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  • CakePHP: Custom Function in bootstrap that uses $ajax->link not working

    - by nekko
    Hello I have two questions: (1) Is it best practice to create global custom functions in the bootstrap file? Is there a better place to store them? (2) I am unable use the following line of code in my custom function located in my bootstrap.php file: $url = $ajax->link ( 'Delete', array ('controller' => 'events', 'action' => 'delete', 22 ), array ('update' => 'event' ), 'Do you want to delete this event?' ); echo $url; I receive the following error: Notice (8): Undefined variable: ajax [APP\config\bootstrap.php, line 271] Code } function testAjax () { $url = $ajax->link ( 'Delete', array ('controller' => 'events', 'action' => 'delete', 22 ), array ('update' => 'event' ), 'Do you want to delete this event?' ); testAjax - APP\config\bootstrap.php, line 271 include - APP\views\event\queue.ctp, line 19 View::_render() - CORE\cake\libs\view\view.php, line 649 View::render() - CORE\cake\libs\view\view.php, line 372 Controller::render() - CORE\cake\libs\controller\controller.php, line 766 Dispatcher::_invoke() - CORE\cake\dispatcher.php, line 211 Dispatcher::dispatch() - CORE\cake\dispatcher.php, line 181 [main] - APP\webroot\index.php, line 91 However it works as intended if I place that same code in my view: <a onclick=" event.returnValue = false; return false;" id="link1656170149" href="/shout/events/delete/22">Delete</a> Please help :) Thanks in advance!!

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  • Use of 'this keyword' javascript in IE ?

    - by Ron
    Is there a workaround for Internet Explorer to implement the functionality offered by 'this' javascript keyword to get the dom element that triggered the event? My problem scenario is : I have a variable number of text fields in the html form, like input type="text" id="11" input type="text" id="12" .. I need to handle the "onchange" event for each text field, and the handling is dependent on the 'id' of the field that triggered the event. So far I understand that my options are: 1) attach a dedicated event handler for each text field. so if I have n fields, i have n different functions, something like: input type="text" id="11" onchange="function11();" input type="text" id="12" onchange="function12();" but the text fields are added and removed dynamically, so a better way would be to have one generic function instead. 2) use the 'this' keyword like: input type="text" id="11" onchange="functionGeneric(this);" input type="text" id="12" onchange="functionGeneric(this);" But this option does not work with Internet Explorer. Can anyone suggest a work around for getting it work in IE or some other solution that can be applied here? Thanks.

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  • MySQL Normalization stored procedure performance

    - by srkiNZ84
    Hi, I've written a stored procedure in MySQL to take values currently in a table and to "Normalize" them. This means that for each value passed to the stored procedure, it checks whether the value is already in the table. If it is, then it stores the id of that row in a variable. If the value is not in the table, it stores the newly inserted value's id. The stored procedure then takes the id's and inserts them into a table which is equivalent to the original de-normailized table, but this table is fully normalized and consists of mainly foreign keys. My problem with this design is that the stored procedure takes approximately 10ms or so to return, which is too long when you're trying to work through some 10million records. My suspicion is that the performance is to do with the way in which I'm doing the inserts. i.e. INSERT INTO TableA (first_value) VALUES (argument_from_sp) ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE id=LAST_INSERT_ID(id); SET @TableAId = LAST_INSERT_ID(); The "ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE" is a bit of a hack, due to the fact that on a duplicate key I don't want to update anything but rather just return the id value of the row. If you miss this step though, the LAST_INSERT_ID() function returns the wrong value when you're trying to run the "SET ..." statement. Does anyone know of a better way to do this in MySQL? Thank you

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  • Execute process conditionally in Windows PowerShell (e.g. the && and || operators in Bash)

    - by Dustin
    I'm wondering if anybody knows of a way to conditionally execute a program depending on the exit success/failure of the previous program. Is there any way for me to execute a program2 immediately after program1 if program1 exits successfully without testing the LASTEXITCODE variable? I tried the -band and -and operators to no avail, though I had a feeling they wouldn't work anyway, and the best substitute is a combination of a semicolon and an if statement. I mean, when it comes to building a package somewhat automatically from source on Linux, the && operator can't be beaten: # Configure a package, compile it and install it ./configure && make && sudo make install PowerShell would require me to do the following, assuming I could actually use the same build system in PowerShell: # Configure a package, compile it and install it .\configure ; if ($LASTEXITCODE -eq 0) { make ; if ($LASTEXITCODE -eq 0) { sudo make install } } Sure, I could use multiple lines, save it in a file and execute the script, but the idea is for it to be concise (save keystrokes). Perhaps it's just a difference between PowerShell and Bash (and even the built-in Windows command prompt which supports the && operator) I'll need to adjust to, but if there's a cleaner way to do it, I'd love to know.

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  • Angular ng-style not changing with property

    - by ganaraj
    For the life of me I cant seem to figure out why the style property is not getting updated. In my larger application it seems to work fine. http://jsfiddle.net/ganarajpr/C2hRa/4/ Here is a fiddle which shows the issue I am currently facing. You will notice that the width and height are getting updated in the div when you change the input. But the style itself doesnt seem to be updating. Anyone can tell me what I am doing wrong here? I have tried all the following scenarios using $scope.$apply.. - Throws an error stating $apply already in progress.. $rootScope.$apply - same as above. Setting another variable in a service which is $watched in the other controller. - no change seen. It would be really cool if someone can get me an answer to this. Also would be really happy if you can tell me why exactly it is not getting updated.

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  • Transform only one axis to log10 scale with ggplot2

    - by daroczig
    I have the following problem: I would like to visualize a discrete and a continuous variable on a boxplot in which the latter has a few extreme high values. This makes the boxplot meaningless (the points and even the "body" of the chart is too small), that is why I would like to show this on a log10 scale. I am aware that I could leave out the extreme values from the visualization, but I am not intended to. Let's see a simple example with diamonds data: m <- ggplot(diamonds, aes(y = price, x = color)) The problem is not serious here, but I hope you could imagine why I would like to see the values at a log10 scale. Let's try it: m + geom_boxplot() + coord_trans(y = "log10") As you can see the y axis is log10 scaled and looks fine but there is a problem with the x axis, which makes the plot very strange. The problem do not occur with scale_log, but this is not an option for me, as I cannot use a custom formatter this way. E.g.: m + geom_boxplot() + scale_y_log10() My question: does anyone know a solution to plot the boxplot with log10 scale on y axis which labels could be freely formatted with a formatter function like in this thread? Editing the question to help answerers based on answers and comments: What I am really after: one log10 transformed axis (y) with not scientific labels. I would like to label it like dollar (formatter=dollar) or any custom format. If I try @hadley's suggestion I get the following warnings: > m + geom_boxplot() + scale_y_log10(formatter=dollar) Warning messages: 1: In max(x) : no non-missing arguments to max; returning -Inf 2: In max(x) : no non-missing arguments to max; returning -Inf 3: In max(x) : no non-missing arguments to max; returning -Inf With an unchanged y axis labels:

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  • Read Java in as Hex

    - by James
    Hi, I have tried to solve this but I keep coming up with stuff that is no help I'm sure this is easy (when you know how of course ;) ) What I would like to do is read in a file using a byte stream like below: while((read = in.read()) != -1){ //code removed to save space Integer.toHexString(read); System.out.println(read); } When it prints out the Hex to the screen it will print out numbers fine e.g 31 13 12 0 but when it comes to a hex code that should be 01 31 it will print 0 131. I want to read it in to a variable like you would see in a hex editor i.e 00 11 21 31 no single numbers as i need to scan the whole file and look for patterns which I know how to do I'm just stuck on this :/ so in short i need a variabe to contain the two hex characters i.e int temp = 01 not int temp = 0 , I hope this all makes sense, I'm a little confused as it's 3am! If anyone knows how to do this I would be most greatful, p.s thanks for the help in advance this site has saved me loads of research and have learnt a lot! Many thanks.

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  • Dual usage of asp.net mvc and php under same domain

    - by jim
    Hello all, I've got a scenario where we have a customer who has a linux hosted php app (joomla) that they wish to integrate with some back-end asp.net mvc functionality that was created for a 'sister' site. Basically, the mvc site has prices and stock availability methods which (in the sister site) populates dropdown lists and other 'order' style info on the pages. I've been tasked with looking at the integration options to allow the php site to use this info as a 'service'. (as ever, these guys are looking at cost of ownership, maintenence etc, so this is their preferred route) Has anyone done anything similar with success?? I'd imagine (much like the sister site) liberal doses of ajax will be employed in order to populate portions of the page on demand. So this may have a bearing on any suggestions that you may have. Also, the methods that are being called ultimately end up populating the same database, so there are no issues with correlating the ID's across the different platforms. I don't really want to go down any 'iframe' type route if at all possible, tho' reality may dictate this as being an option. I'm possibly (naively) imagining that i could simply invoke the mvc functions directly from the php app with some sort of 'session' variable being passed for authentication. pretty tall order or pretty straightfwd?? cheers jim

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  • Save Jquery Object without losing its binding

    - by Ahmad Satiri
    Hi I have object created using jquery where each object has it's own binding. function closeButton(oAny){ var div = create_div(); $(div).attr("id","btn_"+$(oAny).attr("id")); var my_parent = this; $(div).html("<img src='"+ my_parent._base_url +"/assets/images/close.gif'>"); $(div).click(function(){ alert("do some action here"); }); return div; } var MyObject = WindowObject(); var btn = closeButton(MyObject); $(myobject).append(btn); $("body").append(myobject); //at this point button will work as i expected //save to array for future use ObjectCollections[0] = myobject; //remove $(myobject).remove(); $(body).append(ObjectCollections[0]); // at this point button will not work For the first time i can show my object and close button is working as i expected. But if i save myobject to any variable for future use. It will loose its binding. Anybody ever try to do this ? Is there any work around ? or It is definitely a bad idea ? .And thanks for answering my question.

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  • Jquery click bindings are not working correctly when binding multiple copies

    - by KallDrexx
    I seem to have an issue when creating copies of a template and tying the .click() method to them properly. Take the following javascript for example: var list; // Loop through all of the objects var topics = data.objects; for (x = 0; x < objects.length; x++) { // Clone the object list item template var item = $("#object_item_list_template").clone(); // Setup the click action and inner text for the link tag in the template var objectVal = objects[x].Value; item.find('a').click(function () { ShowObject(objectVal.valueOf(), 'T'); }).html(objects[x].Text); // add the html to the list if (list == undefined) list = item; else list.append(item.contents()); } // Prepend the topics to the topic list $("#object_list").empty().append(list.contents()); The problem I am seeing with this is that no matter which item the user clicks on in the #object_list, ShowObject() is called with the last value of objectVal. So for example, if the 3rd item's <a> is clicked, ShowObject(5,'T'); is called even though objects[2].Value is successfully being seen as 2. How can I get this to work? The main purpose of this code is to take a variable number of items gotten from a JSON AJAX request, make copies of the item template, and insert those copies into the correct spot on the html page. I decided to do it this way so that I can keep all my HTML in one spot for when I need to change the layout or design of the page, and not have to hunt for the html code in the javascript.

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  • Changing a url depending on what link chosen (HTML) no asp.

    - by Ozaki
    TLDR I need to change a javascript variable on the same page after clicking a link (can be from a different page) so that the getjson request pulls different data without having to duplicate on html pages. I am using some getJSON requests with Jquery, to make calls to populate my pages. I want to be able to (in plain HTML / javascript) when the user clicks say "link 1" or "link 2" to open the same page (say page.html) but change the get request url to "link 1" or "link 2". Page.html var url = ??; $.getJSON(url, function(data){} link 1 var url = host/link1 <a href="page.html">link1</a> link2 var url = host/link2 <a href="page.html">link2</a> So I call the same page but am able to populate it with different content. Purposely staying away from asp. Was thinking maybe of inserting the content into a div after page load so the url can be set or something along those lines. Any ideas how I might go about this?

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  • Associating an object with another object for GC clearup

    - by thecoop
    Is there any way of associating an object instance (object A) with a second object (object B) in a generalised way, so that when B gets collected A becomes eligable for collection? The same behaviour that would happen if B had an instance variable pointing to A, but without explicitly changing the class definition of B, and being able to do this in a dynamic way? The same sort of effect could be done by using the Component.Disposed event in a funky way, but I don't want to make B disposable EDIT I'm basically creating a cache of objects that are associated with a single 'root' object, and I don't want the cache to be static, as there can be lots of root objects using different caches, so lots of memory will be used up when a root object is no longer used but the cached objects are still around. So, I want a collection of cached objects to be associated with each 'root' object, without changing the root object definition. Sort of like metadata of an extra object reference attached to each root object instance. That way, each collection will get collected when the root object is collected, and not hang around like they would if a static cache was used.

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  • Bind button visibility to the expresion (C#)

    - by drasto
    I have a delete button in each row of GridView (component ASP.NET). I want some of the delete buttons to be invisible. The visibility of the delete button should depend on the data that are back the row. GridView is backed by EntityDataSource. GridView displays entities called Category, one instance in each row. Entity Category has (besides others) also a field of type EntityCollection. Name of that field is Items. Basically I want to allow user to delete a row only if the Items field of backing Category entity is an empty collection. I cannot make up the binding of Visible property. I have no experience with bindings and Google does not really help. This is how the button looks right now: <asp:Button ID="DeleteButton" runat="server" CommandName="Delete" Text="Delete" Visible=??? ></asp:Button> I don't know what should replace ???. The button schold be visible only when this expression evaluates to true: ((SimpleEShop.Model.Category) dataItem).Items.LongCount() <= 0 where dataItem variable contains data of current row in the table. What is the binding that I need ?

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  • Incompatible types when assigning to type 'struct compartido'

    - by user1660559
    I have one problem with this code. I should create one structure and share it across 5 new process created from the father: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <sys/wait.h> #include <unistd.h> #include <sys/types.h> #include <sys/ipc.h> #include <sys/shm.h> #include <sys/sem.h> #include <time.h> struct compartido { int pid1, pid2, pid3, pid4, pid5; int propietario; int contador; int pidpadre; }; struct compartido var; int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { key_t llave1,llavesem; int idmem,idsem; llave1=ftok("/tmp",'a'); idmem=shmget(llave1,sizeof(int),IPC_CREAT|0600); if (idmem==-1) { perror ("shmget"); return 1; } var=shmat(idmem,0,0); /*This line is giving the error*/ /*rest of the code*/ } The exact error is giving is: error: incompatible types when assigning to type 'struct compartido' from type 'void *' I need to put this structure in the shared variable to be able to see and modify all those data from the 6 process (5 children and the father). What I'm doing bad? Thanks in advance and best regards,

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  • Anchor tags are blank

    - by ryanday
    I'm having a problem where the my anchor tags sometimes aren't displaying their links. This is happening on Mobile Safari on multiple iPhones, and in the iPhone simulator. I'm using jQtouch r147, PhoneGap, and jQuery 1.4.2. I'm generating the data from a database call, and adding anchor tags to a list like this: for(var i=0;i<data.rows.length;i++) { var item = $('<li></li>'); var name = data.rows.item(i).name; var anchor = $('<a href="#lpage">'+name+'</a>'); item.addClass('arrow'); // This line always displays the name, even when I can't see // the name in the browser debug.log('The name: ' + name); (function(info) { anchor.bind('tap', function(e) { debug.log('Touch start ' + info.id); }); })(data.rows.item(i)); item.append(anchor); if( anchor.html() == null ) { debug.log('html is blank'); } $('#myUL').append(item); } Sometimes my list of names shows fine(http://imagebin.org/101462), and sometimes it is just blank(http://imagebin.org/101464). When the list is blank, I see the debug.log() line show me 'html is blank', and I also see the log line show me that the variable 'name' does, in fact, contain a valid name. When I check for anchor.html() == null, I've also tried to .remove() the anchor tag, and re-create it. But it always comes back without the name displayed. This happens on the mobile device and in the simulator, but I've never seen it happen in Safari or in Chrome. Has anyone seen something like this? I can't find the cause, and I can't get it to stop. Thank you for any ideas or suggestions!

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  • Deeply nested subqueries for traversing trees in MySQL

    - by nickf
    I have a table in my database where I store a tree structure using the hybrid Nested Set (MPTT) model (the one which has lft and rght values) and the Adjacency List model (storing parent_id on each node). my_table (id, parent_id, lft, rght, alias) This question doesn't relate to any of the MPTT aspects of the tree but I thought I'd leave it in in case anyone had a good idea about how to leverage that. I want to convert a path of aliases to a specific node. For example: "users.admins.nickf" would find the node with alias "nickf" which is a child of one with alias "admins" which is a child of "users" which is at the root. There is a unique index on (parent_id, alias). I started out by writing the function so it would split the path to its parts, then query the database one by one: SELECT `id` FROM `my_table` WHERE `parent_id` IS NULL AND `alias` = 'users';-- 1 SELECT `id` FROM `my_table` WHERE `parent_id` = 1 AND `alias` = 'admins'; -- 8 SELECT `id` FROM `my_table` WHERE `parent_id` = 8 AND `alias` = 'nickf'; -- 37 But then I realised I could do it with a single query, using a variable amount of nesting: SELECT `id` FROM `my_table` WHERE `parent_id` = ( SELECT `id` FROM `my_table` WHERE `parent_id` = ( SELECT `id` FROM `my_table` WHERE `parent_id` IS NULL AND `alias` = 'users' ) AND `alias` = 'admins' ) AND `alias` = 'nickf'; Since the number of sub-queries is dependent on the number of steps in the path, am I going to run into issues with having too many subqueries? (If there even is such a thing) Are there any better/smarter ways to perform this query?

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  • Object addSubview only works in viewDidLoad

    - by DecodingSand
    Hi, I'm new to iPhone dev and need some help with adding subViews. I have a reusable object that I made that is stored in a separate .h .m and xib file. I would like to use this object in my main project's view controller. I have included the header and the assignment of the object generates no errors. I am able to load the object into my main project but can only do things with it inside my viewDidLoad method. I intend to have a few of these objects on my screen and am looking fora solution that is more robust then just hard wiring up multiple copies of the shape object. As soon as I try to access the object outside of the viewDidLoad it produces a variable unknown error - first use in this function. Here is my viewDidLoad method: shapeViewController *shapeView = [[shapeViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"shapeViewController" bundle:nil]; [self.view addSubview: shapeView.view]; // This is the problem line // This code works changes the display on the shape object [shapeView updateDisplay:@"123456"]; ---- but the same code outside of the viewDidLoad generates the error. So to sum up, everything works except when I try to access the shapeView object in the rest of the methods. Thanks in advance

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  • Turning on multiple result sets in an ODBC connection to SQL Server

    - by David Griffiths
    I have an application that originally needed to connect to Sybase (via ODBC), but I've needed to add the ability to connect to SQL Server as well. As ODBC should be able to handle both, I thought I was in a good position. Unfort, SQL Server will not let me, by default, nest ODBC commands and ODBCDataReaders - it complains the connection is busy. I know that I had to specify that multiple active result sets (MARS) were allowed in similar circumstances when connecting to SQL Server via a native driver, so I thought it wouldn't be an issue. The DSN wizard has no entr y when creating a SystemDSN. Some people have provided registry hacks to get around this, but this did not work (add a MARS_Connection with a value of Yes to HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\ODBC\ODBC.INI\system-dsn-name). Another suggestion was to create a file-dsn, and add "MARS_Connection=YES" to that. Didn't work. Finally, a DSN-less connection string. I've tried this one (using MultipleActiveResultSets - same variable as a Sql Server connection would use), "Driver={SQL Native Client};Server=xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx;Database=someDB;Uid=u;Pwd=p;MultipleActiveResultSets=True;" and this one: "Driver={SQL Native Client};Server=192.168.75.33\\ARIA;Database=Aria;Uid=sa;Pwd=service;MARS_Connection=YES;" I have checked the various connection-string sites - they all suggest what I've already tried.

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  • python packaging causes importerror

    - by Absolute0
    I am getting an annoying import error when I try to import a variable in an init.py file. I have attached the files involved and my directory structure: #/home/me/app/app/__init__.py from flaskext.sqlalchemy import SQLAlchemy db = SQLAlchemy(app) #/home/me/app/app/models/__init__.py from datetime import datetime from app import db #shell [me@archlinux app]$ pwd /home/me/app [me@archlinux app]$ ./manage.py /home/me/app/app/__init__.pyc Traceback (most recent call last): File "./manage.py", line 7, in <module> from app import app File "/home/me/app/app/__init__.py", line 3, in <module> from app.views.post import post File "/home/me/app/app/views/post.py", line 4, in <module> from app.models import Post File "/home/me/app/app/models/__init__.py", line 5, in <module> from app import db ImportError: cannot import name db [me@archlinux app]$ tree . +-- apikey.txt +-- manage.py +-- app ¦   +-- forms ¦   ¦   +-- __init__.py ¦   ¦   +-- __init__.py~ ¦   +-- __init__.py ¦   +-- __init__.py~ ¦   +-- __init__.pyc ¦   +-- models ¦   ¦   +-- __init__.py ¦   ¦   +-- __init__.py~ ¦   ¦   +-- __init__.pyc ¦   +-- static ¦   ¦   +-- css ¦   ¦   ¦   +-- style.css ¦   ¦   +-- images ¦   ¦   ¦   +-- favicon.png ¦   ¦   ¦   +-- logo.png ¦   ¦   ¦   +-- text_logo.png ¦   ¦   ¦   +-- thumb_down_active.png ¦   ¦   ¦   +-- thumb_down_inactive.png ¦   ¦   ¦   +-- thumb_up_active.png ¦   ¦   ¦   +-- thumb_up_inactive.png ¦   ¦   +-- js ¦   ¦   ¦   +-- index.js ¦   ¦   +-- sitemap.xml ¦   +-- templates ¦   ¦   +-- 404.html ¦   ¦   +-- 500.html ¦   ¦   +-- about.html ¦   ¦   +-- base.html ¦   ¦   +-- feedback ¦   ¦   ¦   +-- feedback_form.html ¦   ¦   +-- form.html ¦   ¦   +-- posts ¦   ¦   ¦   +-- comment.html ¦   ¦   ¦   +-- post.html ¦   ¦   ¦   +-- posts.html ¦   ¦   +-- spam.html ¦   ¦   +-- terms.html ¦   ¦   +-- users ¦   ¦   +-- login_form.html ¦   ¦   +-- sign_up_form.html ¦   +-- util ¦   ¦   +-- forms.py ¦   ¦   +-- honeypot.py ¦   ¦   +-- __init__.py ¦   ¦   +-- __init__.py~ ¦   ¦   +-- json_http.py ¦   ¦   +-- models.py ¦   ¦   +-- spam.py ¦   +-- views ¦   +-- feedback.py ¦   +-- __init__.py ¦   +-- __init__.pyc ¦   +-- post.py ¦   +-- post.pyc ¦   +-- user.py +-- settings.py +-- settings.pyc +-- TiddlyWiki.html 13 directories, 49 files What might be the problem?

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  • Using parameterized function calls in SELECT statements. SQL Server

    - by geekzlla
    I have taken over some code from a previous developer and have come across this SQL statement that calls several SQL functions. As you can see, the function calls in the select statement pass a parameter to the function. How does the SQL statement know what value to replace the variable with? For the below sample, how does the query engine know what to replace nDeptID with when it calls, fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) nDeptID IS a column in table Note. SELECT STATEMENT: SELECT nCustomerID AS [Customer ID], nJobID AS [Job ID], dbo.fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) AS Department, nJobTaskID AS JobTaskID, dbo.fn_SelDeptTaskDesc_OpenTask(nJobID, nJobTaskID) AS Task, nStandardNoteID AS StandardNoteID, dbo.fn_SelNoteTypeDesc(nNoteID) AS [Note Type], dbo.fn_SelGPAStandardNote(nStandardNoteID) AS [Standard Note], nEntryDate AS [Entry Date], nUserName as [Added By], nType AS Type, nNote AS Note FROM Note WHERE nJobID = 844261 ORDER BY nJobID, Task, [Entry Date] ====================== Function fn_SelDeptName_DeptID: ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[fn_SelDeptName_DeptID] (@iDeptID int) RETURNS varchar(25) -- Used by DataCollection for Job Tracking -- if the Deptartment isnt found return an empty string BEGIN -- Return the Department name for the given DeptID. DECLARE @strDeptName varchar(25) IF @iDeptID = 0 SET @strDeptName = '' ELSE BEGIN SET @strDeptName = (SELECT dName FROM Department WHERE dDeptID = @iDeptID) IF (@strDeptName IS NULL) SET @strDeptName = '' END RETURN @strDeptName END ========================== Thanks in advance.

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  • Read a specific range of lines from a file using c

    - by James Joy
    I have the following content in a file: hhasfghgsafjgfhgfhjf gashghfdgdfhgfhjasgfgfhsgfjdg jfshafghgfgfhfsghfgffsjgfj . . . . . startread hajshjsfhajfhjkashfjf hasjgfhgHGASFHGSHF hsafghfsaghgf . . . . . stopread . . . . . . jsfjhfhjgfsjhfgjhsajhdsa jhasjhsdabjhsagshaasgjasdhjk jkdsdsahghjdashjsfahjfsd I need to read the lines from the next line of startread till the previous line of stopread using a c code and store it to a string variable(of course with a \n for every line breaks). How can i achieve this? I have used fgets(line,sizeof(line),file); but it starts reading from the beginning. I don't have the exact line number to start and stop reading since the file is written by another C code. But there are these identifiers startread and stopread to identify whereto start reading. Operating platform is linux. Thanks in advance.

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  • What is the preferred way in C++ for converting a builtin type (int) to bool?

    - by Martin
    When programming with Visual C++, I think every developer is used to see the warning warning C4800: 'BOOL' : forcing value to bool 'true' or 'false' from time to time. The reason obviously is that BOOL is defined as int and directly assigning any of the built-in numerical types to bool is considered a bad idea. So my question is now, given any built-in numerical type (int, short, ...) that is to be interpreted as a boolean value, what is the/your preferred way of actually storing that value into a variable of type bool? Note: While mixing BOOL and bool is probably a bad idea, I think the problem will inevitably pop up whether on Windows or somewhere else, so I think this question is neither Visual-C++ nor Windows specific. Given int nBoolean; I prefer this style: bool b = nBoolean?true:false; The following might be alternatives: bool b = !!nBoolean; bool b = (nBoolean != 0); Is there a generally preferred way? Rationale? I should add: Since I only work with Visual-C++ I cannot really say if this is a VC++ specific question or if the same problem pops up with other compilers. So it would be interesting to specifically hear from g++ or users how they handle the int-bool case. Regarding Standard C++: As David Thornley notes in a comment, the C++ Standard does not require this behavior. In fact it seems to explicitly allow this, so one might consider this a VC++ weirdness. To quote the N3029 draft (which is what I have around atm.): 4.12 Boolean conversions [conv.bool] A prvalue of arithmetic, unscoped enumeration, pointer, or pointer to member type can be converted to a prvalue of type bool. A zero value, null pointer value, or null member pointer value is converted to false; any other value is converted to true. (...)

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  • How do I set the Eclipse build path and class path from an Ant build file?

    - by Nels Beckman
    Hey folks, There's a lot of discussion about Ant and Eclipse, but no previously answered seems to help me. Here's the deal: I am trying to build a Java program that compiles successfully with Ant from the command-line. (To confuse matters further, the program I am attempting to compile is Ant itself.) What I really want to do is to bring this project into Eclipse and have it compile in Eclipse such that the type bindings and variable bindings (nomenclature from Eclipse JDT) are correctly resolved. I need this because I need to run a static analysis on the code that is built on top of Eclipse JDT. The normal way I bring a Java project into Eclipse so that Eclipse will build it and resolve all the bindings is to just import the source directories into a Java project, and then tell it to use the src/main/ directory as a "source directory." Unfortunately, doing that with Ant causes the build to fail with numerous compile errors. It seems to me that the Ant build file is setting up the class path and build path correctly (possibly by excluding certain source files) and Eclipse does not have this information. Is there any way to take the class path & build path information embedded in an Ant build file, and given that information to Eclipse to put in its .project and .classpath files? I've tried, creating a new project from an existing build file (an option in the File menu) but this does not help. The project still has the same compile errors. Thanks, Nels

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  • ArrayAccess multidimensional (un)set?

    - by anomareh
    I have a class implementing ArrayAccess and I'm trying to get it to work with a multidimensional array. exists and get work. set and unset are giving me a problem though. class ArrayTest implements ArrayAccess { private $_arr = array( 'test' => array( 'bar' => 1, 'baz' => 2 ) ); public function offsetExists($name) { return isset($this->_arr[$name]); } public function offsetSet($name, $value) { $this->_arr[$name] = $value; } public function offsetGet($name) { return $this->_arr[$name]; } public function offsetUnset($name) { unset($this->_arr[$name]); } } $arrTest = new ArrayTest(); isset($arrTest['test']['bar']); // Returns TRUE echo $arrTest['test']['baz']; // Echo's 2 unset($arrTest['test']['bar']; // Error $arrTest['test']['bar'] = 5; // Error I know $_arr could just be made public so you could access it directly, but for my implementation it's not desired and is private. The last 2 lines throw an error: Notice: Indirect modification of overloaded element. I know ArrayAccess just generally doesn't work with multidimensional arrays, but is there anyway around this or any somewhat clean implementation that will allow the desired functionality? The best idea I could come up with is using a character as a separator and testing for it in set and unset and acting accordingly. Though this gets really ugly really fast if you're dealing with a variable depth. Does anyone know why exists and get work so as to maybe copy over the functionality? Thanks for any help anyone can offer.

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  • Why can't I get the value of this text input?

    - by Spilot
    It seems simple enough, but nothing I try is working. I have a jquery ui datepicker, I use val() to get the value of that input on button click(), then log it. The click event is working. I can log a string I write myself, but when I pass console.log() the variable that stores the datepicker value...nothing. I've tried using html() and text() instead of val(), still nothing //JS $(function(){ $("button").button(); $("#date").datepicker(); var date = $("#date").val(); $("button").click(function(){ // this logs console.log("event working"); // but this logs nothing console.log(date); });//close click });//closes function //HTML <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="http://www.parsecdn.com/js/parse-1.2.8.min.js"></script> <script src="//ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.10.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/ui/1.10.3/jquery-ui.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="http://myDomain/bn/lbStyle.css"/> <script src="http://myDomain/index.js"></script> <title> Welcome to The Bringer Network </title> </head> <body> <form id="dialog"> <p>Date <input type="text" id="date"/></p> <button>Submit</button> </form> </body> </html>

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