C# application that communicates with this device. Naturally, I don't want to work on a byte-level throughout my application; I want to separate the protocol from my application code. Therefore I need to translate the byte stream to structures (classes). Currently I have implemented the protocol in C# by defining a class for each packet. These classes define the order and type of elements for each packet. Making class members conditional is difficult, so protocol information ends up in functions. I imagine XML that looks like this (note that my experience designing XML is limited): <packet> <field name="Author" type="int32" /> <field name="Nickname" type="bytes" size="4"> <condition type="range"> <field>Author</field> <min>3</min> <max>6</min> </condition> </field> </packet> .NET has something called a 'binary serializer', but I don't think that's what I'm looking for. Is there a way to separate protocol and code, even if packets 'include' other packets and have conditional elements?

    Read the article

  • Programming powering off and powering on in one single OnClick function on android

    - by user1060919
    I would like to write an activity that after clicking on a button turns off the screen and then turns it back on after 2 secs. I tried using the following code in order to power off the screen: WindowManager.LayoutParams lp = getWindow().getAttributes(); lp.screenBrightness = 0/(float)255; getWindow().setAttributes(lp); But it would only take effect when then onClick function returns. I tried running it into a handler but with no success. I need to find a way to force the setting to get applied before the function returns so that I can call the power on function 2 secs later on the same onClick call. I also found it very hard to wakeup the device afterwards. While this code works if I power off the screen using the physical button it doesn't seem to work when the phone is powered off using the technique described previously. PowerManager pm = (PowerManager)this.getSystemService(Context.POWER_SERVICE); PowerManager.WakeLock wl = pm.newWakeLock(PowerManager.FULL_WAKE_LOCK|PowerManager.ACQUIRE_CAUSES_WAKEUP | PowerManager.ON_AFTER_RELEASE ,"Dev Tag"); try { wl.acquire(); wl.release(); } catch (Exception e) { Toast.makeText(this, e.getMessage(),20).show(); } Thanks you in advance for your help!

    Read the article

  • JSF2: Re-render all components on page that have a given ID, without absolute paths

    - by tlind
    Is there any way in JSF 2.0/PrimeFaces of re-rendering all components (using the PrimeFaces update="id1 id2..." attribute or the <f:ajax render="..."/> tag) that have got a given ID, regardless of whether they are in the same form that contains the button triggering the AJAX re-render or not? For example, I want my button to re-render all sections on a page that visualize the user's current shopping basket. Right now, I always have to specify the absolute path to the components that I want to get updated, e.g. update=":header:basket :left-sidebar:menu:basket" which is rather impractical if the structure of the page changes (besides, I have not been able to figure out the correct path for one of these components). I already tried to implement a custom EL function like this, which traverses the component tree: update="{utilBean.findAllComponentsMatchingId('basket')}" but at the time that function is evaluated, apparently not the entire component tree has been set up as it doesn't contain the components I am looking for. How can I deal with this? There certainly must be an easy way of doing AJAX-based updates of sections of the page that are not part of the current <h:form>? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How does Access 2007's moveNext/moveFirst/, etc., feature work?

    - by Chris M
    I'm not an Access expert, but am an SQL expert. I inherited an Access front-end referencing a SQL 2005 database that worked OK for about 5000 records, but is failing miserably for 800k records... Behind the scenes in the SQL profiler & activity manager I see some kind of Access query like: SELECT "MS1"."id" FROM "dbo"."customer" "MS1" ORDER BY "MS1"."id" The MS prefix doesn't appear in any Access code I can see. I'm suspicious of the built-in Access navigation code: DoCmd.GoToRecord , , acNext The GoToRecord has AcRecord constant, which includes things like acFirst, acLast, acNext, acPrevious and acGoTo. What does it mean in a database context to move to the "next" record? This particular table uses an identity column as the PK, so is it internally grabbing all the IDs and then moving to the one that is the next highest??? If so, how would it work if a table was comprised of three different fields for the PK? Or am I on the wrong track, and something else in Access is calling that statement? Unfortunately I see a ton of prepared statements in the profiler. THanks!

    Read the article

  • Error: expected specifier-qualifier-list before 'QTVisualContextRef'

    - by Moonlight293
    Hi everyone, I am currently getting this error message in my header code, and I'm not sure as to why: "Error: expected specifier-qualifier-list before 'QTVisualContextRef'" #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> #import <QTKit/QTKit.h> #import <OpenGL/OpenGL.h> #import <QuartzCore/QuartzCore.h> #import <CoreVideo/CoreVideo.h> @interface MyRecorderController : NSObject { IBOutlet QTCaptureView *mCaptureView; IBOutlet NSPopUpButton *videoDevicePopUp; NSMutableDictionary *namesToDevicesDictionary; NSString *defaultDeviceMenuTitle; CVImageBufferRef mCurrentImageBuffer; QTCaptureDecompressedVideoOutput *mCaptureDecompressedVideoOutput; QTVisualContextRef qtVisualContext; // the context the movie is playing in // filters for CI rendering CIFilter *colorCorrectionFilter; // hue saturation brightness control through one CI filter CIFilter *effectFilter; // zoom blur filter CIFilter *compositeFilter; // composites the timecode over the video CIContext *ciContext; QTCaptureSession *mCaptureSession; QTCaptureMovieFileOutput *mCaptureMovieFileOutput; QTCaptureDeviceInput *mCaptureDeviceInput; } @end In the examples I have seen through other code (e.g. Cocoa Video Tutorial) I have not seen any difference in their code to mine. If anyone would be able to point out as to how this error could have occurred that would be great. Thanks heaps! :)

    Read the article

  • no longer an issue

    - by MrTemp
    I am still new to c# and wpf This program is a clock with different view and I would like to use the context menu to change between view, but the error says that there is no definition or extension method for the events. Right now I have the event I'm working on popping up a MessageBox just so I know it has run, but I cannot get it to compile. public partial class MainWindow : NavigationWindow { public MainWindow() { //InitializeComponent(); } public void AnalogMenu_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { /*AnalogClock analog = new AnalogClock(); this.NavigationService.Navigate(analog);*/ } public void DigitalMenu_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Digital Clicked"); /*DigitalClock digital = new DigitalClock(); this.NavigationService.Navigate(digital);*/ } public void BinaryMenu_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { /*BinaryClock binary = new BinaryClock(); this.NavigationService.Navigate(binary);*/ } } and the xaml call if you want it <NavigationWindow.ContextMenu> <ContextMenu Name="ClockMenu" > <MenuItem Name="ToAnalog" Header="To Analog" ToolTip="Changes to an analog clock"/> <MenuItem Name="ToDigital" Header="To Digital" ToolTip="Changes to a digital clock" Click="DigitalMenu_Click" /> <MenuItem Name="ToBinary" Header="To Binary" ToolTip="Changes to a binary clock"/> </ContextMenu> </NavigationWindow.ContextMenu>

    Read the article

  • How to create a separate thread to do some operation periodically and update UI in WPF?I'm stack

    - by black sensei
    Hello Experts! I'm trying to do a periodic separated thread operation let's say check for internet connection or check for user's info via web service and update the user interface. i've tried with quartz.net to implement that.So i created an inner class for the window i need to update.That inner class does what is meant for but the problem is that i don't know how to access parent's(window class) members form the child(inner class). for example public partial class Window2 : Window { private int i; public Window2() { InitializeComponent(); } public string doMyOperation() { //code here return result; } public class Myclass :IJob { public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { string result = doMyOperation(); //Now here i could be able to call a label of name lblNotif //lblNotif.Content = result; } } } Well the whole idea works but i'm stacked at here i need to access a controls of Window2 Since i'm stacked i tried Spring.Net way of implementing Quartz hoping that i could use MethodInvokingJobDetailFactoryObject and rather have the Operation done on Window2 itself.But for some reason i'm having an exception Cannot resolve type [System.Windows.Window2,System.Windows];, could not load type from string value System.Windows.Window2,System.Windows and the wiring is done so <object name="UpdateLabelJob" type="System.Windows.Window2,System.Windows"/> What i'm i doing wrong here?Is that a way round? thanks for reading and for helping out

    Read the article

  • RIA Service - without database?

    - by Heko
    Helo! I need to write a RIA service to call Java webservices from Silverlight 3.0 app. I'm testing how stuff works and in my Web app I have a MyData class which has 2 properties (int ID, string Text): namespace SilverlightApplication1.Web { public class MyData { [Key] public int ID { get; set; } public string Text { get; set; } } } Then I wrote simple DomainService: [EnableClientAccess()] public class MyService : DomainService { public IQueryable<MyData> GetMyData(string Url) { // here I will call my WebService List<MyData> result = new List<MyData>(); result.Add(new MyData { ID = 1, Text = Url }); return result.AsQueryable(); } } } How can I get data into my SL app? Now I have this: namespace SilverlightApplication1 { public partial class MainPage : UserControl { public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); MyContext context = new MyContext(); } } } I called and load but nothink worsk (exceptions, or nulls)... I had Invoke annotation but MyData is not TEntity and I can't use Strings or other simple types as well... :/ I'm reading and reading posts and nothing works like it should.. Any help would be really appreciated. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Adding a ActionPerformed Array to a String Array

    - by user267490
    Hey, Before you guys ask, yes I've searched online for the answer, but everything I found just leaves a lil confuse and nothing is recent so asking in those forums won't really help. My problems is this: I have an array that holds my name for a menu. String[] fontColor = new String[] {"Red", "Blue", "Green"}; for (int i = 0; i < fontColors.length; i++) { JMenuItem fontC = new JMenuItem(fontColors[i]); fontC.addActionListener(new fontColorAction()); changeFontColor.add(fontC); } Then I have an array that holds my color change in a class called fontColorAction in that class I have another array that does the same thing as my string array except all thats in the statement is textarea.setForeground(colorArr[i]); that will set the setForeground() in order, but now how do I successfully attact the action listner in my class to my menuItems? my class looks like this private class fontColorAction implements ActionListener { Color[] colorArr - new Color[] {"Color.RED","Color.BLUE","Color.GREEN"}; public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e){ for(i = 0; i < collorArr.length; i++){ textarea.setForeground(colorArr[i]); } } }

    Read the article

  • jQuery script works in Firefox but not in IE. Why am I not surprised?

    - by Ben Tew
    I'm working with the context of a CMS system and trying to turn seperate div's into tabs. You can see it at http://www.wtvynews4.com/test I've kludged together some code from a tutorial site. <script charset="utf-8" type="text/javascript"> jQuery(function() { //When page loads... $("div[ondblclick$='87119417']").attr("id", "87119417"); $("div[ondblclick$='87119482']").attr("id", "87119482"); $("div[ondblclick$='87119672']").attr("id", "87119672"); $("div[ondblclick$='87119727']").attr("id", "87119727"); $("div[ondblclick$='87119812']").attr("id", "87119812"); $("div[ondblclick$='87119417']").addClass("tab_content"); $("div[ondblclick$='87119482']").addClass("tab_content"); $("div[ondblclick$='87119672']").addClass("tab_content"); $("div[ondblclick$='87119727']").addClass("tab_content"); $("div[ondblclick$='87119812']").addClass("tab_content"); $(".tab_content").hide(); //Hide all content $("ul.morenewstabs li:first").addClass("active").show(); //Activate first tab $(".tab_content:first").show(); //Show first tab content //On Click Event $("ul.morenewstabs li").click(function() { $("ul.morenewstabs li").removeClass("active"); //Remove any "active" class $(this).addClass("active"); //Add "active" class to selected tab $(".tab_content").hide(); //Hide all tab content var activeTab = $(this).find("a").attr("href"); //Find the href attribute value to identify the active tab + content $(activeTab).show(); //Fade in the active ID content return false; }); }); </script> Everything works fine in Firefox but not IE. can you provide any assistance? When the page loads the attribute ID's and classes aren't assigned. I tried changing jQuery(function() { to $(document).ready(function() still no luck.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 537 538 539 540 541 542 543 544 545 546 547 548  | Next Page >