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  • Enumeration trouble: redeclared as different kind of symbol

    - by Matt
    Hello all. I am writing a program that is supposed to help me learn about enumeration data types in C++. The current trouble is that the compiler doesn't like my enum usage when trying to use the new data type as I would other data types. I am getting the error "redeclared as different kind of symbol" when compiling my trangleShape function. Take a look at the relevant code. Any insight is appreciated! Thanks! (All functions are their own .cpp files.) header file #ifndef HEADER_H_INCLUDED #define HEADER_H_INCLUDED #include <iostream> #include <iomanip> using namespace std; enum triangleType {noTriangle, scalene, isoceles, equilateral}; //prototypes void extern input(float&, float&, float&); triangleType extern triangleShape(float, float, float); /*void extern output (float, float, float);*/ void extern myLabel(const char *, const char *); #endif // HEADER_H_INCLUDED main function //8.1 main // this progam... #include "header.h" int main() { float sideLength1, sideLength2, sideLength3; char response; do //main loop { input (sideLength1, sideLength2, sideLength3); triangleShape (sideLength1, sideLength2, sideLength3); //output (sideLength1, sideLength2, sideLength3); cout << "\nAny more triangles to analyze? (y,n) "; cin >> response; } while (response == 'Y' || response == 'y'); myLabel ("8.1", "2/11/2011"); return 0; } triangleShape shape # include "header.h" triangleType triangleShape(sideLenght1, sideLength2, sideLength3) { triangleType triangle; return triangle; }

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  • Somewhat lost with jquery + php + json

    - by Luis Armando
    I am starting to use the jquery $.ajax() but I can't get back what I want to...I send this: $(function(){ $.ajax({ url: "graph_data.php", type: "POST", data: "casi=56&nada=48&nuevo=98&perfecto=100&vales=50&apenas=70&yeah=60", dataType: "json", error: function (xhr, desc, exceptionobj) { document.writeln("El error de XMLHTTPRequest dice: " + xhr.responseText); }, success: function (json) { if (json.error) { alert(json.error); return; } var output = ""; for (p in json) { output += p + " : " + json[p] + "\n"; } document.writeln("Results: \n\n" + output); } }); }); and my php is: <?php $data = $_POST['data']; function array2json($data){ $json = $data; return json_encode($json); } ?> and when I execute this I come out with: Results: just like that I used to have in the php a echo array2json statement but it just gave back gibberish...I really don't know what am I doing wrong and I've googled for about 3 hours just getting basically the same stuff. Also I don't know how to pass parameters to the "data:" in the $.ajax function in another way like getting info from the web page, can anyone please help me? Edit I did what you suggested and it prints the data now thank you very much =) however, I was wondering, how can I send the data to the "data:" part in jQuery so it takes it from let's say user input, also I was checking the php documentation and it says I'm allowed to write something like: json_encode($a,JSON_HEX_TAG|JSON_HEX_APOS|JSON_HEX_QUOT|JSON_HEX_AMP) however, if I do that I get an error saying that json_encode accepts 1 parameter and I'm giving 2...any idea why? I'm using php 5.2

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  • Django + jquery : getting 301

    - by llazzaro
    Hello, I have tabs that calls via javascript urls of django to complete the "container" But i am getting 301, any idea why this is happening? Server misconfiguration? urls.py urlpatterns = patterns('', (r'^admin/', include(admin.site.urls)), (r'^list/', 'carsproj.cars.views.list'), ) view def list(request): if request.is_ajax(): return render_to_response('templates/generic_list.html', { 'items' : Cars.objects.all(), 'name' : 'List - Cars' }, context_instance = RequestContext(request)) javascript the_tabs.click(function(e){ var element = $(this); if(element.find('#overLine').length) return false; var bg = element.attr('class').replace('tab ',''); $('#overLine').remove(); $('<div>',{ id:'overLine', css:{ display:'none', width:element.outerWidth()-2, background:topLineColor[bg] || 'white' }}).appendTo(element).fadeIn('slow'); if(!element.data('cache')) { $('#contentHolder').html('<img src="/media/img/ajax_preloader.gif" width="64" height="64" class="preloader" />'); $.get(element.data('page'),function(msg){ $('#contentHolder').html(msg); element.data('cache',msg); }); } else $('#contentHolder').html(element.data('cache')); e.preventDefault(); }) Please tell me what more information you need, js code? template? url.py? I WILL EDIT THIS POST FOR ADD MORE DATA

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  • Using LINQ to map dynamically (or construct projections)

    - by CodeGrue
    I know I can map two object types with LINQ using a projection as so: var destModel = from m in sourceModel select new DestModelType {A = m.A, C = m.C, E = m.E} where class SourceModelType { string A {get; set;} string B {get; set;} string C {get; set;} string D {get; set;} string E {get; set;} } class DestModelType { string A {get; set;} string C {get; set;} string E {get; set;} } But what if I want to make something like a generic to do this, where I don't know specifically the two types I am dealing with. So it would walk the "Dest" type and match with the matching "Source" types.. is this possible? Also, to achieve deferred execution, I would want it just to return an IQueryable. For example: public IQueryable<TDest> ProjectionMap<TSource, TDest>(IQueryable<TSource> sourceModel) { // dynamically build the LINQ projection based on the properties in TDest // return the IQueryable containing the constructed projection } I know this is challenging, but I hope not impossible, because it will save me a bunch of explicit mapping work between models and viewmodels.

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  • Howto use predicates in LINQ to Entities for Entity Framework objects

    - by user274947
    I'm using LINQ to Entities for Entity Framework objects in my Data Access Layer. My goal is to filter as much as I can from the database, without applying filtering logic on in-memory results. For that purpose Business Logic Layer passes a predicate to Data Access Layer. I mean Func<MyEntity, bool> So, if I use this predicate directly, like public IQueryable<MyEntity> GetAllMatchedEntities(Func<MyEntity, Boolean> isMatched) { return qry = _Context.MyEntities.Where(x => isMatched(x)); } I'm getting the exception [System.NotSupportedException] --- {"The LINQ expression node type 'Invoke' is not supported in LINQ to Entities."} Solution in that question suggests to use AsExpandable() method from LINQKit library. But again, using public IQueryable<MyEntity> GetAllMatchedEntities(Func<MyEntity, Boolean> isMatched) { return qry = _Context.MyEntities.AsExpandable().Where(x => isMatched(x)); } I'm getting the exception Unable to cast object of type 'System.Linq.Expressions.FieldExpression' to type 'System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression' Is there way to use predicate in LINQ to Entities query for Entity Framework objects, so that it is correctly transformed it into a SQL statement. Thank you.

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  • Using the same code in different (partial) views

    - by Danny Chen
    Maybe this question is quite simple because I'm new to MVC2. I have a simple demo MVC project. (1) A weak-typed view: Index.aspx <% Html.RenderPartial("ArticalList", ViewData["AllArticals"] as List<Artical>); %> (2) A strong-typed partical view: ArticalList.ascx <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<List<Artical>>" %> <% foreach (Artical a in Model) { %> <%= Html.ActionLink(a.Title, "About", new { id = a.ID })%><br /> <%} %> (3) Here is the HomeController.cs public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["AllArticals"] = Artical.GetArticals(); return View(); } public ActionResult ArticalList() { return PartialView(Artical.GetArticals()); } Sorry I'm using a Web-Form "angle", because if I'm using a Web-Form, when I visit Index.aspx, rendering ArticalList.ascx will call public ActionResult ArticalList(). But here I need to write Artical.GetArticals() twice in two actions. How can I put them in one?

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  • Passing list of values to django view via jQuery ajax call

    - by finspin
    I'm trying to pass a list of numeric values (ids) from one web page to another with jQuery ajax call. I can't figure out how to pass and read all the values in the list. I can successfully post and read 1 value but not multiple values. Here is what I have so far: jQuery: var postUrl = "http://localhost:8000/ingredients/"; $('li').click(function(){ values = [1, 2]; $.ajax({ url: postUrl, type: 'POST', data: {'terid': values}, traditional: true, dataType: 'html', success: function(result){ $('#ingredients').append(result); } }); }); /ingredients/ view: def ingredients(request): if request.is_ajax(): ourid = request.POST.get('terid', False) ingredients = Ingredience.objects.filter(food__id__in=ourid) t = get_template('ingredients.html') html = t.render(Context({'ingredients': ingredients,})) return HttpResponse(html) else: html = '<p>This is not ajax</p>' return HttpResponse(html) With Firebug I can see that POST contains both ids but probably in the wrong format (terid=1&terid=2). So my ingredients view picks up only terid=2. What am I doing wrong? EDIT: To clarify, I need the ourid variable pass values [1, 2] to the filter in the ingredients view.

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  • Analyzing an IronPython Scope

    - by Vercinegetorix
    I'm trying to write C# code with an embedded IronPython script. Then want to analyze the contents of the script, i.e. list all variables, functions, class and their members/methods. There's an easy way to start, assuming I've got a scope defined and code executed in it already: dynamic variables=pyScope.GetVariables(); foreach (string v in variables) { dynamic dynamicV=pyScope.GetVariable(); /*seems to return everything. variables, functions, classes, instances of classes*/ } But how do I figure out what the type of a variable is? For the following python 'objects', dynamicV.GetType() will return different values: x=5 --system.Int32 y="asdf" --system.String def func():... --IronPython.Runtime.PythonFunction z=class() -- IronPython.Runtime.Types.OldInstance, how can I identify what the actual python class is? class NewClass -- throws an error, GetType() is unavailable. This is almost what I'm looking for. I could capture the exception thrown when unavailable and assume it's a class declaration, but that seems unclean. Is there a better approach? To discover the members/methods of a class it looks like I can use: ObjectOperations op = pyEngine.Operations; object instance = op.Call("className"); foreach (string j in op.GetMemberNames("className")) { object member=op.GetMember(instance, j); Console.WriteLine(member.GetType()); /*once again, GetType() provides some info about the type of the member, but returns null sometimes*/ } Also, how do I get the parameters to a method? Thanks!

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  • Jquery Append() and remove() element

    - by BandonRandon
    Hi, I have a form where I'm dynamically adding the ability to upload files with the append function but I would also like to be able to remove unused fields. Here is the html markup <span class="inputname">Project Images: <a href="#" class="add_project_file"><img src="images/add_small.gif" border="0"></a></span> <span class="project_images"> <input name="upload_project_images[]" type="file" /><br/> </span> Right now if they click on the "add" gif a new row is added with this jquery $('a.add_project_file').click(function() { $(".project_images").append('<input name="upload_project_images[]" type="file" class="new_project_image" /> <a href="#" class="remove_project_file" border="2"><img src="images/delete.gif"></a><br/>'); return false; }); To remove the input box i've tried to add the class "remove_project_file" then add this function. $('a.remove_project_file').click(function() { $('.project_images').remove(); return false;}); I think there should be a much easier way to do this. Maybe i need to use the $(this) function for the remove. Another possible solution would be to expand the "add project file" to do both adding and removing fields. Any of you JQuery wizards have any ideas that would be great

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  • jQuery replacement for javascript confirm

    - by dcp
    Let's say I want to prompt the user before allowing them to save a record. So let's assume I have the following button defined in the markup: <asp:Button ID="btnSave" runat="server" OnClick="btnSave_Click"></asp:Button> To force a prompt with normal javascript, I could wire the OnClick event for my save button to be something like this (I could do this in Page_Load): btnSave.Attributes.Add("onclick", "return confirm('are you sure you want to save?');"); The confirm call will block until the user actually presses on of the Yes/No buttons, which is the behavior I want. For the jquery dialog that is the equivalent, I tried something like this (see below). But the problem is that unlike javascript confirm(), it's going to get all the way through this function (displayYesNoAlert) and then proceed into my btnSave_OnClick method on the C# side. I need a way to make it "block", until the user presses the Yes or No button, and then return true or false so the btnSave_OnClick will be called or not called depending on the user's answer. Currently, I just gave up and went with javascript's confirm, I just wondered if there was a way to do it. function displayYesNoAlert(msg, closeFunction) { dialogResult = false; // create the dialog if it hasn't been instantiated if (!$("#dialog-modal").dialog('isOpen') !== true) { // add a div to the DOM that will store our message $("<div id=\"dialog-modal\" style='text-align: left;' title='Alert!'>").appendTo("body"); $("#dialog-modal").html(msg).dialog({ resizable: true, modal: true, position: [300, 200], buttons: { 'Yes': function () { dialogResult = true; $(this).dialog("close"); }, 'No': function () { dialogResult = false; $(this).dialog("close"); } }, close: function () { if (closeFunction !== undefined) { closeFunction(); } } }); } $("#dialog-modal").html(msg).dialog('open'); }

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  • On C++ global operator new: why it can be replaced

    - by Jimmy
    I wrote a small program in VS2005 to test whether C++ global operator new can be overloaded. It can. #include "stdafx.h" #include "iostream" #include "iomanip" #include "string" #include "new" using namespace std; class C { public: C() { cout<<"CTOR"<<endl; } }; void * operator new(size_t size) { cout<<"my overload of global plain old new"<<endl; // try to allocate size bytes void *p = malloc(size); return (p); } int main() { C* pc1 = new C; cin.get(); return 0; } In the above, my definition of operator new is called. If I remove that function from the code, then operator new in C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft Visual Studio 8\VC\crt\src\new.cpp gets called. All is good. However, in my opinion, my implementations of operator new does NOT overload the new in new.cpp, it CONFLICTS with it and violates the one-definition rule. Why doesn't the compiler complain about it? Or does the standard say since operator new is so special, one-definition rule does not apply here? Thanks.

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  • Class Generics break completely seperate method

    - by TheLQ
    I found a strange problem when I used class Generics Today: Setting some broke a completely separate method. Here's a small example class that illustrates the problem. This code works just fine public class Sandbox { public interface ListenerManagerTest { public Set<Listener> getListeners(); } public void setListenerManager(ListenerManagerTest listenerManager) { for (Listener curListener : listenerManager.getListeners()) return; } } Now as soon as I use class Generics, the getListeners() method returns Set<Object> instead of Set<Listener> public class Sandbox { public interface ListenerManagerTest<E extends Object> { public Set<Listener> getListeners(); } public void setListenerManager(ListenerManagerTest listenerManager) { for (Listener curListener : listenerManager.getListeners()) //Expected Listener, not Object return; } } What would cause this error? The ##java channel on Freenode said it was because of compile time candy and that I was using a raw type. But how would an raw class type break all generics in the class? And how would of worked before?

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  • How to define a batching routing service in WCF

    - by mattx
    I have designed a custom silverlight wcf channel that I want to leverage to selectively batch calls from the client to the server and possibly to cache on the client and short circuit calls. So far I'm just using this channel as a transport and sending the generic WCF messages that result to the WCF router service example here http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/cc500646.aspx?pr=blog to prototype this on the server side. So my scenario looks like this: IFooClient-MyTransportChannel-IRouterService-IFooService-Return I now need to be able to send more than one message per call through the router and carve them up and service them on the server side. Since this is just an experiment and I'm taking baby steps I will dispatch and service all the messages right away on the server side and return the batch of results. Immediately I noticed that simply making the router interface take Message[] instead of Message doesn't work due to serialization problems. I guess this makes sense. I'm not sure soap envelopes can contain other soap envelopes etc. Is there a simple way to take a collection of WCF Message objects and send them to a single method on a service where they can be split up and forwarded as appropriate? If not I'd love suggestions on how I should approach this. I want to have minimal work to do on the router service side so the goal should be to get as close to being able to "slice and forward" as possible.

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  • Problem with HiddenFor helper

    - by Dmitry Borovsky
    Hello. Model: public sealed class Model { public string Value { get; set; } } Controller: [HandleError] public class HomeController : Controller { [HttpGet] public ActionResult Index() { return View(new Model { Value = "+" } ); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(Model model) { model.Value += "1"; return View(model); } } View: <%using (Html.BeginForm()){%> <%: Model.Value %> <%: Html.HiddenFor(model => model.Value) %> <input type="submit" value="ok"/> <%}%> Every time I submitted form result is <form action="/" method="post">+1 <input id="Value" name="Value" type="hidden" value="+"> <input type="submit" value="ok"> </form> It means that HiddenFor helper doesn't use real value of Model.Value but uses passed to controller one. Is it bug in MVC framework? Does anyone know workaround?

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  • How to call implemented method of generic enum in Java?

    - by Justin Wiseman
    I am trying pass an enum into a method, iterate over that enums values, and call the method that that enum implements on all of those values. I am getting compiler errors on the part "value.getAlias()". It says "The method getAlias() is undefined for the type E" I have attempted to indicate that E implements the HasAlias interface, but it does not seem to work. Is this possible, and if so, how do I fix the code below to do what I want? The code below is only meant to show my process, it is not my intention to just print the names of the values in an enum, but to demonstate my problem. public interface HasAlias{ String getAlias(); }; public enum Letters implements HasAlias { A("The letter A"), B("The letter B"); private final String alias; public String getAlias(){return alias;} public Letters(String alias) { this.alias = alias; } } public enum Numbers implements HasAlias { ONE("The number one"), TWO("The number two"); private final String alias; public String getAlias(){return alias;} public Letters(String alias) { this.alias = alias; } } public class Identifier { public <E extends Enum<? extends HasAlias>> void identify(Class<E> enumClass) { for(E value : enumClass.getEnumConstants()) { System.out.println(value.getAlias()); } } }

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  • Easiest way to remove Keys from a 2D Array?

    - by dbemerlin
    Hi, I have an Array that looks like this: array( 0 => array( 'key1' => 'a', 'key2' => 'b', 'key3' => 'c' ), 1 => array( 'key1' => 'c', 'key2' => 'b', 'key3' => 'a' ), ... ) I need a function to get an array containing just a (variable) number of keys, i.e. reduce_array(array('key1', 'key3')); should return: array( 0 => array( 'key1' => 'a', 'key3' => 'c' ), 1 => array( 'key1' => 'c', 'key3' => 'a' ), ... ) What is the easiest way to do this? If possible without any additional helper function like array_filter or array_map as my coworkers already complain about me using too many functions. The source array will always have the given keys so it's not required to check for existance. Bonus points if the values are unique (the keys will always be related to each other, meaning that if key1 has value a then the other key(s) will always have value b). My current solution which works but is quite clumsy (even the name is horrible but can't find a better one): function get_unique_values_from_array_by_keys(array $array, array $keys) { $result = array(); $found = array(); if (count($keys) > 0) { foreach ($array as $item) { if (in_array($item[$keys[0]], $found)) continue; array_push($found, $item[$keys[0]]); $result_item = array(); foreach ($keys as $key) { $result_item[$key] = $item[$key]; } array_push($result, $result_item); } } return $result; } Addition: PHP Version is 5.1.6.

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  • Python: Does one of these examples waste more memory?

    - by orokusaki
    In a Django view function which uses manual transaction committing, I have: context = RequestContext(request, data) transaction.commit() return render_to_response('basic.html', data, context) # Returns a Django ``HttpResponse`` object which is similar to a dictionary. I think it is a better idea to do this: context = RequestContext(request, data) response = render_to_response('basic.html', data, context) transaction.commit() return response If the page isn't rendered correctly in the second version, the transaction is rolled back. This seems like the logical way of doing it albeit there won't likely be many exceptions at that point in the function when the application is in production. But... I fear that this might cost more and this will be replete through a number of functions since the application is heavy with custom transaction handling, so now is the time to figure out. If the HttpResponse instance is in memory already (at the point of render_to_response()), then what does another reference cost? When the function ends, doesn't the reference (response variable) go away so that when Django is done converting the HttpResponse into a string for output Python can immediately garbage collect it? Is there any reason I would want to use the first version (other than "It's 1 less line of code.")?

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  • Problem in Application_Error in Global.asax

    - by mmtemporary
    my problem is User.Identity.Name or Request.Url.AbsoluteUri in exception handling is empty when exception email to me. this is Application_Code: void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { Server.Transfer("~/errors/default.aspx"); } and this is default.aspx code: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Server.GetLastError() == null) return; Exception ex = Server.GetLastError().GetBaseException(); if (ex == null) return; string message = string.Format("User: ", User.Identity.Name); message += Environment.NewLine; message += string.Format("AbsoluteUri: ", Request.Url.AbsoluteUri); message += Environment.NewLine; message += string.Format("Form: ", Request.Form.ToString()); message += Environment.NewLine; message += string.Format("QueryString: ", Request.QueryString.ToString()); message += Environment.NewLine; HttpBrowserCapabilities browser = Request.Browser; string s = "Browser Capabilities:\n" + "Type = " + browser.Type + "\n" + "Name = " + browser.Browser + "\n" + "Version = " + browser.Version + "\n" + "Platform = " + browser.Platform + "\n" + "Is Crawler = " + browser.Crawler + "\n" + "Supports Cookies = " + browser.Cookies + "\n" + "Supports JavaScript = " + browser.EcmaScriptVersion.ToString() + "\n" + "\n"; message += s; message += Environment.NewLine; message += ex.ToString(); Exception lastException = (Exception)Application["LastException"]; if (lastException == null || lastException.Message != ex.Message) { Application.Lock(); Application["LastException"] = ex; Application.UnLock(); SiteHelper.SendEmail(SiteHelper.AdministratorEMail, "Error!!!", message, false); } Server.ClearError(); } but i receive email like this (this is header without full exception content): User: AbsoluteUri: Form: QueryString: Browser Capabilities: Type = IE8 Name = IE Version = 8.0 Platform = WinXP Is Crawler = False Supports Cookies = True Supports JavaScript = 1.2 why username and request url is emty? this problem is exist when i replace transfer with redirect or i don't use both. tanx

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  • Working with libpath with java reflection.

    - by C. Ross
    I'm dynamically loading a class and calling a method on it. This class does JNI. When I call the class, java attempts to load the library. This causes an error because the library is not on the libpath. I'm calling from instead a jar so I can't easily change the libpath (especially since the library is not in the same directory or a sub directory of the jar). I do know the path of the library, but how can I load it before I load the class. Current code: public Class<?> loadClass(String name) throws ClassNotFoundException { if(!CLASS_NAME.equals(name)) return super.loadClass(name); try { URL myUrl = new URL(classFileUrl); URLConnection connection = myUrl.openConnection(); InputStream input = connection.getInputStream(); byte[] classData = readConnectionToArray(input); return defineClass(CLASS_NAME, classData, 0, classData.length); } catch (MalformedURLException e) { throw new UndeclaredThrowableException(e); } catch (IOException e) { throw new UndeclaredThrowableException(e); } } Exception: Can't find library libvcommon.so java.lang.UnsatisfiedLinkError: vcommon (A file or directory in the path name does not exist.) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadLibraryWithPath(ClassLoader.java:998) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadLibraryWithClassLoader(ClassLoader.java:962) at java.lang.System.loadLibrary(System.java:465) at vcommon.(vcommon.java:103) at java.lang.J9VMInternals.initializeImpl(Native Method) at java.lang.J9VMInternals.initialize(J9VMInternals.java:200) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:37) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:599) at com.fortune500.fin.v.vunit.reflection.ReflectionvProcessor.calculateV(ReflectionvProcessor.java:36) at com.fortune500.fin.v.vunit.UTLTestCase.execute(UTLTestCase.java:42) at com.fortune500.fin.v.vunit.TestSuite.execute(TestSuite.java:15) at com.fortune500.fin.v.vunit.batch.Testvendor.execute(Testvendor.java:101) at com.fortune500.fin.v.vunit.batch.Testvendor.main(Testvendor.java:58) Related: Dynamic loading a class in java with a different package name

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  • linq delegate function checking from objects

    - by Philip
    I am trying to find the list of objects which can be replaced. Class Letter{ int ID; string Name; string AdvCode; int isDeleted; } Class Replacers{ int ID; string MainAdvCode; string ReplacesAdvCode; } example data: Replacers 0 455 400 1 955 400 2 955 455 such that if a Letter has and Advcode of 455 and another has a code of 400 the 400 gets marked for deletion. And then if another Letter has a 955 then the 455 gets marked for deletion and the 400 (which is already marked) is marked for deletion. The problem is with my current code the 400 and 455 is marking itself for deletion?!?!? Public class Main{ List<Letter> Letters; List<Replacers> replaces; //select the ones to replace the replacements aka the little guys //check if the replacements replacer exists if yes mark deleted var filterMethodReplacements = new Func<Letter, bool>(IsAdvInReplacements);//Working var filterMethodReplacers = new Func<Letter, bool>(IsAdvInReplacers);//NOT WORKING???? var resReplacements=letters.Where(filterMethodReplacements);//working foreach (Letter letter in resReplacements) { //select the Replacers aka the ones that contain the little guys var resReplacers = letters.Where(filterMethodReplacers); if (resReplacers != null) letter.isDeleted = 1; } } } private bool IsAdvInReplacements(Letter letter) { return (from a in Replacables where a.ReplaceAdvCode == letter.AdvCode select a).Any(); } private bool IsAdvInReplacers(Letter letter) { //?????????????????????????????? return (from a in Replacables where a.MainAdvCode == letter.AdvCode select a).Any(); } }

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  • In which year was the date the same as the original year?

    - by Marta
    It's my first question on this site, but I always found this site really useful. What I mean with my question is: you ask the person to give a date (eg. Fill in a date [dd-mm-yyyy]: 16-10-2013) you than have to ask an interval between 2 years (eg. Give an interval [yyyy-yyyy]:1800-2000) When the program runs, it has to show what day of the week the given date is. In this case it was a Wednesday. Than the program has to look in which year, in between the interval, the date 16 October also fell on a Wednesday. So in the end it has to look something like this: Fill in a date: [dd-mm-yyyy]: 16-10-2013 Give an interval [yyyy-yyyy]: 1900-2000 16 October was a wednesday in the following years: 1905 1911 1916 1922 1933 1939 1944 1950 1961 1967 1972 1978 1989 1995 2000 The full date is Wednesday 16 October, 2013 The small (or biggest) problem is, I am not allowed to use the DATE.function in java. If someone can help me with the second part I would be really really happy, cause I have no idea how I am supposed to do this To find out what day of the week the given date falls, I use the Zeller Congruence class Day { Date date; //To grab the month and year form the Date class int day; final static String[] DAYS_OF_WEEK = { "Saturday", "Sunday", "Monday", "Tuesday", "Wednesday", "Thursday", "Friday" }; public void dayWeekInterval{ //code to grab the interval from interval Class, and doing stuff here } public void dayOfTheWeek { int m = date.getMonth(); int y = date.getYear(); if (m < 3) { m += 12; y -= 1; } int k = y % 100; int j = y / 100; int day = ((q + (((m + 1) * 26) / 10) + k + (k / 4) + (j / 4)) + (5 * j)) % 7; return day; } public string ToString(){ return "" + DAYS_OF_WEEK[day] + day; } }

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  • Address String Split in javscript

    - by Arasoi
    Ok folks I have bombed around for a few days trying to find a good solution for this one. What I have is two possible address formats. 28 Main St Somecity, NY 12345-6789 or Main St Somecity, Ny 12345-6789 What I need to do Is split both strings down into an array structured as such address[0] = HousNumber address[1] = Street address[2] = City address[3] = State address[4] = ZipCode My major problem is how to account for the lack of a house number. with out having the whole array shift the data up one. address[0] = Street address[1] = City address[2] = State address[3] = ZipCode [Edit] For those that are wondering this is what i am doing atm . (cleaner version) place = response.Placemark[0]; point = new GLatLng(place.Point.coordinates[1],place.Point.coordinates[0]); FCmap.setCenter(point,12); var a = place.address.split(','); var e = a[2].split(" "); var x = a[0].split(" "); var hn = x.filter(function(item,index){ return index == 0; }); var st = x.filter(function(item,index){ return index != 0; }); var street = ''; st.each(function(item,index){street += item + ' ';}); results[0] = new Hash({ FullAddie: place.address, HouseNum: hn[0], Dir: '', Street: street, City: a[1], State: e[1], ZipCode: e[2], GPoint: new GMarker(point), Lat: place.Point.coordinates[1], Lng: place.Point.coordinates[0] }); // End Address Splitting

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  • Using shared_ptr to implement RCU (read-copy-update)?

    - by yongsun
    I'm very interested in the user-space RCU (read-copy-update), and trying to simulate one via tr1::shared_ptr, here is the code, while I'm really a newbie in concurrent programming, would some experts help me to review? The basic idea is, reader calls get_reading_copy() to gain the pointer of current protected data (let's say it's generation one, or G1). writer calls get_updating_copy() to gain a copy of the G1 (let's say it's G2), and only one writer is allowed to enter the critical section. After the updating is done, writer calls update() to do a swap, and make the m_data_ptr pointing to data G2. The ongoing readers and the writer now hold the shared_ptr of G1, and either a reader or a writer will eventually deallocate the G1 data. Any new readers would get the pointer to G2, and a new writer would get the copy of G2 (let's say G3). It's possible the G1 is not released yet, so multiple generations of data my co-exists. template <typename T> class rcu_protected { public: typedef T type; typedef std::tr1::shared_ptr<type> rcu_pointer; rcu_protected() : m_data_ptr (new type()) {} rcu_pointer get_reading_copy () { spin_until_eq (m_is_swapping, 0); return m_data_ptr; } rcu_pointer get_updating_copy () { spin_until_eq (m_is_swapping, 0); while (!CAS (m_is_writing, 0, 1)) {/* do sleep for back-off when exceeding maximum retry times */} rcu_pointer new_data_ptr(new type(*m_data_ptr)); // as spin_until_eq does not have memory barrier protection, // we need to place a read barrier to protect the loading of // new_data_ptr not to be re-ordered before its construction _ReadBarrier(); return new_data_ptr; } void update (rcu_pointer new_data_ptr) { while (!CAS (m_is_swapping, 0, 1)) {} m_data_ptr.swap (new_data_ptr); // as spin_until_eq does not have memory barrier protection, // we need to place a write barrier to protect the assignments of // m_is_writing/m_is_swapping be re-ordered bofore the swapping _WriteBarrier(); m_is_writing = 0; m_is_swapping = 0; } private: volatile long m_is_writing; volatile long m_is_swapping; rcu_pointer m_data_ptr; };

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  • Dependency injection in constructors

    - by andre
    Hello everyone. I'm starting a new project and setting up the base to work on. A few questions have risen and I'll probably be asking quite a few in here, hopefully I'll find some answers. First step is to handle dependencies for objects. I've decided to go with the dependency injection design pattern, to which I'm somewhat new, to handle all of this for the application. When actually coding it I came across a problem. If a class has multiple dependencies and you want to pass on multiple dependencies via the constructor (so that they cannot be changed after you instantiate the object). How do you do it without passing an array of dependencies, using call_user_func_array(), eval() or Reflection? This is what i'm looking for: <?php class DI { public function getClass($classname) { if(!$this->pool[$classname]) { # Load dependencies $deps = $this->loadDependencies($classname); # Here is where the magic should happen $instance = new $classname($dep1, $dep2, $dep3); # Add to pool $this->pool[$classname] = $instance; return $instance; } else { return $this->pool[$classname]; } } } Again, I would like to avoid the most costly methods to call the class. Any other suggestions?

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  • Providing less than operator for one element of a pair

    - by Koszalek Opalek
    What would be the most elegant way too fix the following code: #include <vector> #include <map> #include <set> using namespace std; typedef map< int, int > row_t; typedef vector< row_t > board_t; typedef row_t::iterator area_t; bool operator< ( area_t const& a, area_t const& b ) { return( a->first < b->first ); }; int main( int argc, char* argv[] ) { int row_num; area_t it; set< pair< int, area_t > > queue; queue.insert( make_pair( row_num, it ) ); // does not compile }; One way to fix it is moving the definition of less< to namespace std (I know, you are not supposed to do it.) namespace std { bool operator< ( area_t const& a, area_t const& b ) { return( a->first < b->first ); }; }; Another obvious solution is defining less than< for pair< int, area_t but I'd like to avoid that and be able to define the operator only for the one element of the pair where it is not defined.

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