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  • JSF2: Re-render all components on page that have a given ID, without absolute paths

    - by tlind
    Is there any way in JSF 2.0/PrimeFaces of re-rendering all components (using the PrimeFaces update="id1 id2..." attribute or the <f:ajax render="..."/> tag) that have got a given ID, regardless of whether they are in the same form that contains the button triggering the AJAX re-render or not? For example, I want my button to re-render all sections on a page that visualize the user's current shopping basket. Right now, I always have to specify the absolute path to the components that I want to get updated, e.g. update=":header:basket :left-sidebar:menu:basket" which is rather impractical if the structure of the page changes (besides, I have not been able to figure out the correct path for one of these components). I already tried to implement a custom EL function like this, which traverses the component tree: update="{utilBean.findAllComponentsMatchingId('basket')}" but at the time that function is evaluated, apparently not the entire component tree has been set up as it doesn't contain the components I am looking for. How can I deal with this? There certainly must be an easy way of doing AJAX-based updates of sections of the page that are not part of the current <h:form>? Thanks!

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  • How to save errors with the handleError in CakePHP 2.0?

    - by jags1988cr
    I have a big problem. Well, I'm trying to save the errors that happen in my web application. For example (only a example), if I make a division by zero, or happens an error in a query or something like that. So, I wanna catch that and save it in the database. But the handleError of CakePHP is static, so I can't use $this-MyModel-saveError(...). In my /app/Lib/AppError.php I have this: class AppError extends ErrorHandler { public $uses = array('Errors.Error'); public static function handleError($code, $description, $file = null, $line = null, $context = null) { //This print the error: echo "Code: ".$code." Description: ".$description." File: ".$file." Line: ".$line."<br>"; //I want to do this, (save to the database): $this->Error->saveError($code, $description, $file, $line); } } Without the $this-Error-saveError($code, $description, $file, $line); it works but I not only want to show the error. I think need an example or something like that. Please help me. Regards and thank you. Thanks... P.D.: Sorry for the English, I'm an english student...

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  • jQuery script works in Firefox but not in IE. Why am I not surprised?

    - by Ben Tew
    I'm working with the context of a CMS system and trying to turn seperate div's into tabs. You can see it at http://www.wtvynews4.com/test I've kludged together some code from a tutorial site. <script charset="utf-8" type="text/javascript"> jQuery(function() { //When page loads... $("div[ondblclick$='87119417']").attr("id", "87119417"); $("div[ondblclick$='87119482']").attr("id", "87119482"); $("div[ondblclick$='87119672']").attr("id", "87119672"); $("div[ondblclick$='87119727']").attr("id", "87119727"); $("div[ondblclick$='87119812']").attr("id", "87119812"); $("div[ondblclick$='87119417']").addClass("tab_content"); $("div[ondblclick$='87119482']").addClass("tab_content"); $("div[ondblclick$='87119672']").addClass("tab_content"); $("div[ondblclick$='87119727']").addClass("tab_content"); $("div[ondblclick$='87119812']").addClass("tab_content"); $(".tab_content").hide(); //Hide all content $("ul.morenewstabs li:first").addClass("active").show(); //Activate first tab $(".tab_content:first").show(); //Show first tab content //On Click Event $("ul.morenewstabs li").click(function() { $("ul.morenewstabs li").removeClass("active"); //Remove any "active" class $(this).addClass("active"); //Add "active" class to selected tab $(".tab_content").hide(); //Hide all tab content var activeTab = $(this).find("a").attr("href"); //Find the href attribute value to identify the active tab + content $(activeTab).show(); //Fade in the active ID content return false; }); }); </script> Everything works fine in Firefox but not IE. can you provide any assistance? When the page loads the attribute ID's and classes aren't assigned. I tried changing jQuery(function() { to $(document).ready(function() still no luck.

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  • Get value of selected field from a dropdown list

    - by 47
    I have this class in my model: class ServiceCharge(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=30) amount = models.PositiveIntegerField() extends_membership = models.BooleanField(default=False) def __unicode__(self): return str(self.name) What I want to have is in the form for charging users a service charge, when a charge is selected from the dropdown menu, the two values for amount and extends_membership are updated on the form depending on the selected charge. My forms.py: class vModelChoiceField(forms.ModelChoiceField): def label_from_instance(self, obj): return "%s" % obj.name class PayServiceChargeForm(PaymentsForm): service_charge = vModelChoiceField(queryset=ServiceCharge.objects.all(), empty_label=" ") class Meta(PaymentsForm.Meta): exclude = ('member', 'payment_type', 'transacted_by', 'description') Then the form template: <table border="0"> <tr> <td><strong>{% trans "Service Charge" %}</strong></td> <td>{{ form.service_charge }}</td> <td><strong>{% trans "Extends Membership" %}</strong></td> <td>{{ form.extends_membership }}</td> </tr> <tr> <td valign="top"><strong>{% trans "Expiry Date" %}</strong></td> <td valign="top">{{ form.expiry_date }}</td> <td valign="top"><strong>{% trans "Amount" %}</strong></td> <td>{{ form.amount }}</td> </tr> </table> I was trying out some jQuery but I got stuck after getting the currently selected charge: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#id_service_charge").change(onSelectChange); }); function onSelectChange(){ var selected = $("#id_service_charge option:selected"); var output = ""; if(selected.val() != 0){ charge = selected.val(); .... (update values) .... } } </script>

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  • Javascript Namespace Help

    - by Jason
    Hi, I have a pretty big Javascript script with loads of global variables & functions in it. Then a piece of code that calls one function from this js file: myfunc(); Ok, now I have cloned this script and modified some functionality, all function prototypes and variables are named the same in both scripts. So now I have two scripts loaded and one call to myfunc(), now we have a clash because there are loads of global variables with the same names and two myfunc()s. What I want to do is wrap this cloned script in a namespace, so that I can modify the original call to: clone.myfunc() which will call the new function, but I also want myfunc() to just refer to the original script. In other words I can't touch the original script (no permissions) and I want to be able to use both the clone and the original at runtime. This is the script im cloning: http://pastebin.com/6KR5T3Ah Javascript namespaces seem quite tricky this seems a nice namespace method: var namespace = { foo: function() { } bar: function() { } } ... namespace.foo(); } However that requires using an object, and the script (as posted above) is humongous at nearly 4000 lines, too much to objectize I think? Anyone know a better solution to avoid namespace pollution, with one script I cant touch and one being a clone of that script. Just so I can call myfunc() and clone.myfunc() and all global variables will behave in their respected scope. It's either that, or I go through and modify everything to have unique names, which may take a lifetime This is a Mozilla addon if it helps context wise. Thanks.

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  • getting nullpointer exception when click on button

    - by user1315187
    I am use a button and when u click this button a text field is automatic created and button status is automatic disable but if u click on disable button text field is automatic delete and button status is changed to enable.i going through this process. public class ConfigurationScreen extends MainScreen implements FieldChangeListener{ TextField tf_text; tf_text = new TextField(TextField.TYPE_PLAIN,img_text[1],img_text[0],TextField.FIELD_HCENTER); tf_text.setWidth(Display.getWidth()/2+20); ImageButton btn_en; btn_en = new ImageButton(imgs_tmintrvl1,"enable",ImageButton.FIELD_HCENTER); ImageButton btn_dis; btn_dis=new ImageButton(imgs_tmintrvl1,"Disable",ImageButton.FIELD_HCENTER); add(btn_en); btn_en.setChangeListener(this); public void fieldChanged(Field field, int context) { if( field==btn_en) { delete(btn_en); insert(btn_dis, 4); insert(tf_text, 5); System.out.println(ex); }else if (field == btn_dis){ delete(btn_dis); delete(tf_text); insert(btn_en, 4); System.out.println("Disable Button="+ex); } } But when i run this code i am getting null pointerr exception please help me where i am making mistake. Thanks in Advance

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  • WCF publish/subscribe service, and ASP.NET MVC client

    - by d3j4vu
    I managed to develop a custom WCF service, using the publish / subscribe model, and hosted inside a managed windows service. Everything's working. I developed an interface as the service contract implementing a method definition marked as a non-one way operation contract (OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)]. This, to make possible returns an instance of a custom class derived from System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult. In the MVC app, event fires ok. It wraps inside an action method, (just the one defined in the interface), but, and this is my current problem, i believe that something relative to the execution context of the windows service (and the hosted wcf counterpart) blocks the execution of the action method in the MVC app. This is what i have until now (some pieces ripped off just to be more clear): /// Method definition for the contract's service. Maps to a MVC ActionMethod. [OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)] ActionResult Imagen(string data, CustomActionResult result); The class to hold an ActionResult derived class instance: public class ServiceEventArgsMvc : ServiceEventArgs { /// <summary> /// /// </summary> public CustomActionResult Result { get; set; } } And the code in the MVC client app: /// <summary> /// Just a simple class to hold an abstract ActionResult derived class instance. /// </summary> public ActionResult Image(string data, CustomActionResult result) { ViewData["data"] = data; return View(); } Ok. ActionMethod sucessfully executes...but when it's done (and usually expected obtain a reditection to a View named Image, like the action method), the WCF service throws a Timeout exception, making clear that he's still waiting for a response from the MVC client. The response never arrives, so the MVC app never finish his work (redirect to the "Image" view as expected). Any ideas?. Guess i'm missing something very simple, but i don't know what it could be. This is drivin' me nuts.

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  • Flash Player, security: If a URL starts with "http://" will the SWF always be loaded into REMOTE san

    - by Pavel
    Seems to be a question for a Flash security guru. Suppose we are loading an external SWF movie with MovieClipLoader.loadMovie(url:String) Is it safe to assume that if url starts with "http://", the movie will be loaded in REMOTE sandbox? We need to tell local SWFs from remote ones to close a security hole. If you need the context read on. We have developed a Projector, written in C++ embedding Flash Player ActiveX. Our Flash application runs inside the Projector. Soon we want to give our users a way to create plugins for the application. The plugins are obviously will be SWF movies. The case I'm afraid of is the following. A bad person creates a malicious evil.swf pretending it to be nice plugin for our app. In case evil.swf is loaded from the local file system it is granted an access to the whole MovieClip tree and Projector API, opening C++ file access operations. On the other hand if evil.swf is loaded from the internet, remotely, it will be locked in REMOTE sandbox by Flash security model. Because of this, we need a reliable way to tell local SWF from remote one before loading it. And we must not make a mistake. So again, is it safe to assume that if url begins with "http://", the clip will be loaded inside REMOTE sandbox?

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  • Externally disabling signals for a Linux program.

    - by Harry
    Hello, On Linux, is it possible to somehow disable signaling for programs externally... that is, without modifying their source code? Context: I'm calling a C (and also a Java) program from within a bash script on Linux. I don't want any interruptions for my bash script, and for the other programs that the script launches (as foreground processes). While I can use a... trap '' INT ... in my bash script to disable the Ctrl C signal, this works only when the program control happens to be in the bash code. That is, if I press Ctrl C while the C program is running, the C program gets interrupted and it exits! This C program is doing some critical operation because of which I don't want it be interrupted. I don't have access to the source code of this C program, so signal handling inside the C program is out of question. #!/bin/bash trap 'echo You pressed Ctrl C' INT # A C program to emulate a real-world, long-running program, # which I don't want to be interrupted, and for which I # don't have the source code! # # File: y.c # To build: gcc -o y y.c # # #include <stdio.h> # int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { # printf("Performing a critical operation...\n"); # for(;;); // Do nothing forever. # printf("Performing a critical operation... done.\n"); # } ./y Regards, /HS

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  • Why my linux signal handler run only once

    - by Henry Fané
    #include <iostream> #include <signal.h> #include <fenv.h> #include <string.h> void signal_handler(int sig, siginfo_t *siginfo, void* context) { std::cout << " signal_handler " << fetestexcept(FE_ALL_EXCEPT) << std::endl; throw "exception"; } void divide() { float a = 1000., b = 0., c, f = 1e-300; c = a / b; std::cout << c << " and f = " << f << std::endl; } void init_sig_hanlder() { feenableexcept(FE_ALL_EXCEPT); struct sigaction sa, initial_sa; sa.sa_sigaction = &signal_handler ; sigemptyset( &sa.sa_mask ) ; sa.sa_flags = SA_SIGINFO; // man sigaction(3) // allows for void(*)(int,siginfo_t*,void*) handler sigaction(SIGFPE, &sa, &initial_sa); } int main(int argc, char** argv) { init_sig_hanlder(); while(true) { try { sleep(1); divide(); } catch(const char * a) { std::cout << "Exception in catch: " << a << std::endl; } catch(...) { std::cout << "Exception in ..." << std::endl; } } return 0; } Produce the following results on Linux/g++4.2: signal_handler 0 Exception in catch: exception inf and f = 0 inf and f = 0 inf and f = 0 inf and f = 0 So, signal handler is executed the first time but the next fp exception does not trigger the handler again. Where am I wrong ?

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  • How do software events work internally?

    - by Duddle
    Hello! I am a student of Computer Science and have learned many of the basic concepts of what is going on "under the hood" while a computer program is running. But recently I realized that I do not understand how software events work efficiently. In hardware, this is easy: instead of the processor "busy waiting" to see if something happened, the component sends an interrupt request. But how does this work in, for example, a mouse-over event? My guess is as follows: if the mouse sends a signal ("moved"), the operating system calculates its new position p, then checks what program is being drawn on the screen, tells that program position p, then the program itself checks what object is at p, checks if any event handlers are associated with said object and finally fires them. That sounds terribly inefficient to me, since a tiny mouse movement equates to a lot of cpu context switches (which I learned are relatively expensive). And then there are dozens of background applications that may want to do stuff of their own as well. Where is my intuition failing me? I realize that even "slow" 500MHz processors do 500 million operations per second, but still it seems too much work for such a simple event. Thanks in advance!

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  • What techniques do you use for emitting data from the server that will solely be used in client side scripts?

    - by chuck
    Hi all, I never found an optimal solution for this problem so I am hoping that some of you out there have a few solutions. Let's say I need to render out a list of checkboxes and each checkbox has a set of additional data that goes with it. This data will be used purely in the context of javascript and jquery. My usual strategy is to render this data in hidden fields that are grouped in the same container as the checkbox. My rendered HTML will look something like this: <div> <input type="checkbox" /> <input type="hidden" class="genreId" /> <input type="hidden" class="titleId" /> </div> My only problem with this is that the data in the hidden fields get posted to the server when the form is submitted. For small amounts of data, this is fine. However, I frequently work with large datasets and a large amount of data is needlessly transferred. UPDATE: Before submitting this post, I just saw that I can add a "DISABLED" attribute to my input element to suppress the submission of data. Is this pretty much the best approach that I can take? Thanks

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  • [jQuery UI - Accordion] Styling active header?

    - by RC
    Hi, Simple issue: I am using Accordion without any UI themes (just barebones, using my own CSS). So far, so good, except that I cannot figure out how to set an "active" style for the currently selected header. The jQuery code: $("#menu").accordion({ event:"mouseover",header:"a.top" }); The HTML code: <a href="#" class="top">XXX1</a> <div class="sub"> <a href="#">Subheading 1</a> <a href="#">Subheading 2</a> <a href="#">Subheading 3</a> </div> <a href="#" class="top">XXX2</a> <div class="sub"> <a href="#">Subheading 1</a> <a href="#">Subheading 2</a> <a href="#">Subheading 3</a> </div> This works great, except that I cannot find a way to define the styles for the active header without using ThemeRoller. Manually setting the following styles in my CSS has no effect: .ui-state-active .ui-widget-content .ui-state-active .ui-state-active a .ui-state-active a:link .ui-state-active a:visited Assistance, please?

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  • Android Facebook RequestListener

    - by Marcus King
    I'm new to Java, but have been a .NET developer for years now and I am a bit confused about the point of the RequestListener object as I can't retrieve the results of my asynchronous calls on the UI thread from what I can tell. My research has told me I should not use singletons or the application context object for getting and storing data. I could use sqlLite, but the data I need is too transient to bother. I would like to know how to have the asyncfacebookrunner object report back it's responses to the UI thread so I can proceed to make decisions between my own api and the objects returned to me from the facebook calls I am making in the async calls. Am I missing something? I can't seem to find a way to get data out. I can pass a Bundle in, but I'm not too sure how to get data out. I would think I would pass it an Intent object to retrieve, but I am not seeing it. I think my eyes are crossed from lack of sleep at this point. Any help here?

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  • Running a process at the Windows 7 Welcome Screen

    - by peelman
    So here's the scoop: I wrote a tiny C# app a while back that displays the hostname, ip address, imaged date, thaw status (we use DeepFreeze), current domain, and the current date/time, to display on the welcome screen of our Windows 7 lab machines. This was to replace our previous information block, which was set statically at startup and actually embedded text into the background, with something a little more dynamic and functional. The app uses a Timer to update the ip address, deepfreeze status, and clock every second, and it checks to see if a user has logged in and kills itself when it detects such a condition. If we just run it, via our startup script (set via group policy), it holds the script open and the machine never makes it to the login prompt. If we use something like the start or cmd commands to start it off under a separate shell/process, it runs until the startup script finishes, at which point Windows seems to clean up any and all child processes of the script. We're currently able to bypass that using psexec -s -d -i -x to fire it off, which lets it persist after the startup script is completed, but can be incredibly slow, adding anywhere between 5 seconds and over a minute to our startup time. We have experimented with using another C# app to start the process, via the Process class, using WMI Calls (Win32_Process and Win32_ProcessStartup) with various startup flags, etc, but all end with the same result of the script finishing and the info block process getting killed. I tinkered with rewriting the app as a service, but services were never designed to interact with the desktop, let alone the login window, and getting things operating in the right context never really seemed to work out. So for the question: Does anybody have a good way to accomplish this? Launch a task so that it would be independent of the startup script and run on top of the welcome screen?

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  • C++ reference variable again!!!

    - by kumar_m_kiran
    Hi All, I think most would be surprised about the topic again, However I am referring to a book "C++ Common Knowledge: Essential Intermediate Programming" written by "Stephen C. Dewhurst". In the book, he quotes a particular sentence (in section under Item 5. References Are Aliases, Not Pointers), which is as below A reference is an alias for an object that already exists prior to the initialization of the reference. Once a reference is initialized to refer to a particular object, it cannot later be made to refer to a different object; a reference is bound to its initializer for its whole lifetime Can anyone please explain the context of "cannot later be made to refer to a different object" Below code works for me, #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { int i = 100; int& ref = i; cout<<ref<<endl; int k = 2000; ref = k; cout<<ref<<endl; return 0; } Here I am referring the variable ref to both i and j variable. And the code works perfectly fine. Am I missing something? I have used SUSE10 64bit linux for testing my sample program. Thanks for your input in advance.

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  • Unexpected behaviour of Process.MainWindowHandle

    - by Ed Guiness
    I've been trying to understand Process.MainWindowHandle. According to MSDN; "The main window is the window that is created when the process is started. After initialization, other windows may be opened, including the Modal and TopLevel windows, but the first window associated with the process remains the main window." (Emphasis added) But while debugging I noticed that MainWindowHandle seemed to change value... which I wasn't expecting, especially after consulting the documentation above. To confirm the behaviour I created a standalone WinForms app with a timer to check the MainWindowHandle of the "DEVENV" (Visual Studio) process every 100ms. Here's the interesting part of this test app... IntPtr oldHWnd = IntPtr.Zero; void GetMainwindowHandle() { Process[] processes = Process.GetProcessesByName("DEVENV"); if (processes.Length!=1) return; IntPtr newHWnd = processes[0].MainWindowHandle; if (newHWnd != oldHWnd) { oldHWnd = newHWnd; textBox1.AppendText(processes[0].MainWindowHandle.ToString("X")+"\r\n"); } } private void timer1Tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { GetMainwindowHandle(); } You can see the value of MainWindowHandle changing when you (for example) click on a drop-down menu inside VS. Perhaps I've misunderstood the documentation. Can anyone shed light?

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  • Stop lazy-loading images?

    - by Greg
    Here's the issue – I followed along with the Apple lazy-load image sample code to handle my graphical tables. It works great. However, my lazy-load image tables are being stacked within a navigation controller so that you can move in and out of menus. While all this works, I'm getting a persistent crash when I move into a table then move immediately back out of it using the "back" button. This appears to be a result of the network connections loading content not being closed properly, or calling back to their released delegates. Now, I've tried working through this and carefully setting all delegates to nil and calling close on all open network connections before releasing a menu. However, I'm still getting the error. Also – short posting my entire application code into this post, I can't really post a specific code snippet that illustrates this situation. I wonder if anyone has ideas for tasks that I may be missing? Do I need to do anything to close a network connection other than closing it and setting it to nil? Also, I'm new to debugging tools – can anyone suggest a good tool to use to watch network connections and see what's causing them to fail? Thanks!

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  • Risky Business with LINQ to SQL and OR Designer?

    - by Toadmyster
    I have two tables with a one to many relationship in SQL 2008. The first table (BBD) PK | BBDataID | int       | Floor_Qty | tinyint       | Construct_Year | char(4)       | etc, etc describes the data common to all buildings and the second (BBDCerts) PK | BBDCertsID | int       | BBDataID | int       | Certification_Type | varchar(20)       | etc, etc is a collection of certifications for a particular building. Thus, the primary key in BBD (BBDataID) is mapped to the corresponding field in BBDCerts via an FK relationship, but BBDCertsID is the second table's primary key and BBDataID is not because it will not be unique. My problem is that I want to be able to use the OR generated data context to get at the list of certs when I access a particular record in the BBD table. For instance: Dim vals = (From q in db.BBD Where q.BBDataID = x Select q.Floor_Qty, q.Construct_Year, q.BBDCerts).SingleOrDefault and later be able to access a particular certification like this: vals.BBDCerts.Certification_Type.First Now, the automatic associations created when the SQL tables are dropped on the design surface don't generate the EntityRef associations that are needed to access the other table using the dot notation. So, I have to use the OR designer to make the BBDCerts BBDataID a primary key (this doesn't affect the actual database), and then manually change the association properties to the appropriate OneToMany settings. There might be a better way to approach this solution but my question is, is the way I've done it safe? I've done a barrage of tests and the correct cert is referenced or updated every time. Frankly, the whole thing makes me nervous.

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  • Why "Content-Length: 0" in POST requests?

    - by stesch
    A customer sometimes sends POST requests with Content-Length: 0 when submitting a form (10 to over 40 fields). We tested it with different browsers and from different locations but couldn't reproduce the error. The customer is using Internet Explorer 7 and a proxy. We asked them to let their system administrator see into the problem from their side. Running some tests without the proxy, etc.. In the meantime (half a year later and still no answer) I'm curious if somebody else knows of similar problems with a Content-Length: 0 request. Maybe from inside some Windows network with a special proxy for big companies. Is there a known problem with Internet Explorer 7? With a proxy system? The Windows network itself? Google only showed something in the context of NTLM (and such) authentication, but we aren't using this in the web application. Maybe it's in the way the proxy operates in the customer's network with Windows logins? (I'm no Windows expert. Just guessing.) I have no further information about the infrastructure.

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  • Is it OK to set state within Event Raising methods?

    - by Greg
    I ran across this pattern in the code of a library I'm using. It sets state within the event raising method, but only if the event is not null. protected virtual void OnMyEvent(EventArgs e) { if(MyEvent != null) { State = "Executing"; // Only sets state if MyEvent != null. MyEvent(this,e); } } Which means that the state is not set when overriding the method: protected override void OnMyEvent(EventArgs e) { base.OnMyEvent(e); Debug.Assert( State == "Executing" ); // This fails } but is only set when handling the event: foo.MyEvent += (o, args) => Debug.Assert(State == "Executing"); // This passes Setting state within the if(MyEvent != null) seems like bad form, but I've checked the Event Design Guidelines and it doesn't mention this. Do you think this code is incorrect? If so, why? (Reference to design guidelines would be helpful). Edit for Context: It's a Control, I'm trying to create subclass of it, and the state that it's setting is calling EnsureChildControls() conditionally based upon there being an event handler. I can call EnsureChildControls() myself, but I consider that something of a hack.

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  • How to insert form data into MySQL database table

    - by Richard
    So I have this registration script: The HTML: <form action="register.php" method="POST"> <label>Username:</label> <input type="text" name="username" /><br /> <label>Password:</label> <input type="text" name="password" /><br /> <label>Gender:</label> <select name="gender"> <optgroup label="genderset"> <option value="Male">Male</option> <option value="Female">Female</option> <option value="Hermaphrodite">Hermaphrodite</option> <option value="Not Sure!!!">Not Sure!!!</option> </optgroup> </select><br /> <input type="submit" value="Register" /> </form> The PHP/SQL: <?php $username = $_POST['username']; $password = $_POST['password']; $gender = $_POST['gender']; mysql_query("INSERT INTO registration_info (username, password, gender) VALUES ('$username', '$password', '$gender') ") ?> The problem is, the username and password gets inserted into the "registration_info" table just fine. But the Gender input from the select drop down menu doesn't. Can some one tell me how to fix this, thanks.

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  • How to create workspace in TFS

    - by kumar
    Hi, I followed this way. To create a workspace to manage your source-controlled files 1. From the File menu, select Source Control, and then click Workspaces. 2. In the Manage Workspaces dialog box, click Add. 3. Type a descriptive name in the Name box, enter a comment describing the new workspace in the Comment box, and provide alternative Owner and Computer name values, as necessary. 4. Under Working Folders, in the Source Control Folder box, click the text box and then the ellipsis (…). 5. In the Browse for Folder dialog box, select a server folder, and then click OK. 6. Under Working Folders, in the Local Folder box, click the text box, and then click the ellipsis (…). 7. In the Browse for Folder dialog box, select a folder on your computer, and then click OK. 8. In the Add Workspace dialog box, click OK to create the workspace. 9. In the Manage Workspaces dialog box, click Close. when I click OK button it should get all the folder from TFS to my Local machine? but its not doing that after clcking ok and Close nothing is happening and my local floder does not contain this files tooo? Thanks

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  • Why is there so much XML in Java these days?

    - by BD at Rivenhill
    This is really more of a philosophy/design issue. I did some work in Java back in the middle 90's and again in the early 2000's and now I'm coming back to it after spending a lot of time in C/C++ and it seems like there was an explosion of XML dependency while I was gone. Major build system tools like ant and maven depend on XML for their configuration, but I'm actually more concerned with all the frameworks, such as Spring, Hibernate, etc. My experience is that powerful supporting libraries like these are where a developer can really get leverage for building programs with lots of features without writing a lot of code, but it really seems like I'm getting one language for the price of two here. I write a bunch of Java classes, but then I also write a bunch of XML files to glue them together. The things that get done in the XML are things that I can see reasonable ways of doing in straight code without the middleman, and they don't really seem to be treated exactly like configuration files: they change rarely and they end up getting committed to source code control like the Java code itself, but they are distributed with the resulting application and need to be unpacked and installed in the classpath in order to get the application to work. I'm working with server applications that are not web-based, so maybe the domain is a bit different from what most people are doing, but I just can't help feeling that I must be doing something wrong here. Can someone point me to a good source of information for why these design choices were made and what problems they are meant to solve so that I can analyze my own experiences in this context?

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  • Do double forward slashes direct IE to use specific css?

    - by kjh
    I have just found something very weird while developing a website. While trying to get a div element to display across the top of the screen, I noticed that I wasn't achieving a desired result in any browser except for old versions of IE. In order to test some different code, instead of deleting the faulty line, I used '//' to comment it out (I'm not really even sure if that works in css) but what happened was, the compatible browsers used the uncommented code, while IE used the code marked by '//'. here is the code: #ban-menu-div{ position:fixed;top:0; //position:relative; //<-- IE keeps the banner with rel pos while the other display:block; // browsers used fixed margin:auto; padding:0px; width:100%; text-align:center; background:black; } so basically, it seems as though // can be used to instruct newer browsers to ignore specific lines of code, and instruct older versions of IE to use it? If this is common practice someone please let me know. it sure makes developing for older browsers a hell of a lot easier

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