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  • Overloading generic implicit conversions

    - by raichoo
    Hi I'm having a little scala (version 2.8.0RC1) problem with implicit conversions. Whenever importing more than one implicit conversion the first one gets shadowed. Here is the code where the problem shows up: // containers class Maybe[T] case class Nothing[T]() extends Maybe[T] case class Just[T](value: T) extends Maybe[T] case class Value[T](value: T) trait Monad[C[_]] { def >>=[A, B](a: C[A], f: A => C[B]): C[B] def pure[A](a: A): C[A] } // implicit converter trait Extender[C[_]] { class Wrapper[A](c: C[A]) { def >>=[B](f: A => C[B])(implicit m: Monad[C]): C[B] = { m >>= (c, f) } def >>[B](b: C[B])(implicit m: Monad[C]): C[B] = { m >>= (c, { (x: A) => b } ) } } implicit def extendToMonad[A](c: C[A]) = new Wrapper[A](c) } // instance maybe object maybemonad extends Extender[Maybe] { implicit object MaybeMonad extends Monad[Maybe] { override def >>=[A, B](a: Maybe[A], f: A => Maybe[B]): Maybe[B] = { a match { case Just(x) => f(x) case Nothing() => Nothing() } } override def pure[A](a: A): Maybe[A] = Just(a) } } // instance value object identitymonad extends Extender[Value] { implicit object IdentityMonad extends Monad[Value] { override def >>=[A, B](a: Value[A], f: A => Value[B]): Value[B] = { a match { case Value(x) => f(x) } } override def pure[A](a: A): Value[A] = Value(a) } } import maybemonad._ //import identitymonad._ object Main { def main(args: Array[String]): Unit = { println(Just(1) >>= { (x: Int) => MaybeMonad.pure(x) }) } } When uncommenting the second import statement everything goes wrong since the first "extendToMonad" is shadowed. However, this one works: object Main { implicit def foo(a: Int) = new { def foobar(): Unit = { println("Foobar") } } implicit def foo(a: String) = new { def foobar(): Unit = { println(a) } } def main(args: Array[String]): Unit = { 1 foobar() "bla" foobar() } } So, where is the catch? What am I missing? Regards, raichoo

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  • Create a real time web application using .net framework and azure - very confused

    - by test
    Let us say I would like a simple (yet complex) web application where there is continuous READING AND WRITING to the sql azure database. Let us say I am tracking a location, and I would like it to be updated very frequently (lets take the worst case: 1 second). From the little knowledge I have, I think that this involves the use of the database to continuously write the location to the database, and continuously read from the database to update another person through a website. Do you please have any suggestion which technologies can I use? Is there a simple way? I heard about node.js, signalR. I have no idea how to use them, if they are really what I need. the last tutorial I checked out simply uses a while(true) loop..but I don't think that that's something good to keep a thread continuously busy... Do I have to create some background task? Do I have to create some web service? This is a school project and I wish not to go for the most difficult option, but if there is some sort of solution, challenge accepted :) Can you please help me? Since I have asked many questions here and yet I have no solution in mind

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  • Visual studio erroneous errors when building a website?

    - by Curtis White
    Visual Studio 2008 shows a lot of erroneous errors when building a website (not a web project) in the errors list. These errors are usually corrected (removed) when I rebuild the site a couple times but they cost me wasted time. Is there anyway to hide the erroneous errors? Update: I've decided to look into this to see if I could reproduce it. This is the exact behavior I am seeing, using the website model, I type some invalid syntax on a page. The errors list fills up with errors. I correct the error and the errors list does not update. I build the project and the errors list still shows the errors but the build shows as build completed. I build the project a second time and the errors list is cleared. My question is there anyway to make the errors list clear on the first build? I thought it might have something to do with page build vs website build but it seems to make no difference. I am not using any third party dlls on this website.

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  • Server.TransferRequest returns blank page on specific server

    - by jishi
    I'm facing an issue that seems to be related to configuration. I have a webapplication based on MonoRail, where we utilize the routing feature from MonoRail. On the first request after the application has started, the routing isn't initialized. To circumvent this, I have the following code in Application_OnError(): public virtual void Application_OnError() { if ( // identified as routing error ) Server.TransferRequest( Context.Request.RawUrl, false ); return; } Problem beeing that on our development server (which runs server 2008 R2, with IIS 7.5 and .NET 3.5) returns a blank page without headers, but on my workstation (which runs win7, IIS 7.5 and .NET 3.5) it works fine. What could be the cause of this? If the code in Application_OnError() throws an exception, what would be the expected output? I have verified the following: The access-log shows one entry, I'm not sure if a TransferRequest would show up as a second entry when invoked successfully The application actually do some work according to my internal logs, and it doesn't die since a subsequent requests works flawlessly (because routing will be active) Any hints on what to look for would be greatly appreciated!

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  • How to properly load HTML data from third party website using MVC+AJAX?

    - by Dmitry
    I'm building ASP.NET MVC2 website that lets users store and analyze data about goods found on various online trade sites. When user is filling a form to create or edit an item, he should have a button "Import data" that automatically fills some fields based on data from third party website. The question is: what should this button do under the hood? I see at least 2 possible solutions. First. Do the import on client side using AJAX+jQuery load method. I tried it in IE8 and received browser warning popup about insecure script actions. Of course, it is completely unacceptable. Second. Add method ImportData(string URL) to ItemController class. It is called via AJAX, does the import + data processing server-side and returns JSON-d result to client. I tried it and received server exception (503) Server unavailable when loading HTML data into XMLDocument. Also I have a feeling that dealing with not well-formed HTML (missing closing tags, etc.) will be a huge pain. Any ideas how to parse such HTML documents?

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  • Rails: Multiple "types" of one model through related models?

    - by neezer
    I have a User model in my app, which I would like to store basic user information, such as email address, first and last name, phone number, etc. I also have many different types of users in my system, including sales agents, clients, guests, etc. I would like to be able to use the same User model as a base for all the others, so that I don't have to include all the fields for all the related roles in one model, and can delegate as necessary (cutting down on duplicate database fields as well as providing easy mobility from changing one user of one type to another). So, what I'd like is this: User -- first name -- last name -- email --> is a "client", so ---- client field 1 ---- client field 2 ---- client field 3 User -- first name -- last name -- email --> is a "sales agent", so ---- sales agent field 1 ---- sales agent field 2 ---- sales agent field 3 and so on... In addition, when a new user signs up, I want that new user to automatically be assigned the role of "client" (I'm talking about database fields here, not authorization, though I hope to eventually include this logic in my user authorization as well). I have a multi-step signup wizard I'm trying to build with wizardly. The first step is easy, since I'm simply calling the fields included in the base User model (such as first_name and email), but the second step is trickier since it should be calling in fields from the associated model (like--per my example above--the model client with fields client_field_1 or client_field_2, as if those fields were part of User). Does that make sense? Let me know if that wasn't clear at all, and I'll try to explain it in a different way. Can anyone help me with this? How would I do this?

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  • MySQL Paritioning performance

    - by Imran Pathan
    Measured performance on key partitioned tables and normal tables separately. But we couldn't find any performance improvement with partitioning. Queries are pruned. Using MySQL 5.1.47 on RHEL 4. Table details: UserUsage - Will have entries for user mobile number and data usage for each date. Mobile number and Date as PRI KEY. UserProfile - Queries prev table and stores summary for each mobile number. Mobile number PRI KEY. CREATE TABLE `UserUsage` ( `Msisdn` decimal(20,0) NOT NULL, `Date` date NOT NULL, . . PRIMARY KEY USING BTREE (`Msisdn`,`Date`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 PARTITION BY KEY(Msisdn) PARTITIONS 50; CREATE TABLE `UserProfile` ( `Msisdn` decimal(20,0) NOT NULL, . . PRIMARY KEY (`Msisdn`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 PARTITION BY KEY(Msisdn) PARTITIONS 50; Second table is updated by query select and order by date in first table in a perl program, query is select * from UserUsage where Msisdn=number order by Date desc limit 7 [Process data in perl] update UserProfile values(....) where Msisdn=number explain partition for select, shows row being scanned in a particular partition only. Is something wrong with partition design or queries as partitioning is taking almost same or more time compared to normal tables?

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  • string auto splitting in each loop - jquery

    - by sluggerdog
    I have the following jquery code that is looping through the returned json data, for some reason is it splitting the suburb by a space when being assigned as the value but not as the text, I cannot work out why this is happening. MY CODE $.each(data , function( index, obj ) { $.each(obj, function( key, value ) { var suburb = $.trim(value['mcdl01']); var number = $.trim(value['mcmcu']); $("#FeedbackBranchName").append("<option value=" + suburb + ">" + suburb + " (" + number + ")</option>"); }); }); SAMPLE RETURNED RESULTS <option **value="AIRLIE" beach=""**>AIRLIE BEACH (4440)</option> <option value="ASHMORE">ASHMORE (4431)</option> <option **value="BANYO" commercial=""**>BANYO COMMERCIAL (4432)</option> <option value="BEENLEIGH">BEENLEIGH (4413)</option> <option value="BERRIMAH">BERRIMAH (4453)</option> <option **value="BOWEN" hills=""**>BOWEN HILLS (4433)</option> Notice how for AIRLEE BEACH, BANYO COMMERICAL AND BOWN HILLS the second word has been separated out from the value attribute but it's fine at the text level. Anyone have any idea why this might happen? Thanks

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  • horizontal uiview's controls unresponsive.. or how to foul up a view hierarchy

    - by Oldmicah
    Hello all, I'm working on an app that has two sections, a config section and a results section. My config section needs to be 2 separate views (horizontal and vert, and yes, I can hear the intake of breath from here), with one rotatable view for the results. b/c of layout restraints and a lot of pain around rotation, I'm not using a navigation controller. I've been experiencing the joys of rotation experimentation and have settled upon keeping my views contained as subviews of my view controller. i.e. view controller.view.subviews = configH, configV, and results. I then use the controller.view bringSubviewToFront to bring the either the configH, configV, or the result view to the front. Rotation works-queue(humor intended) the angelic choirs... almost. What's happening is that my configV button's are responsive, but when the device (or simulator) is rotated, my configH controls are not. (configV is the second subview added, but the first one to be brought to the front because app comes up in portrait mode) The controls on the results view also work. Plan B was to assign the controller.view to configH, configV, or results. All of my controls now work, but rotation is now fouled up. Question 1: Is there a better way to do this? (a horizontal and vertical config view and a rotatable results view) Question 2: Does the above suggest a design issue, or is it more likely that my addled brain is just missing something in my own code. (nothing from the peanut gallery please) many thanks!

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  • Creating a three level ASP.NET menu with SiteMap, how do i do it?

    - by user270399
    I want to create a three level menu, I have got a recursive function today that works with three levels. But the thing is how do i output the third lever? Using two repeaters i have managed to get a hold of the first two levels through the ChildNodes property. But that only gives me the second level. What if a want the third level? Example code below. How do i get the third level? :) <asp:Repeater ID="FirstLevel" DataSourceID="SiteMapDataSource" runat="server" EnableViewState="false"> <ItemTemplate> <li class="top"> <a href='/About/<%#Eval("Title")%>.aspx' class="top_link"><span class="down"><%#Eval("Title")%></span><!--[if gte IE 7]><!--></a><!--<![endif]--> <asp:Repeater runat="server" ID="SecondLevel" DataSource='<%#((SiteMapNode)Container.DataItem).ChildNodes%>'> <HeaderTemplate><!--[if lte IE 6]><table><tr><td><![endif]--><ul class="sub"></HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <li> <a href='<%#((string)Eval("Url")).Replace("~", "")%>' style="text-align: left;"><%#Eval("Title")%></a> Third repeater here? </li> </ItemTemplate> <FooterTemplate></ul><!--[if lte IE 6]></td></tr></table></a><![endif]--></FooterTemplate> </asp:Repeater> </li> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater>

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  • How to use AFIncrementalStore to binding with a NSManagedObject

    - by Matrosov Alexander
    I am searching for more information on how to use AFIncrementalStore. I need to know how to implement it step by step. Please don't down vote it, because of many resources, I really need help with this. If I understood right AFIncrementalStore it is a layer for fetching data from the server and for the mapping data model. Am I right? So I have few URL that I need to mapping into my local model. All of them use GET requests. For example base_url/api/categories I get this string in response: [{"category":{"name":"3d max","id":"1111001","users":[]}}, {"category":{"name":"photoshop","id":"1111002","users":[]}}, {"category":{"name":"auto cad","id":"1111003","users":[]}}] So I have a question how I can binding my local db with this data using AFIncrementalStore. Also if you can see there are relationships in the response string that are connected to uses. The array for users will contain id that is correspond to concert users. So I think second question is how to point that model has to have relationship.

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  • node.js UDP data lost at high package rates

    - by koleto
    I am observing a significant data-lost on a UDP connection with node.js 0.6.18 and 0.8.0 . It appears at high packet rates about 1200 packet per second with frames about 1500 byte limit. Each data packages has a incrementing number so it easy to track the number of lost packages. var server = dgram.createSocket("udp4"); server.on("message", function (message, rinfo) { //~processData(message); //~ writeData(message, null, 5000); }).bind(10001); On the receiving callback I tested two cases I first saved 5000 packages in a file. The result ware no dropped packages. After I have included a data processing routine and got about 50% drop rate. What I expected was that the process data routine should be completely asynchronous and should not introduce dead time to the system, since it is a simple parser to process binary data in the package and to emits events to a further processing routine. It seems that the parsing routine introduce dead time in which the event handler is unable to handle each packets. At the low package rates (< 1200 packages/sec) there are no data lost observed! Is this a bug or I am doing something wrong?

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  • Created files on Archos 5 invisible on Windows Xp

    - by user352042
    I am fairly new to Android and this is my first post so I apologise in advance if I am breaking protocol or posting to the wrong board. Please feel free to move this post to somewhere more appropriate if required. I am developing for the 160 Gb Archos 5 Internet tablet. Not ideal as a development platform I know, but customer requirements mean we have no choice. It is running Android 1.6. I have updated the device firmware to the most recent available. Updating the version of Android is not an option at this point. Part of my app's requirement is to write information out to .txt files on the external storage directory so that these can be copied over the USB connection to a Windows XP PC using the Mobile media device (MTP) mode. I have followed all instructions I have come across carefully, eg I check that the storage is available using the technique described at http://developer.android.com/guide/topics/data/data-storage.html#filesExternal. However, althoug the files are created succesfully on the device (I can browse them and open them using the device's File Explorer - they are fine), when I connect the device to a Windows XP computer none of the directories or files I created appear and the size of their parent files suggest they do not exist. I have tried running over the ADB, checked logcat, tried a (signed) release version and even written a second test application which just creates a folder (this behaves the same, ie it creates the folder but this is not visible in Windows Explorer) - nothing anywhere gives me any suggestion as to what the problem might be. If anyone has heard of this before or has any ideas as to what else | could try to fix it please get in touch! We do not have any other devices to test on at the moment, although I hope to remedy this soon, customer permitting.

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  • Spring security - same page to deliver different content based on user role

    - by Ramesh
    Hello, i tried to search for any previous post related to my issue but couldnt find any. I have a scenario where in page handles 3 different scenarios and one of them not working. This page returns different content depending on if the user is authenticated or anonymous. localhost:8080/myApp/muUrl?test=authenticatedContent - used for Scenario 1 & 2 localhost:8080/myApp/muUrl?test=anonymousContent - used for Scenario 3 Scenario: 1) Authenticated user accesing the page url - the user gets displayed correct information. Works fine 2) Anonymous user accesing page URL with parameters that requires authentication - If anonymous, there is second level of check on the content they are accessing. for example, based on the GET parameters, there is custom logic to determine if the user has to be authenticated. In which case the page gets redirected to login page (WORKS fine). 3) Anonymous user accessing page URL with parameters that doesnt need authentication - in this case i get the SAvedRequest and redirect to the URL which is taking me to an infinite loop. Am i missing something very obvious or is there a way in AuthenticationProcessFilterEntryPoint to say "DON'T redirect to LOGIN page but process it" ? thanks.

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  • Java - Call to start method on thread : how does it route to Runnable interface's run () ?

    - by Bhaskar
    Ok , I know the two standard ways to create a new thread and run it in Java : 1 Implement Runnable in a class , define run method ,and pass an instance of the class to a new Thread. When the start method on the thread instance is called , the run method of the class instance will be invoked. 2 Let the class derive from Thread, so it can to override the method run() and then when a new instance's start method is called , the call is routed to overridden method. In both methods , basically a new Thread object is created and its start method invoked. However , while in the second method , the mechanism of the call being routed to the user defined run() method is very clear ,( its a simple runtime polymorphism in play ), I dont understand how the call to start method on the Thread object gets routed to run() method of the class implementing Runnable interface. Does the Thread class have an private field of Type Runnable which it checks first , and if it is set then invokes the run method if it set to an object ? that would be a strange mechanism IMO. How does the call to start() on a thread get routed to the run method of the Runnable interface implemented by the class whose object is passed as a parameter when contructing the thread ?

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  • jQuery: one-liner for removing all children but one

    - by user1352530
    HTML code is: <li> <a href="#" /> <ul> <li> <a href="#"/> </li> </ul> </li> I want to delete any node under $(this) = li that is not a link. If there are more than one link, just the first one is saved, and if there are links inside the ul tag, they are not included because they are descendants and no childrens. Something like this (I am cloning and outputting html): $(this).clone().remove('not(a:first)').html(); //Assuming remove looks for "a" as a first child Does not work, so I try with this: $(this).clone().children().remove('not(a:first)').parent().html(); Does not work so I try with this: $(this).clone().remove('not(>a:first)').html(); I need the original element as a reference after removal for chaining more operations EDIT: Ok! Second one works with a little syntax correction as some appointed (:not( instead of not() but I would like to know if there is any other solution similar to the third line so I don't have to do children().remove().parent(). Thank you!

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  • In DBD::CSV what does a /r in the f_ext attribute mean?

    - by sid_com
    Why does only the second example append the extension to the filename and what is the "/r" in ".csv/r" for. #!/usr/bin/env perl use warnings; use strict; use 5.012; use DBI; my $dbh = DBI->connect( "DBI:CSV:f_dir=/home/mm", { RaiseError => 1, f_ext => ".csv/r"} ); my $table = 'new_1'; $dbh->do( "DROP TABLE IF EXISTS $table" ); $dbh->do( "CREATE TABLE $table ( id INT, name CHAR, city CHAR )" ); my $sth_new = $dbh->prepare( "INSERT INTO $table( id, name, city ) VALUES ( ?, ?, ?, )" ); $sth_new->execute( 1, 'Smith', 'Greenville' ); $dbh->disconnect(); # -------------------------------------------------------- $dbh = DBI->connect( "DBI:CSV:f_dir=/home/mm", { RaiseError => 1 } ); $dbh->{f_ext} = ".csv/r"; $table = 'new_2'; $dbh->do( "DROP TABLE IF EXISTS $table" ); $dbh->do( "CREATE TABLE $table ( id INT, name CHAR, city CHAR )" ); $sth_new = $dbh->prepare( "INSERT INTO $table( id, name, city ) VALUES ( ?, ?, ?, )" ); $sth_new->execute( 1, 'Smith', 'Greenville' ); $dbh->disconnect();

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  • How to filter Many2Many / Generic Relations properly with Q?

    - by HWM-Rocker
    Hi, I have 3 Models, the TaggedObject has a GenericRelation with the ObjectTagBridge. And the ObjectTagBridge has a ForeignKey to the Tag Model. class TaggedObject(models.Model): """ class that represent a tagged object """ tags = generic.GenericRelation('ObjectTagBridge', blank=True, null=True) class ObjectTagBridge(models.Model): """ Help to connect a generic object to a Tag. """ # pylint: disable-msg=W0232,R0903 content_type = models.ForeignKey(ContentType) object_id = models.PositiveIntegerField() content_object = generic.GenericForeignKey('content_type', 'object_id') tag = models.ForeignKey('Tag') class Tag(models.Model): ... when I am attaching a Tag to an Object, I am creating a new ObjectTagBridge and set its ForeignKey tag to the Tag I want to attach. That is working fine, and I can get all Tags that I attached to my Object very easy. But when I want to get (filter) all Objects that have Tag1 and Tag2 I tried to something like this: query = Q(tags__tag=Tag1) & Q(tags__tag=Tag2) object_list = TaggedObjects.filter(query) but now my object_list is empty, because it is looking for TaggedObjects that have one ObjectTagBridge with 2 tag objects, the first with Tag1 and the second with Tag2. I my application will be more complex Q queries than this one, so I think I need a solution with this Q object. In fact any combination of binary conjunctions, like: (...) and ( (...) or not(...)) How can I filter this correctly? Every answer is welcome, maybe there is also a different way do achieve this. thx for your help!!!

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  • detect shutdown in window service

    - by deepu
    hi, i have a windows service that get user details and save the result into log text file. and, my problem is when i shut down or log off my system, i also would like to save the time that i down my system into that log file. but, i don't know how to do that. I checked the winproc method to detect shutdown operation but i was not able to use it on window service, on googling found it can be used with forms only. how can we detect user have clicked shutdown or log off and do some action. so,please give me some idea or suggestion on that. i have used it for logoff but on log entry is made when i logoff the system protected override void OnSessionChange(SessionChangeDescription changeDescription) { this.RequestAdditionalTime(250000); //gives a 25 second delay on Logoff if (changeDescription.Reason == SessionChangeReason.SessionLogoff) { // Add your save code here StreamWriter str = new StreamWriter("D:\\Log.txt", true); str.WriteLine("Service stoped due to " + changeDescription.Reason.ToString() + "on" + DateTime.Now.ToString()); str.Close(); } base.OnSessionChange(changeDescription); }

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  • Polling servers at the same port - Threads and Java

    - by John
    Hi there. I'm currently busy working on an IP ban tool for the early versions of Call of Duty 1. (Apparently such a feature wasn't implemented in these versions). I've finished a single threaded application but it won't perform well enough for multiple servers, which is why I am trying to implement threading. Right now, each server has its own thread. I have a Networking class, which has a method; "GetStatus" -- this method is synchronized. This method uses a DatagramSocket to communicate with the server. Since this method is static and synchronized, I shouldn't get in trouble and receive a whole bunch of "Address already in use" exceptions. However, I have a second method named "SendMessage". This method is supposed to send a message to the server. How can I make sure "SendMessage" cannot be invoked when there's already a thread running in "GetStatus", and the other way around? If I make both synchronized, I will still get in trouble if Thread A is opening a socket on Port 99999 and invoking "SendMessage" while Thread B is opening a socket on the same port and invoking "GetStatus"? (Game servers are usually hosted on the same ports) I guess what I am really after is a way to make an entire class synchronized, so that only one method can be invoked and run at a time by a single thread. Hope that what I am trying to accomplish/avoid is made clear in this text. Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • How can I remove a JPanel from a JFrame?

    - by Roman
    Recently I asked here how to add a new JPanel to JFrame. The answer helped me to get a working code. But not I have a related question: "How can I remove an old JPanel". I need that because of the following problem. A new JPanel appears appears when I want (either time limit is exceeded or user press the "Submit" button). But in several seconds some element of the old JPanel appears together with the component of the new JPanel. I do not understand why it happens. I thought that it is because I have to other threads which update the window. But the first thread just add the old panel once (so, it should be finished). And in the second thread I have a loop which is broken (so, it also should be finished). Here is my code: private Thread controller = new Thread() { public void run() { // First we set the initial pane (for the selection of partner). SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { frame.getContentPane().add(generatePartnerSelectionPanel()); frame.invalidate(); frame.validate(); } }); // Update the pane for the selection of the parnter. for (int i=40; i>0; i=i-1) { final int sec = i; SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { timeLeftLabel.setText(sec + " seconds left."); } }); try {Thread.sleep(1000);} catch (InterruptedException e) {} if (partnerSubmitted) {break;} } // For the given user the selection phase is finished (either the time is over or form was submitted). SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { frame.getContentPane().add(generateWaitForGamePanel()); frame.invalidate(); frame.validate(); } }); } };

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  • iPhone crashing when presenting modal view controller

    - by Michael Waterfall
    I'm trying to display a modal view straight after another view has been presented modally (the second is a loading view that appears). - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; // Show load LoadViewController *loader = [[LoadViewController alloc] init]; [self presentModalViewController: loader animated:NO]; [loader release]; } But when I do this I get a "Program received signal: "EXC_BAD_ACCESS"." error. The stack trace is: 0 0x30b43234 in -[UIWindowController transitionViewDidComplete:fromView:toView:] 1 0x3095828e in -[UITransitionView notifyDidCompleteTransition:] 2 0x3091af0d in -[UIViewAnimationState sendDelegateAnimationDidStop:finished:] 3 0x3091ad7c in -[UIViewAnimationState animationDidStop:finished:] 4 0x0051e331 in run_animation_callbacks 5 0x0051e109 in CA::timer_callback 6 0x302454a0 in CFRunLoopRunSpecific 7 0x30244628 in CFRunLoopRunInMode 8 0x32044c31 in GSEventRunModal 9 0x32044cf6 in GSEventRun 10 0x309021ee in UIApplicationMain 11 0x00002154 in main at main.m:14 Any ideas? I'm totally stumped! The loading view is empty so there's definitely nothing going on in there that's causing the error. Is it something to do with launching 2 views modally in the same event loop or something? Thanks, Mike Edit: Very strange... I have modified it slightly so that the loading view is shown after a tiny delay, and this works fine! So it appears to be something within the same event loop! - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; // Show load [self performSelector:@selector(doit) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.1]; } - (void)doit { [self presentModalViewController:loader animated:YES]; }

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  • What should i do for accomodating large scale data storage and retrieval?

    - by kailashbuki
    There's two columns in the table inside mysql database. First column contains the fingerprint while the second one contains the list of documents which have that fingerprint. It's much like an inverted index built by search engines. An instance of a record inside the table is shown below; 34 "doc1, doc2, doc45" The number of fingerprints is very large(can range up to trillions). There are basically following operations in the database: inserting/updating the record & retrieving the record accoring to the match in fingerprint. The table definition python snippet is: self.cursor.execute("CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `fingerprint` (fp BIGINT, documents TEXT)") And the snippet for insert/update operation is: if self.cursor.execute("UPDATE `fingerprint` SET documents=CONCAT(documents,%s) WHERE fp=%s",(","+newDocId, thisFP))== 0L: self.cursor.execute("INSERT INTO `fingerprint` VALUES (%s, %s)", (thisFP,newDocId)) The only bottleneck i have observed so far is the query time in mysql. My whole application is web based. So time is a critical factor. I have also thought of using cassandra but have less knowledge of it. Please suggest me a better way to tackle this problem.

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  • How does this RegEx for parsing emails work in PHP?

    - by George Edison
    Okay, I have the following PHP code to extract an email address of the following two forms: Random Stranger <[email protected]> [email protected] Here is the PHP code: // The first example $sender = "Random Stranger <[email protected]>"; $pattern = '/([\w_-]*@[\w-\.]*)|.*<([\w_-]*@[\w-\.]*)>/'; preg_match($pattern,$sender,$matches,PREG_OFFSET_CAPTURE); echo "<pre>"; print_r($matches); echo "</pre><hr>"; // The second example $sender = "[email protected]"; preg_match($pattern,$sender,$matches,PREG_OFFSET_CAPTURE); echo "<pre>"; print_r($matches); echo "</pre>"; My question is... what is in $matches? It seems to be a strange collection of arrays. Which index holds the match from the parenthesis? How can I be sure I'm getting the email address and only the email address? Update: Here is the output: Array ( [0] => Array ( [0] => Random Stranger [1] => 0 ) [1] => Array ( [0] => [1] => -1 ) [2] => Array ( [0] => [email protected] [1] => 5 ) ) Array ( [0] => Array ( [0] => [email protected] [1] => 0 ) [1] => Array ( [0] => [email protected] [1] => 0 ) )

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  • Javascript "Match" Function Not Returning Proper Results in Safari or IE (but yes in FF)

    - by Jascha
    Forgive me as this is a time sensitive issue and I will have to switch the site back in a few hours so the link will be bad... but: I am simply comparing two strings looking for a match with this function... I have an array of objects called linkArray and I need to match the .src of each object to a .src I send it (the src of the clicked image). if the the src of the image I clicked matches the src of an object in my array, I set a variable to the link string of that object and return true, letting my page know that the link is available. Now, this works great in FF. But not in any other browser and I can't figure out for the life of me why. I have set up a dialogue box to literally compare, by eye, the two strings that should at the very least throw the message "match". Can anyone see what I am missing here??? here is the link... http://7thart.com/Jewish-History-and-Culture/Jews-and-Baseball-An-American-Love-Story If you click any of the thumbnails on the left, you will activate the function. Again, I apologize as after a few hours I have to switch back to the original site and this link will be invalid. Thanks in advance for your help. (function below)... function matchLink(a){ for(var i=0;i<linkArray.length;i++){ var fixLink = '../' + linkArray[i]['src']; alert(fixLink + '\n = \n' + a); if(fixLink == a){ alert('match'); newLink = linkArray[i]['link']; return true; } } return false; } Note: The "match" will return on two of the images.. the initial image, and the first thumbnail on the left. The second thumbnail SHOULD match, and the third one SHOULD NOT match.

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