Search Results

Search found 16987 results on 680 pages for 'second'.

Page 540/680 | < Previous Page | 536 537 538 539 540 541 542 543 544 545 546 547  | Next Page >

  • Why is Chrome miscalculating jQuery submenu dimensions?

    - by chunkymonkey
    I'm trying to implement this dropdown menu with flyouts: http://jsfiddle.net/chunkymonkey/fr6x4/ In Chrome certain categories can be expanded to show their subcategories while others show nothing when opened up. For example: Alternative Rock can be expanded to show its multiple subcategories . . . BUT . . . World Music, which has as many subcategories, shows no subcategories when expanded. (SCREENSHOT: http://i.imgur.com/0WorR.jpg) I thought I had tracked this problem down to a problem with they way the dimensions of the dropdown elements are calculated in the original code: First change: - var newLeftVal = - ($('.fg-menu-current').parents('ul').size() - 1) * 180; + var newLeftVal = - ($('.fg-menu-current').parents('ul').size() - 1) * container.width(); Second change: Remove: var checkMenuHeight = function(el) { if (el.height() > options.maxHeight) { el.addClass('fg-menu-scroll') }; el.css({ height: options.maxHeight }); }; Add: var checkMenuHeight = function(el) { var max_height = options.maxHeight - breadcrumb.getTotalHeight(); if (el.height() > max_height) { el.addClass('fg-menu-scroll'); el.height(max_height); topList.height(max_height); } else { if (topList.height() < el.height()) { topList.height(el.height()); } } }; But it's still not working only on Chrome (version 8, Windows & Mac) (not sure why Chrome is different).

    Read the article

  • How do the major C# DI/IoC frameworks compare?

    - by Slomojo
    At the risk of stepping into holy war territory, What are the strengths and weaknesses of these popular DI/IoC frameworks, and could one easily be considered the best? ..: Ninject Unity Castle.Windsor Autofac StructureMap Are there any other DI/IoC Frameworks for C# that I haven't listed here? In context of my use case, I'm building a client WPF app, and a WCF/SQL services infrastructure, ease of use (especially in terms of clear and concise syntax), consistent documentation, good community support and performance are all important factors in my choice. Update: The resources and duplicate questions cited appear to be out of date, can someone with knowledge of all these frameworks come forward and provide some real insight? I realise that most opinion on this subject is likely to be biased, but I am hoping that someone has taken the time to study all these frameworks and have at least a generally objective comparison. I am quite willing to make my own investigations if this hasn't been done before, but I assumed this was something at least a few people had done already. Second Update: If you do have experience with more than one DI/IoC container, please rank and summarise the pros and cons of those, thank you. This isn't an exercise in discovering all the obscure little containers that people have made, I'm looking for comparisons between the popular (and active) frameworks.

    Read the article

  • clicking browser back button is opening a link in the previous page.

    - by Jebli
    I am using the below code protected void lnk_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { string strlink = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["link"].ToString().Trim(); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); sb.Append("<script type = 'text/javascript'>"); sb.Append("window.open('"); sb.Append(strlink); sb.Append("');"); sb.Append("</script>"); ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(this.GetType(), "script", sb.ToString()); } } In the page there are two links. When i click the first link it opens a window in a new page. I do this by using the above code. I am clicking the second link in the page and navigating to another page. Now i am clicking the browser back button. Supprisingly its opening the first link. How clicking back button is opening the link in the page. I am using c# .net 2005. Please help. Thanks. Regards,enter code here Radha A

    Read the article

  • getting CS1502 compiler error on dev environment but not production.

    - by nw
    When I try to run my ASP.NET app from my development environment I get the following error message: Compiler Error Message: CS1502: The best overloaded method match for 'mmars.Printing.printFunctions.SetPrintSummaryProperties(mmars.contextInfo, ref mmars.Printing.printObjSummary)' has some invalid arguments. When I publish and run on our production server I don't get this error. It seems to compile fine when I build from the build menu (in fact if I change the second argument of the bolded function call below, i get a compiler error in visual studio), but now i've suddenly started getting this error message at runtime. So another question I have in addition to getting rid of the error is why is the .NET development server even trying to do JIT compilation on my project if it is already compiled into a DLL? Printing.printObjSummary myPrintObj = new Printing.printObjSummary(); Printing.printFunctions.SetPrintSummaryProperties(ci, ref myPrintObj); printObjects.Add(myPrintObj); This seems to have just suddenly appeared from nowhere today and it's extremely frustrating. Also, though there are no warnings at compile-time, when I get redirected to the page with that first compilation error there are many warnings like the following: Warning: CS0436: The type 'mmars.MMARSSummaryDataItem' in 'c:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\3dad423c\40569048\App_Code.b0rgpkzr.4.cs' conflicts with the imported type 'mmars.MMARSSummaryDataItem' in 'c:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\3dad423c\40569048\assembly\dl3\7179c19a\345f948c_ece7ca01\mmars.DLL'. Using the type defined in 'c:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\3dad423c\40569048\App_Code.b0rgpkzr.4.cs'. What's the deal with that? Is the webserver complaining about name conflicts in the source file and dll resulting from the source file?

    Read the article

  • How safe and reliable are C++ String Literals?

    - by DoctorT
    So, I'm wanting to get a better grasp on how string literals in C++ work. I'm mostly concerned with situations where you're assigning the address of a string literal to a pointer, and passing it around. For example: char* advice = "Don't stick your hands in the toaster."; Now lets say I just pass this string around by copying pointers for the duration of the program. Sure, it's probably not a good idea, but I'm curious what would actually be going on behind the scenes. For another example, let's say we make a function that returns a string literal: char* foo() { // function does does stuff return "Yikes!"; // somebody's feeble attempt at an error message } Now lets say this function is called very often, and the string literal is only used about half the time it's called: // situation #1: it's just randomly called without heed to the return value foo(); // situation #2: the returned string is kept and used for who knows how long char* retVal = foo(); In the first situation, what's actually happening? Is the string just created but not used, and never deallocated? In the second situation, is the string going to be maintained as long as the user finds need for it? What happens when it isn't needed anymore... will that memory be freed up then (assuming nothing points to that space anymore)? Don't get me wrong, I'm not planning on using string literals like this. I'm planning on using a container to keep my strings in check (probably std::string). I'm mostly just wanting to know if these situations could cause problems either for memory management or corrupted data.

    Read the article

  • Problem executing trackPageview with Google Analytics.

    - by dmrnj
    I'm trying to capture the clicks of certain download links and track them in Google Analytics. Here's my code var links = document.getElementsByTagName("a"); for (var i = 0; i < links.length; i++) { linkpath = links[i].pathname; if( linkpath.match(/\.(pdf|xls|ppt|doc|zip|txt)$/) || links[i].href.indexOf("mode=pdf") >=0 ){ //this matches our search addClickTracker(links[i]); } } function addClickTracker(obj){ if (obj.addEventListener) { obj.addEventListener('click', track , true); } else if (obj.attachEvent) { obj.attachEvent("on" + 'click', track); } } function track(e){ linkhref = (e.srcElement) ? e.srcElement.pathname : this.pathname; pageTracker._trackPageview(linkhref); } Everything up until the pageTracker._trackPageview() call works. In my debugging linkhref is being passed fine as a string. No abnormal characters, nothing. The issue is that, watching my http requests, Google never makes a second call to the tracking gif (as it does if you call this function in an "onclick" property). Calling the tracker from my JS console also works as expected. It's only in my listener. Could it be that my listener is not deferring the default action (loading the new page) before it has a chance to contact Google's servers? I've seen other tracking scripts that do a similar thing without any deferral.

    Read the article

  • Are programming languages and methods inefficient? (assembler and C knowledge needed)

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hi, for a long time, I am thinking and studying output of C language compiler in assembler form, as well as CPU architecture. I know this may be silly to you, but it seems to me that something is very ineffective. Please, don´t be angry if I am wrong, and there is some reason I do not see for all these principles. I will be very glad if you tell me why is it designed this way. I actually truly believe I am wrong, I know the genius minds of people which get PCs together knew a reason to do so. What exactly, do you ask? I´ll tell you right away, I use C as a example: 1: Stack local scope memory allocation: So, typical local memory allocation uses stack. Just copy esp to ebp and than allocate all the memory via ebp. OK, I would understand this if you explicitly need allocate RAM by default stack values, but if I do understand it correctly, modern OS use paging as a translation layer between application and physical RAM, when address you desire is further translated before reaching actual RAM byte. So why don´t just say 0x00000000 is int a,0x00000004 is int b and so? And access them just by mov 0x00000000,#10? Because you wont actually access memory blocks 0x00000000 and 0x00000004 but those your OS set the paging tables to. Actually, since memory allocation by ebp and esp use indirect addressing, "my" way would be even faster. 2: Variable allocation duplicity: When you run application, Loader load its code into RAM. When you create variable, or string, compiler generates code that pushes these values on the top o stack when created in main. So there is actual instruction for do so, and that actual number in memory. So, there are 2 entries of the same value in RAM. One in form of instruction, second in form of actual bytes in the RAM. But why? Why not to just when declaring variable count at which memory block it would be, than when used, just insert this memory location?

    Read the article

  • Django - foreignkey problem

    - by realshadow
    Hey, Imagine you have this model: class Category(models.Model): node_id = models.IntegerField(primary_key = True) type_id = models.IntegerField(max_length = 20) parent_id = models.IntegerField(max_length = 20) sort_order = models.IntegerField(max_length = 20) name = models.CharField(max_length = 45) lft = models.IntegerField(max_length = 20) rgt = models.IntegerField(max_length = 20) depth = models.IntegerField(max_length = 20) added_on = models.DateTimeField(auto_now = True) updated_on = models.DateTimeField(auto_now = True) status = models.IntegerField(max_length = 20) node = models.ForeignKey(Category_info, verbose_name = 'Category_info', to_field = 'node_id' The important part is the foreignkey. When I try: Category.objects.filter(type_id = type_g.type_id, parent_id = offset, status = 1) I get an error that get returned more than category, which is fine, because it is supposed to return more than one. But I want to filter the results trough another field, which would be type id (from the second Model) Here it is: class Category_info(models.Model): objtree_label_id = models.AutoField(primary_key = True) node_id = models.IntegerField(unique = True) language_id = models.IntegerField() label = models.CharField(max_length = 255) type_id = models.IntegerField() The type_id can be any number from 1 - 5. I am desparately trying to get only one result where the type_id would be number 1. Here is what I want in sql: SELECT n.*, l.* FROM objtree_nodes n JOIN objtree_labels l ON (n.node_id = l.node_id) WHERE n.type_id = 15 AND n.parent_id = 50 AND l.type_id = 1 Any help is GREATLY appreciated. Regards

    Read the article

  • How to delete a cell in UITableView by using custom button in cell ?

    - by srikanth rongali
    I have UITableView. I customized the cell height (increased). I have 4 labels(UILabel) and 1 image(UIImage) and 3 buttons (UIButton). one of the button is delete button. By touching the cell or button(play button) on the image a video is loaded and played. I need to delete the cell by touching delete button. If I touched the delete button the corresponding video is deleted from library . But, how to delete the cell and all remaining data in it ? I am not able to delete the cells or the data in the cells. How to do it ? I used these. But the control is not entering in to second method committedEditingStyle: - (BOOL)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView canEditRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { return YES; } - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView commitEditingStyle:(UITableViewCellEditingStyle)editingStyle forRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (editingStyle == UITableViewCellEditingStyleDelete) { } } Thank you. The following image shows the delete button of my program.

    Read the article

  • Why aren't these Canvases rendering?

    - by bpapa
    I'm creating a web app that allows users to enter a number of colors, by specifying RGB values. Upon submission, the user will see a canvas with a solid rectangle drawn in the color chosen. On this page, I have 7 canvases. The first one draws just fine, but none of the rest show up. The browser is Safari. Here's the relevant code: First, the script element in the header, which defines the function I use to draw to the canvas. <script language="JavaScript" TYPE="text/javascript"><!-- function drawCanvas(canvasId, red, green, blue) { var theCanvas = document.getElementById("canvas" + canvasId); var context = theCanvas.getContext("2d"); context.clearRect(0,0,100,100); context.setFillColor(red,green,blue,1.0); context.fillRect(0,0,100,100); } // --> </script> Next, the HTML source, where I have my canvas tags and some embedded Javascript to call my drawCanvas function <canvas id="canvas0" width="100" height="100"> </canvas> <script language="JavaScript" TYPE="text/javascript"><!-- drawCanvas(0,250,0,0); // --> </script> . . //more source . <canvas id="canvas1" width="100" height="100"> </canvas> <script language="JavaScript" TYPE="text/javascript"><!-- drawCanvas(1,4,250,6); // --> </script> Also provided is a screenshot. As you can see, the "red" canvas comes up just fine, but the second one, which should be green, doesn't show up at all. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Boost Asio UDP retrieve last packet in socket buffer

    - by Alberto Toglia
    I have been messing around Boost Asio for some days now but I got stuck with this weird behavior. Please let me explain. Computer A is sending continuos udp packets every 500 ms to computer B, computer B desires to read A's packets with it own velocity but only wants A's last packet, obviously the most updated one. It has come to my attention that when I do a: mSocket.receive_from(boost::asio::buffer(mBuffer), mEndPoint); I can get OLD packets that were not processed (almost everytime). Does this make any sense? A friend of mine told me that sockets maintain a buffer of packets and therefore If I read with a lower frequency than the sender this could happen. ¡? So, the first question is how is it possible to receive the last packet and discard the ones I missed? Later I tried using the async example of the Boost documentation but found it did not do what I wanted. http://www.boost.org/doc/libs/1_36_0/doc/html/boost_asio/tutorial/tutdaytime6.html From what I could tell the async_receive_from should call the method "handle_receive" when a packet arrives, and that works for the first packet after the service was "run". If I wanted to keep listening the port I should call the async_receive_from again in the handle code. right? BUT what I found is that I start an infinite loop, it doesn't wait till the next packet, it just enters "handle_receive" again and again. I'm not doing a server application, a lot of things are going on (its a game), so my second question is, do I have to use threads to use the async receive method properly, is there some example with threads and async receive? Thanks for you attention.

    Read the article

  • JQuery UI drag and drop doesn't notice DOM changes happening during the dragging ?

    - by user315677
    Hi everybody, I have a html table in which each line (<tr>) represents a group of client computers. Each line can be expanded to show the clients belonging to the group. The <tr> containing the clients are always generated but hidden and showed when clicking the plus button at the beginning of each line. The clients themselves (they are <div>) can be dragged and dropped in another group as long as this group is already expanded. So far it works fine. What I am trying to achieve now is that the client can be dragged to a collapsed group and after a second or so hovering the group it will be expanded and the client can be dropped amongst the other clients of the group. I programmed the hover using the in and outevents of the droppable and it expands the group all right, but (and now it starts to be hard to explain with words ;) the behavior of the droppable (the client) is still as if the table line that appeared were not there : the in out and drop events of the droppable are fired on the old position of the elements, and the in out and drop events of the newly appeared <tr> are never fired. It looks as if JQuery memorizes the position, size etc. of the elements when the drag starts, and these values are not updated if there is a change in the DOM before the drop happens... Can someone confirm this behavior is normal, or can it be caused by another problem in my own code ? Any workaround ? (the question is quite bloated already so I don't include any code but I'll gladly upload it if required)

    Read the article

  • Using lambda expressions and linq

    - by Andy
    So I've just started working with linq as well as using lambda expressions. I've run into a small hiccup while trying to get some data that I want. This method should return a list of all projects that are open or in progress from Jira Here's the code public static List<string> getOpenIssuesListByProject(string _projectName) { JiraSoapServiceService jiraSoapService = new JiraSoapServiceService(); string token = jiraSoapService.login(DEFAULT_UN, DEFAULT_PW); string[] keys = { getProjectKey(_projectName) }; RemoteStatus[] statuses = jiraSoapService.getStatuses(token); var desiredStatuses = statuses.Where(x => x.name == "Open" || x.name == "In Progress") .Select(x=>x.id); RemoteIssue[] AllIssues = jiraSoapService.getIssuesFromTextSearchWithProject(token, keys, "", 99); IEnumerable<RemoteIssue> openIssues = AllIssues.Where(x=> { foreach (var v in desiredStatuses) { if (x.status == v) return true; else return false; } return false; }); return openIssues.Select(x => x.key).ToList(); } Right now this only select issues that are "Open", and seems to skip those that are "In Progress". My question: First, why am I only getting the "Open" Issues, and second is there a better way to do this? The reason I get all the statuses first is that the issue only stores that statuses ID, so I get all the statuses, get the ID's that match "Open" and "In Progress", and then match those ID numbers to the issues status field.

    Read the article

  • Jquery selectors question

    - by Ben
    Hi all, I am not an expert at jquery but trying to get a menu to work. Basically, I have a menu made of up to 3 levels of nested lists. The first level has a little arrow has a background image that opens or close when opening the first level list. Any other nested lists don't need to have the background image. My script opens the menu when you click on it and is also supposed to switch the first level list from a class "inactive" to a class "active". Here is the script: $(document).ready(function(){ $("#left-navigation-holder ul.level1 li.inactive").toggle(function(){ $(this).addClass("active"); }, function () { $(this).removeClass("active"); }); $("#left-navigation-holder li a").click(function(){ menu = $(this).parent('li').children('ul'); menu.toggle(); }); }); The problem is that the toggle function also happens when clicking on second and third level lists causing the arrows to toggle even if the first level list isn't clicked on. I thought using $("#left-navigation-holder ul.level1 li.inactive").toggle would limit the function to the first level list with a class "inactive". Any help would be really appreciated. Ben

    Read the article

  • How is it possible to extend an SWFLoader with MXML?

    - by michael-cereda
    I'm currently doing the following.. Main application: " " In the Component: First Try: ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations></fx:Declarations> <mx:SWFLoader x="0" y="0" id="loader"/> </s:Group> Second Try: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:Group xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx"> <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ [Bindable] public var source:String; ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> <!-- Place non-visual elements (e.g., services, value objects) here --> </fx:Declarations> <mx:SWFLoader x="0" y="0" source="{source}"/> </s:Group> But the component displays only a "Not Found" icon in both cases. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Need to reload current_cart to get the test passed

    - by leomayleomay
    I'm testing my online store app with RSpec, here's what I'm doing: # spec/controllers/line_items_controller_spec.rb require 'spec_helper' describe LineItemsController do describe "POST 'create'" do before do @current_cart = Factory(:cart) controller.stub!(:current_cart).and_return(@current_cart) end it 'should merge two same line_items into one' do @product = Factory(:product, :name => "Tee") post 'create', {:product_id => @product.id} post 'create', {:product_id => @product.id} assert LineItem.count.should == 1 assert LineItem.first.quantity.should == 2 end end end # app/controllers/line_items_controller.rb class LineItemsController < ApplicationController def create current_cart.line_items.each do |line_item| if line_item.product_id == params[:product_id] line_item.quantity += 1 if line_item.save render :text => "success" else render :text => "failed" end return end end @line_item = current_cart.line_items.new(:product_id => params[:product_id]) if @line_item.save render :text => "success" else render :text => "failed" end end end The problem right now is it never added up two line_items having the same product into one, because the second time I entered into the line_items_controller#create, the current_cart.line_items is [], I have run current_cart.reload to get the test passed, any idea what's going wrong?

    Read the article

  • Android ListView: how to select an item?

    - by mmo
    I am having trouble with a ListView I created: I want an item to get selected when I click on it. My code for this looks like: protected void onResume() { ... ListView lv = getListView(); lv.setOnItemSelectedListener(new OnItemSelectedListener() { public void onItemSelected(AdapterView<?> adapterView, View view, int pos, long id) { Log.v(TAG, "onItemSelected(..., " + pos + ",...) => selected: " + getSelectedItemPosition()); } public void onNothingSelected(AdapterView<?> adapterView) { Log.v(TAG, "onNothingSelected(...) => selected: " + getSelectedItemPosition()); } }); lv.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener() { public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> adapterView, View view, int pos, long id) { lv.setSelection(pos); Log.v(TAG, "onItemClick(..., " + pos + ",...) => selected: " + getSelectedItemPosition()); } }); ... } When I run this and click e.g. on the second item (i.e. pos=1) I get: 04-03 23:08:36.994: V/DisplayLists(663): onItemClick(..., 1,...) => selected: -1 i.e. even though the OnItemClickListener is called with the proper argument and calls a setSelection(1), there is no item selected (and hence also OnItemSelectedListener.onItemSelected(...) is never called) and getSelectedItemPosition() still yields -1 after the setSelection(1)-call. What am I missing? Michael PS.: My list does have =2 elements...

    Read the article

  • Overloading generic implicit conversions

    - by raichoo
    Hi I'm having a little scala (version 2.8.0RC1) problem with implicit conversions. Whenever importing more than one implicit conversion the first one gets shadowed. Here is the code where the problem shows up: // containers class Maybe[T] case class Nothing[T]() extends Maybe[T] case class Just[T](value: T) extends Maybe[T] case class Value[T](value: T) trait Monad[C[_]] { def >>=[A, B](a: C[A], f: A => C[B]): C[B] def pure[A](a: A): C[A] } // implicit converter trait Extender[C[_]] { class Wrapper[A](c: C[A]) { def >>=[B](f: A => C[B])(implicit m: Monad[C]): C[B] = { m >>= (c, f) } def >>[B](b: C[B])(implicit m: Monad[C]): C[B] = { m >>= (c, { (x: A) => b } ) } } implicit def extendToMonad[A](c: C[A]) = new Wrapper[A](c) } // instance maybe object maybemonad extends Extender[Maybe] { implicit object MaybeMonad extends Monad[Maybe] { override def >>=[A, B](a: Maybe[A], f: A => Maybe[B]): Maybe[B] = { a match { case Just(x) => f(x) case Nothing() => Nothing() } } override def pure[A](a: A): Maybe[A] = Just(a) } } // instance value object identitymonad extends Extender[Value] { implicit object IdentityMonad extends Monad[Value] { override def >>=[A, B](a: Value[A], f: A => Value[B]): Value[B] = { a match { case Value(x) => f(x) } } override def pure[A](a: A): Value[A] = Value(a) } } import maybemonad._ //import identitymonad._ object Main { def main(args: Array[String]): Unit = { println(Just(1) >>= { (x: Int) => MaybeMonad.pure(x) }) } } When uncommenting the second import statement everything goes wrong since the first "extendToMonad" is shadowed. However, this one works: object Main { implicit def foo(a: Int) = new { def foobar(): Unit = { println("Foobar") } } implicit def foo(a: String) = new { def foobar(): Unit = { println(a) } } def main(args: Array[String]): Unit = { 1 foobar() "bla" foobar() } } So, where is the catch? What am I missing? Regards, raichoo

    Read the article

  • MAAttachedWindow hide

    - by Montecorte
    I had the same problem that The-Kenny at this post but I fixed it adding the windowDidResignKey: method on the MAAttachedWindow.m, but now my problem is that when I click outside the StatusBar item keeps blue background and when I click another time on the status item it goes normally and I have to click a second time on it to show the window. I tried to add a method in the CustomView (the view of the status item) that do the same thing that te mouseDown method: - (void)mouseDown:(NSEvent *)event { NSRect frame = [[self window] frame]; NSPoint pt = NSMakePoint(NSMidX(frame), NSMidY(frame)); NSLog(@"%g,%g",pt.x,pt.y); clicked = !clicked; [controller toggleAttachedWindowAtPoint:pt]; [self setNeedsDisplay:YES];} my method is: - (void)windowDidResignKey { NSLog(@"Resigned"); NSRect frame = [[self window] frame]; NSPoint pt = NSMakePoint(NSMidX(frame), NSMidY(frame)); NSLog(@"%g,%g",pt.x,pt.y); clicked = !clicked; [controller toggleAttachedWindowAtPoint:pt]; [self setNeedsDisplay:YES];} I call this method in the windowDidResignKey that I have defined on MAAttachedWindow.m, but this method dont call correctly the toggleAttachedWindowAtPoint method, I dont know exactly why, it's only called when I click another time over the status item If anybody knows how to do that any help would be fine. Thank you so much :)

    Read the article

  • Have you considered doing revenue sharing to fund development of a mobile app? How would you do it?

    - by Brennan
    I am looking to build multiple mobile apps which leverage existing content and resources by enabling these mobile apps with web services. I will duplication much of the same features which are also in place and add more features that are possible on a mobile device like address book, maps and calendar integration to make the service much more useful. To fund these projects I see that I have 2 options. First I could simply quote them for the project based on my hourly rate and the estimate in hours that I will take the to complete the job. That may be a high number. The second option would be to do shared revenue with ads placed in the app. I could then take a percentage of any revenue that is generated from the app. There is also a hybrid where I might charge for a percentage of the estimated quote and then take a percentage of the revenue sharing. So my question is how much should I propose for the revenue sharing? Should it be 30%? Or maybe I should make it 70% up to a point that a certain dollar amount is reached? And should the revenue sharing agreement be for 12 months, 24 months or more? Should I include in the proposal an agreement that they will help promote this app with their content and resources? Ultimately this system will benefit both sides because it extends their reach into the mobile space instead of where they are currently with just print and web. I have tried to find some examples with a few Google searches but I keep hitting content about the Google and Apple revenue sharing models. I would like to get some solid examples that are working to compare against so that my proposal do build these apps is not completely off base.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET 2.0 + Firefox/Safari - UI Issues?

    - by Tejaswi Yerukalapudi
    I'm developing on a system that was originally developed five years ago. I don't have access to the complete source code of the system, but it is completely driven by XML and runs on ASP.NET 2.0. This was originally written for IE6, but since Microsoft has officially decided to dump it, we moved to IE7. Some javascript is added on the client side, but nothing that changes the UI has been done. (We had to integrate a credit card reader into the system) This code is accessed primarily on tablet PCs running windows, but I'd like to persuade my company to use the iPad. [The tablet somehow costs around 3k$. I think selling a 3000$ device to a client when you have the iPad for 500$ is ridiculous.] Now, my problem is if we open it in any other browser (Tested it on safari / firefox), the UI is completely messed up with elements completely out of place. Doesn't ASP.NET generate HTML that runs on any browser? My second question is if there are any credit card readers available in the market that integrate with the iPad. I don't really care about the software part as it's taken care by our company, I just need it to read the card details and post it to the server. Thanks, Teja.

    Read the article

  • How do I rewrite .after( content, content )?

    - by Evan Carroll
    I've got this form working, but according to my previous question it might not be supported: it isn't in the docs either way -- but the intention is pretty obvious in the code. $(".section.warranty .warranty_checks :last").after( $('<div class="little check" />').click( function () { alert('hi') } ) , $('<span>OEM</span>') /*Notice this (a second) argument */ ); What this does is insert <div class="little check"> with a simple .click() callback, followed by a sibling of <span>OEM</span>. How else can I write this then? I'm having difficulty conjuring something working by chaining any combination of .after(), and .insertAfter()? I would expect this to work, but it doesn't: $(".section.warranty .warranty_checks :last").after( $('<div class="little check" />').click( function () { alert('hi') } ).after ( $('<span>OEM</span>') ) ); I would also expect this to work, but it doesn't: $(".section.warranty .warranty_checks :last").after( $('<span>OEM</span>').insertAfter( $('<div class="little check" />').click( function () { alert('hi') } ) ); );

    Read the article

  • Fast serarch of 2 dimensional array

    - by Tim
    I need a method of quickly searching a large 2 dimensional array. I extract the array from Excel, so 1 dimension represents the rows and the second the columns. I wish to obtain a list of the rows where the columns match certain criteria. I need to know the row number (or index of the array). For example, if I extract a range from excel. I may need to find all rows where column A =”dog” and column B = 7 and column J “a”. I only know which columns and which value to find at run time, so I can’t hard code the column index. I could use a simple loop, but is this efficient ? I need to run it several thousand times, searching for different criteria each time. For r As Integer = 0 To UBound(myArray, 0) - 1 match = True For c = 0 To UBound(myArray, 1) - 1 If not doesValueMeetCriteria(myarray(r,c) then match = False Exit For End If Next If match Then addRowToMatchedRows(r) Next The doesValueMeetCriteria function is a simple function that checks the value of the array element against the query requirement. e.g. Column A = dog etc. Is it more effiecent to create a datatable from the array and use the .select method ? Can I use Linq in some way ? Perhaps some form of dictionary or hashtable ? Or is the simple loop the most effiecent ? Your suggestions are most welcome.

    Read the article

  • Spring bean initialization in a web app

    - by EugeneP
    We work with a web application and autowire beans using WebApplicationContextUtils in the init method. Could you clarify some details about bean initialization? The question rises from the static factory method. Suppose there's a bean that is created in a static factory method. As we can see, when the web app is deployed, the ContextLoaderListener initializes all the beans present in Spring xml config file. Now happens such a thing. In the static factory method we run a timer that starts ticking. But in reality we wouldn't want it to start ticking unless the bean is injected into a property of the object ! That is question number one - all the beans are automatically initialized on deploy - correct? And after that when we need an injection, it simply feels the link with the address of the object created during initialization, though OBJECT WAS CREATED ON WEB APP DEPLOY, immediately ! (I assume the default singleton-creation Spring behavior) Second question: are all copies of a web app use the same beans, so all beans are WEB-APP wide, every Spring bean is shared between all the copies of this web app running?

    Read the article

  • C++ socket concurrent server

    - by gregpi
    Hi all; Im writing a concurrent server that's supposed to have a communication channel and a data channel. The client initially connect to the communication channel to authenticate, upon successful authentication, the client is then connected to the data channel to access data. My program is already doing that, and im using threads.My only issue is that if I try to connect another client, I get a "cannot bind : address already in use" error. I have it this way: PART A Client connect to port 4567 (and enter his login info). A thread spawn to handle the client(repeated for each client that connects). In the thread created, I have a function(let's call it FUNC_A) that checks the client's login info(dont worry about how the check is done), if successful, the thread starts the data server(listening on 8976) then sends an OK to the client, once received the client attempts to connect to the data server. PART B Once a client connect to the data server, from inside FUNC_A the client is accepted and another thread is spawn to handle the client's connection to the data server.(hopefully everything is clear). Now, all that is working fine. However, if I try to connect with second client when it gets to PART B I get a "cannot bind error: address already in use". I've tried so many different ways, I've even tried spawning a thread to start the data server and accept the client and then start another thread to handle that connection. still no luck. Please give me a suggestion as to what I'm doing wrong, how do I go about doing this or what's the best way to implement it. Thank you

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 536 537 538 539 540 541 542 543 544 545 546 547  | Next Page >