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  • Java Socket Returns True

    - by ikurtz
    I hope you can help. Im fairly new to progamming and Im playing around with java Sockets. The problem is the code below. for some reason commSocket = new Socket(hostName, portNumber); is returning true even when it has not connected with the server (server not implemented yet!). Any ideas regarding this situation? For hostName Im passing my local machine IP and for port a manually selected port. public void networkConnect(String hostName, int portNumber){ try { networkConnected = false; netMessage = "Attempting Connection"; NetworkMessage networkMessage = new NetworkMessage(networkConnected, netMessage); commSocket = new Socket(hostName, portNumber); // this returns true!! System.out.println(commSocket.isConnected()); networkConnected = true; netMessage = "Connected: "; System.out.println("hellooo"); } catch (UnknownHostException e){ System.out.println(e.getMessage()); } catch (IOException e){ System.out.println(e.getMessage()); } } Many thanks. EDIT: new Socket(.., ..); is blocking isnt it? i thought in that case if that was processed without exceptions then we have a true connection?

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  • C when to allocate and free memory - before function call, after function call...etc

    - by Keith P
    I am working with my first straight C project, and it has been a while since I worked on C++ for that matter. So the whole memory management is a bit fuzzy. I have a function that I created that will validate some input. In the simple sample below, it just ignores spaces: int validate_input(const char *input_line, char* out_value){ int ret_val = 0; /*false*/ int length = strlen(input_line); cout << "length = " << length << "\n"; out_value =(char*) malloc(sizeof(char) * length + 1); if (0 != length){ int number_found = 0; for (int x = 0; x < length; x++){ if (input_line[x] != ' '){ /*ignore space*/ /*get the character*/ out_value[number_found] = input_line[x]; number_found++; /*increment counter*/ } } out_value[number_found + 1] = '\0'; ret_val = 1; } return ret_val; } Instead of allocating memory inside the function for out_value, should I do it before I call the function and always expect the caller to allocate memory before passing into the function? As a rule of thumb, should any memory allocated inside of a function be always freed before the function returns?

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  • rails 4 -- working with js format from ajax

    - by user101289
    I'm still working on learning Rails, and I have a page with team information that will get updated based on a team's icon click, which fires an ajax call to the controller to populate some tabs. I've read some good info about how to use format.js in the controller to render a partial from a js.coffee or js.erb file. The problem I'm running into is in the coffeescript I think. Right now, I'm getting some data called @schedules from the controller, and passing it to a schedule.js.coffee file that should populate a partial for each record returned and attach it to a table. // schedule.js.coffee $.each @schedules, (schedule) -> ($ '#schedule_data').append("<%= j render(partial: 'schedules/schedule', locals: { s: schedule }) %>") This throws an error `> undefined local variable or method `schedule' for #<#<Class:0x007fe535cd2900>:0x007fe535d32a30>` I tried simplifying the coffeescript to just log the output: $.each @schedules, (schedule) -> console.log(schedule) but this prints nothing. Am I missing something? I am very inexperienced with coffeescript, but it seems like I should be getting some data-- I verified that the schedule items do exist for this team item.

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  • Dynamically how to make a larger link into a smaller one?

    - by lovesang prince
    Currently i am passing one dynamically generated parameter to the facebook to post on the wall. $dynamicparamer="[160,2,4,3,[[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,1,0,1,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[1,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[0,0,1,0,0,0,1,0,0,0,0,0,1,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[1,0,0,0,0,1,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0],[0,0,1,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0,1,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,1,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0],[0,0,1,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0,1,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[1,0,1,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0,1,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[0,0,1,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0]]]";strong text My post is working fine with some small parameter say( $dynamicparamer="[160,2,4,3,[[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,1,0,1,0]) BUT for larger parameter(as shown above), Facebook is not alloiwng to post (Error: link too long)

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  • Unable to pass variables from one view to another

    - by jerincbus
    I have a detail view that includes three UIButtons, each of which pushes a different view on to the stack. One of the buttons is connected to a MKMapView. When that button is pushed I need to send the latitude and longitude variables from the detail view to the map view. I'm trying to add the string declaration in the IBAction: - (IBAction)goToMapView { MapViewController *mapController = [[MapViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MapViewController" bundle:nil]; mapController.address = self.address; mapController.Title = self.Title; mapController.lat = self.lat; mapController.lng = self.lng; //Push the new view on the stack [[self navigationController] pushViewController:mapController animated:YES]; [mapController release]; mapController = nil; } But I get this when I try to build: 'error: incompatible types in assignment' for both lat and lng variables. So my questions are am I going about passing the variables from one view to another the right way? And does the MKMapView accept latitude and longitude as a string or a number?

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  • How could I cache images that I'm pulling from a magento database through ajax?

    - by wes
    Here's script being called through ajax: <?php require_once '../app/Mage.php'; umask(0); /* not Mage::run(); */ Mage::app('default'); $cat_id = ($_POST['cat_id']) ? $_POST['cat_id'] : NULL; try { $category = new Mage_Catalog_Model_Category(); $category->load($cat_id); $collection = $category->getProductCollection(); $output = '<ul>'; foreach ($collection as $product) { $cProduct = Mage::getModel('catalog/product'); $cProduct->load($product->getId()); $output .= '<li><img id="'.$product->getId().'" src="' . (string)Mage::helper('catalog/image')->init($cProduct, 'small_image')->resize(75) . '" class="thumb" /></li>'; } $output .= '</ul>'; echo $output; } catch (Exception $e) { echo 'Caught exception: ', $e->getMessage(), "\n"; } I'm just passing in the Category ID, which I've tacked onto the navigation links, then doing some work to eventually just pass back all product images in that category. I'm using this on a drag and drop build-a-bracelet type of application, and the amount of images returned is sometimes in the 500s. So it get's pretty held up during transmission, sometimes 10 seconds or so. I know I'd do good by caching them some way, just not sure how to go about it. Any help is much appreciated. Thanks. -Wes

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  • DBTransactions between stateless calls using GUIDs

    - by Marty Trenouth
    I'm looking to add transactional support to my DB engine and providing to Abstract Transaction Handling down to passing in Guids with the DB Action Command. The DB engine would run similar to: private static Database DB; public static Dictionary<Guid,DBTransaction> Transactions = new ...() public static void DoDBAction(string cmdstring,List<Parameter> parameters,Guid TransactionGuid) { DBCommand cmd = BuildCommand(cmdstring,parameters); if(Transactions.ContainsKey(TransactionGuid)) cmd.Transaction = Transactions[TransactionGuid]; DB.ExecuteScalar(cmd); } public static BuildCommand(string cmd, List<Parameter> parameters) { // Create DB command from EntLib Database and assign parameters } public static Guid BeginTransaction() { // creates new Transaction adding it to "Transactions" and opens a new connection } public static Guid Commit(Guid g) { // Commits Transaction and removes it from "Transactions" and closes connection } public static Guid Rollback(Guid g) { // Rolls back Transaction and removes it from "Transactions" and closes connection } The Calling system would run similar to: Guid g try { g = DBEngine.BeginTransaction() DBEngine.DoDBAction(cmdstring1, parameters,g) // do some other stuff DBEngine.DoDBAction(cmdstring2, parameters2,g) // sit here and wait for a response from other item DBEngine.DoDBAction(cmdstring3, parameters3,g) DBEngine.Commit(g) } catch(Exception){ DBEngine.Rollback(g);} Does this interfere with .NET connection pooling (other than a connection be accidently left open)? Will EntLib keep the connection open until the commit or rollback?

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  • Good case for a Null Object Pattern? (Provide some service with a mailservice)

    - by fireeyedboy
    For a website I'm working on, I made an Media Service object that I use in the front end, as well as in the backend (CMS). This Media Service object manipulates media in a local repository (DB); it provides the ability to upload/embed video's and upload images. In other words, website visitors are able to do this in the front end, but administrators of the site are also able to do this in the backend. I'ld like this service to mail the administrators when a visitor has uploaded/embedded a new medium in the frontend, but refrain from mailing them when they upload/embed a medium themself in the backend. So I started wondering whether this is a good case for passing a null object, that mimicks the mail funcionality, to the Media Service in the backend. I thought this might come in handy when they decide the backend needs to have implemented mail functionality as well. In simplified terms I'ld like to do something like this: Frontend: $mediaService = new MediaService( new MediaRepository(), new StandardMailService() ); Backend: $mediaService = new MediaService( new MediaRepository(), new NullMailService() ); How do you feel about this? Does this make sense? Or am I setting myself up for problems down the road?

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  • static variable lose its value

    - by user542719
    I have helper class with this static variable that is used for passing data between two classes. public class Helper{ public static String paramDriveMod;//this is the static variable in first calss } this variable is used in following second class mathod public void USB_HandleMessage(char []USB_RXBuffer){ int type=USB_RXBuffer[2]; MESSAGES ms=MESSAGES.values()[type]; switch(ms) { case READ_PARAMETER_VALUE: // read parameter values switch(prm){ case PARAMETER_DRIVE_MODE: // paramet drive mode Helper.paramDriveMod =(Integer.toString(((USB_RXBuffer[4]<< 8)&0xff00))); System.out.println(Helper.paramDriveMod+"drive mode is selectd ");//here it shows the value that I need. ..........}}//let say end switch and method and the following is an third class method use the above class method public void buttonSwitch(int value) throws InterruptedException{ boolean bool=true; int c=0; int delay=(int) Math.random(); while(bool){ int param=3; PARAMETERS prm=PARAMETERS.values()[param]; switch(value){ case 0: value=1; while(c<5){ Thread.sleep(delay); protocol.onSending(3,prm.PARAMETER_DRIVE_MODE.ordinal(),dataToRead,dataToRead.length);//read drive mode System.out.println(Helper.paramDriveMod+" drive mode is ..........in wile loop");//here it shows null value }}//let say end switch and method what is the reason that this variable lose its value?

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  • How do I pass an NSString through 3 ViewControllers?

    - by dBloc
    hey, I'm currently using the iPhone SDK and I'm having trouble passing an NSString through 3 views I am able to pass an NSString between 2 view controllers but I am unable to pass it through another one. My code is as follows... `- (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)index`Path { NSString *string1 = nil; NSDictionary *dictionary = [listOfItems objectAtIndex:indexPath.section]; NSArray *array = [dictionary objectForKey:@"items"]; string1 = [array objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; //Initialize the detail view controller and display it. ViewController2 *vc2 = [[ViewController2 alloc] initWithNibName:@"ViewController2" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; vc2.string1 = string1; [self.navigationController pushViewController:vc2 animated:YES]; [vc2 release]; vc2 = nil; } in the "ViewController 2" implementations I am able use "string1" in the title bar by doing the following.... - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; self.navigationItem.title = string1; UIBarButtonItem *addButton = [[[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"icon_time.png"] style:UIBarButtonItemStylePlain //style:UIBarButtonItemStyleBordered target:self action:@selector(goToThirdView)] autorelease]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = addButton; } but I also have a NavBar Button on the right side that I would like to push a new view - (void)goToThirdView { ViewController3 *vc3 = [[ViewController3 alloc] initWithNibName:@"ViewController3" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:NESW animated:YES]; vc3.string1 = string1 ; [vc3 release]; vc3 = nil; } How do I pass on that same string to the third view? (or fourth)

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  • Where does java.util.logging.Logger store their log

    - by Harry Pham
    This might be a stupid question but I am a bit lost with java Logger private static Logger logger = Logger.getLogger("order.web.OrderManager"); logger.info("Removed order " + id + "."); Where do I see the log? Also this quote from java.util.logging.Logger library: On each logging call the Logger initially performs a cheap check of the request level (e.g. SEVERE or FINE) against the effective log level of the logger. If the request level is lower than the log level, the logging call returns immediately. After passing this initial (cheap) test, the Logger will allocate a LogRecord to describe the logging message. It will then call a Filter (if present) to do a more detailed check on whether the record should be published. If that passes it will then publish the LogRecord to its output Handlers. Does this mean that if I have 3 request level log: logger.log(Level.FINE, "Something"); logger.log(Level.WARNING, "Something"); logger.log(Level.SEVERE, "Something"); And my log level is SEVERE, I can see all three logs, if my log level is WARNING, then I cant see SEVERE log, is that correct? And how do I set the log level?

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  • Is is possible to determine a password input string as plaintext or hashed?

    - by Godders
    I have a RESTful API containing a URI of /UserService/Register. /UserService/Register takes an XML request such as: <UserRegistrationRequest> <Password>password</Password> <Profile> <User> <UserName>username</UserName> </User> </Profile> </UserRegistrationRequest> I have the following questions given the above scenario: Is there a way (using C# and .Net 3.5+) of enforcing/validating that clients calling Register are passing a hashed password rather than plaintext? Is leaving the choice of hashing algorithm to be used to the client a good idea? We could provide a second URI of /UserService/ComputePasswordHash which the client would call before calling /UserService/Register. This has the benefit of ensuring that each password is hashed using the same algorithm. Is there a mechanism within REST to ensure that a client has called one URI before calling another? Hope I've explained myself ok. Many thanks in advance for any help.

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  • When is a method eligible to be inlined by the CLR?

    - by Ani
    I've observed a lot of "stack-introspective" code in applications, which often implicitly rely on their containing methods not being inlined for their correctness. Such methods commonly involve calls to: MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod Assembly.GetCallingAssembly Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly Now, I find the information surrounding these methods to be very confusing. I've heard that the run-time will not inline a method that calls GetCurrentMethod, but I can't find any documentation to that effect. I've seen posts on StackOverflow on several occasions, such as this one, indicating the CLR does not inline cross-assembly calls, but the GetCallingAssembly documentation strongly indicates otherwise. There's also the much-maligned [MethodImpl(MethodImpOptions.NoInlining)], but I am unsure if the CLR considers this to be a "request" or a "command." Note that I am asking about inlining eligibility from the standpoint of contract, not about when current implementations of the JITter decline to consider methods because of implementation difficulties, or about when the JITter finally ends up choosing to inline an eligible method after assessing the trade-offs. I have read this and this, but they seem to be more focused on the last two points (there are passing mentions of MethodImpOptions.NoInlining and "exotic IL instructions", but these seem to be presented as heuristics rather than as obligations). When is the CLR allowed to inline?

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  • Dependency injection in constructors

    - by andre
    Hello everyone. I'm starting a new project and setting up the base to work on. A few questions have risen and I'll probably be asking quite a few in here, hopefully I'll find some answers. First step is to handle dependencies for objects. I've decided to go with the dependency injection design pattern, to which I'm somewhat new, to handle all of this for the application. When actually coding it I came across a problem. If a class has multiple dependencies and you want to pass on multiple dependencies via the constructor (so that they cannot be changed after you instantiate the object). How do you do it without passing an array of dependencies, using call_user_func_array(), eval() or Reflection? This is what i'm looking for: <?php class DI { public function getClass($classname) { if(!$this->pool[$classname]) { # Load dependencies $deps = $this->loadDependencies($classname); # Here is where the magic should happen $instance = new $classname($dep1, $dep2, $dep3); # Add to pool $this->pool[$classname] = $instance; return $instance; } else { return $this->pool[$classname]; } } } Again, I would like to avoid the most costly methods to call the class. Any other suggestions?

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  • ASP.NET MVC (VB) error when publishing to test server

    - by Colin
    I have an ASP.NET MVC project that works fine on my local machine (no build errors, server errors or anything). However, when I publish the project to a test server, I get an "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" error on a For Each I have in my view. I have a function within a model that returns a DataRowCollection. I'm calling that function in my controller and passing the DataRowCollection to my View, which then iterates over the rows and displays the necessary information: In the Controller I have: Function Index() As ActionResult Dim MyModel As New Model ViewData("MyDataRowCollection") = MyModel.GetDataRowCollection() Return View() End Function And then in the View, which is throwing the error: <%@ Page Language="VB" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %> <asp:Content ID="indexTitle" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> My Page Title </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="indexContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% For Each MyDataRow In ViewData("MyDataRowCollection") ' do stuff with each MyDataRow Next %> I'm pretty new to ASP.NET MVC so I'm sure there might be a better way to do what I'm doing (I'd be happy to hear if there is), but my main concern is why this works fine on my local machine but throws an error on the For Each on the test server? Please let me know if I can clarify any of the above, and thanks in advance for any information.

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  • Updating section in ConfigParser (or an alternative)

    - by lyrae
    I am making a plugin for another program and so I am trying to make thing as lightweight as possible. What i need to do is be able to update the name of a section in the ConfigParser's config file. [project name] author:john doe email: [email protected] year: 2010 I then have text fields where user can edit project's name, author, email and year. I don't think changing [project name] is possible, so I have thought of two solutions: 1 -Have my config file like this: [0] projectname: foobar author:john doe email: [email protected] year: 2010 that way i can change project's name just like another option. But the problem is, i would need the section # to be auto incremented. And to do this i would have to get every section, sort of, and figure out what the next number should be. The other option would be to delete the entire section and its value, and re-add it with the updated values which would require a little more work as well, such as passing a variable that holds the old section name through functions, etc, but i wouldn't mind if it's faster. Which of the two is best? or is there another way? I am willing to go with the fastest/lightweight solution possible, doesn't matter if it requires more work or not.

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  • Ajax request gets to server but page doesn't update - Rails, jQuery

    - by Jesse
    So I have a scenario where my jQuery ajax request is hitting the server, but the page won't update. I'm stumped... Here's the ajax request: $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: '/jsrender', data: "id=" + $.fragment().nav.replace("_link", "") }); Watching the rails logs, I get the following: Processing ProductsController#jsrender (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-03-17 23:07:35) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"jsrender", "id"=>"products", "controller"=>"products"} ... Rendering products/jsrender.rjs Completed in 651ms (View: 608, DB: 17) | 200 OK [http://localhost/jsrender?id=products] So, it seems apparent to me that the ajax request is getting to the server. The code in the jsrender method is being executed, but the code in the jsrender.rjs doesn't fire. Here's the method, jsrender: def jsrender @currentview = "shared/#{params[:id]}" respond_to do |format| format.js {render :template => 'products/jsrender.rjs'} end end For the sake of argument, the code in jsrender.rjs is: page<<"alert('this works!');" Why is this? I see in the params that there is no authenticity_token, but I have tried passing an authenticity_token as well with the same result. Thanks in advance.

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  • PHP OOP: Avoid Singleton/Static Methods in Domain Model Pattern

    - by sunwukung
    I understand the importance of Dependency Injection and its role in Unit testing, which is why the following issue is giving me pause: One area where I struggle not to use the Singleton is the Identity Map/Unit of Work pattern (Which keeps tabs on Domain Object state). //Not actual code, but it should demonstrate the point class Monitor{//singleton construction omitted for brevity static $members = array();//keeps record of all objects static $dirty = array();//keeps record of all modified objects static $clean = array();//keeps record of all clean objects } class Mapper{//queries database, maps values to object fields public function find($id){ if(isset(Monitor::members[$id]){ return Monitor::members[$id]; } $values = $this->selectStmt($id); //field mapping process omitted for brevity $Object = new Object($values); Monitor::new[$id]=$Object return $Object; } $User = $UserMapper->find(1);//domain object is registered in Id Map $User->changePropertyX();//object is marked "dirty" in UoW // at this point, I can save by passing the Domain Object back to the Mapper $UserMapper->save($User);//object is marked clean in UoW //but a nicer API would be something like this $User->save(); //but if I want to do this - it has to make a call to the mapper/db somehow $User->getBlogPosts(); //or else have to generate specific collection/object graphing methods in the mapper $UserPosts = $UserMapper->getBlogPosts(); $User->setPosts($UserPosts); Any advice on how you might handle this situation? I would be loathe to pass/generate instances of the mapper/database access into the Domain Object itself to satisfy DI - At the same time, avoiding that results in lots of calls within the Domain Object to external static methods. Although I guess if I want "save" to be part of its behaviour then a facility to do so is required in its construction. Perhaps it's a problem with responsibility, the Domain Object shouldn't be burdened with saving. It's just quite a neat feature from the Active Record pattern - it would be nice to implement it in some way.

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  • Are SQL Reporting Services Report Parameters deprecated in VS.NET 2010?

    - by Jason Kealey
    We use an Reporting Services inside an ASP.NET web application. (We have an *.rdlc which is presented to the ReportViewer web control in our page). Our ASPX page wires up a few report parameters in code: var parameters = new List<ReportParameter>(); parameters.Add(new ReportParameter("StoreAddress", InvoiceStoreAddress)); parameters.Add(new ReportParameter("LogoURL", InvoiceLogoURL)); parameters.Add(new ReportParameter("StoreName", InvoiceStoreName)); ReportViewer1.LocalReport.SetParameters(parameters); These are just general parameters that are passed to the report, instead of hooking it up to a data source. Recently, we upgraded to VS.NET 2010. We upgraded the *.rdlc to the newest version and also upgraded the ReportViewer control used by ASP.NET. Everything works as it did before. However, I now want to add a new report parameter to my *.rdlc. I typically right-clicked on the top left corner and clicked on "Report Parameters" to add it. With the new VS.NET, I cannot find this option anywhere - it is not even in the report properties. Where did it go? Are the deprecating this feature? How should I be passing some general parameters now?

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  • Python : How to close a UDP socket while is waiting for data in recv ?

    - by alexroat
    Hello, let's consider this code in python: import socket import threading import sys import select class UDPServer: def __init__(self): self.s=None self.t=None def start(self,port=8888): if not self.s: self.s=socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_DGRAM) self.s.bind(("",port)) self.t=threading.Thread(target=self.run) self.t.start() def stop(self): if self.s: self.s.close() self.t.join() self.t=None def run(self): while True: try: #receive data data,addr=self.s.recvfrom(1024) self.onPacket(addr,data) except: break self.s=None def onPacket(self,addr,data): print addr,data us=UDPServer() while True: sys.stdout.write("UDP server> ") cmd=sys.stdin.readline() if cmd=="start\n": print "starting server..." us.start(8888) print "done" elif cmd=="stop\n": print "stopping server..." us.stop() print "done" elif cmd=="quit\n": print "Quitting ..." us.stop() break; print "bye bye" It runs an interactive shell with which I can start and stop an UDP server. The server is implemented through a class which launches a thread in which there's a infinite loop of recv/*onPacket* callback inside a try/except block which should detect the error and the exits from the loop. What I expect is that when I type "stop" on the shell the socket is closed and an exception is raised by the recvfrom function because of the invalidation of the file descriptor. Instead, it seems that recvfrom still to block the thread waiting for data even after the close call. Why this strange behavior ? I've always used this patter to implements an UDP server in C++ and JAVA and it always worked. I've tried also with a "select" passing a list with the socket to the xread argument, in order to get an event of file descriptor disruption from select instead that from recvfrom, but select seems to be "insensible" to the close too. I need to have a unique code which maintain the same behavior on Linux and Windows with python 2.5 - 2.6. Thanks.

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  • Is there an x86 or x64 emulator that passes system calls back to the Windows API?

    - by Chris Lomont
    I want to emulate windows programs (not VM, true emulation) under windows. This would require the emulator to make calls back to the system APIs, but the program itself would be emulated. The reason is I want to change the opcode formats for research purposes. The process should be: Take existing program. Disassemble and then reassemble with my new opcode formats. Put the new format into the PE with a stub calling the emulator and passing the new code. The emulator would have to pass system calls from the emulated side back to windows API calls. I can do all these steps, except I need an open source emulator with the ability to pass the API calls out. I could try Bochs or QEMU, but I think I'd have to add in the system calls, which I could do if needed. I wonder if there is already something closer to what I need. I know I would have to change the instruction decoding in the emulator to match my new formats, but that is a given. Thanks.

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  • JApplet behaving unexpectedly

    - by JohnW
    import java.awt.Graphics; import java.awt.Image; import java.awt.event.ActionEvent; import java.awt.event.ActionListener; import javax.swing.JApplet; import javax.swing.Timer; public class CountingSheep extends JApplet { private Image sheepImage; private Image backgroundImage; private GameBoard gameBoard; private scoreBoard scoreBoard; public void init() { loadImages(); gameBoard = new GameBoard(sheepImage, backgroundImage); scoreBoard = new scoreBoard(); getContentPane().add(gameBoard); getContentPane().add(scoreBoard); } public void loadImages() { sheepImage = getImage(getDocumentBase(), "sheep.png"); backgroundImage = getImage(getDocumentBase(), "bg.jpg"); } } Update guys: Alright, first of all, thank you very much for all the help you've given so far (specifically creemam and Hovercraft Full of Eels), and your persistence. You've helped me out a lot as this is incredibly important (i.e. me passing my degree). The problem now is: The program works correctly when nothing but the GameBoard class is added to the JApplet, however, when I try to add the ScoreBoard class, both Panel classes do not show on the Applet. I'm guessing this is now down to positioning? Any ideas? EDIT: Gone back to the previously asked question Hovercraft, and found it was due to the layout of the contentPane and the order at with the components were added. Thanks to all of you so much. People like you make the development community a bit of alright.

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  • Spring Form: Submitting extra parameter on submit buttons

    - by theringostarrs
    Hi, I am working on a form with a bunch of selection criteria that will generate a report when the form is submitted. I also have a number of different reports that can be generated form this same criteria, and want the type of report to be selectable by using a tab system where each tab clicked on submits the form and generates the correct report. I was to do this by passing an extra parameter into the form to switch onto the right form type I am new to Spring, and from the guidance of an elder was told to use an input button for each tab with the following approximate syntax: <input type="submit" name="${form.selectionValues.tabSelection}" value="1" /> tabSelection form property of the SelectionValues object is not being set. I wasn't surprised ;) DIdn't think this would work. So I am wondering how can I can submit a post back from a button in Spring containing the form values plus an extra tabSelection parameter and value? How should I mark up this mechanism? Will I have to do anything to the form controller to register this extra parameter? The original markup I was using to build this page, was using HTML anchor tags instead of buttons for the tab links, which would be much better for the CSS, is there any way to trigger a full form submit using an anchor href? I know this will be a GET request instead of a POST, and not associated with the form.. so I dont expect this to work.. just trying to think of solutions! I would prefer to use the priginal markup, as the styles are there. Any help would be appreciated

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  • What's an effective way to move data from one open browser tab to another?

    - by slk
    I am looking for a quick way to grab some data off of one Web page and throw it into another. I don't have access to the query string in the URL of the second page, so passing the data that way is not an option. Right now, I am using a Greasemonkey user script in tandem with a JS bookmarklet trigger: javascript:doIt(); // ==UserScript== // @include public_site // @include internal_site // ==/UserScript== if (document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { var datum1 = GM_getValue("d1"); var datum2 = GM_getValue("d2"); } unsafeWindow.doIt = function() { if(document.location.host.match(public_site)) { var d1 = innerHTML of page element 1; var d2 = innerHTML of page element 2; //Next two lines use setTimeout to bypass GM_setValue restriction window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d1", d1);}, 0); window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d2", d2);}, 0); } else if(document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { document.getElementById("field1").value = datum1; document.getElementById("field2").value = datum2; } } While I am open to another method, I would prefer to stay with this basic model if possible, as this is just a small fraction of the code in doIt() which is used on several other pages, mostly to automate date-based form fills; people really like their "magic button." The above code works, but there's an interruption to the workflow: In order for the user to know which page on the public site to grab data from, the internal page has to be opened first. Then, once the GM cookie is set from the public page, the internal page has to be reloaded to get the proper information into the internal page variables. I'm wondering if there's any way to GM_getValue() at bookmarklet-clicktime to prevent the need for a refresh. Thanks!

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  • How do I keep users from spoofing data through a form?

    - by Jonathan
    I have a site which has been running for some time now that uses a great deal of user input to build the site. Naturally there are dozens of forms on the site. When building the site, I often used hidden form fields to pass data back to the server so that I know which record to update. an example might be: <input type="hidden" name="id" value="132" /> <input type="text" name="total_price" value="15.02" /> When the form is submitted, these values get passed to the server and I update the records based on the data passed (i.e. the price of record 132 would get changed to 15.02). I recently found out that you can change the attributes and values via something as simple as firebug. So...I open firebug and change the id value to "155" and the price value to "0.00" and then submit the form. Viola! I view product number 155 on the site and it now says that it's $0.00. This concerns me. How can I know which record to update without either a query string (easily modified) or a hidden input element passing the id to the server? And if there's no better way (I've seen literally thousands of websites that pass the data this way), then how would I make it so that if a user changes these values, the data on the server side is not executed (or something similar to solve the issue)? I've thought about encrypting the id and then decrypting it on the other side, but that still doesn't protect me from someone changing it and just happening to get something that matches another id in the database. I've also thought about cookies, but I've heard that those can be manipulated as well. Any ideas? This seems like a HUGE security risk to me.

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