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  • Array indexOf implementation for Internet Explorer

    - by Daemon
    There are plenty of solutions on how to get the indexOf implementation into the Array prototype so that it works under Internet Explorer, however I've stumbled upon an issue that doesn't seem to be addressed anywhere I've looked so far. Using the pretty well agreed upon implementation at MDC, I have the following code that's being problematic now: // indexOf support for IE (from MDC) if (!Array.prototype.indexOf) { Array.prototype.indexOf = function(elt /*, from*/) { var len = this.length >>> 0; var from = Number(arguments[1]) || 0; from = (from < 0) ? Math.ceil(from) : Math.floor(from); if (from < 0) from += len; for (; from < len; from++) { if (from in this && this[from] === elt) return from; } return -1; }; } var i = [1,2,3,4]; for (j in i) { alert(i[j]); } I am expecting to receive 4 alerts, each one containing one of the elements of the array. In Firefox and Chrome, that's exactly what I see, however in IE8 I get an additional alert containing the indexOf function code. What can be done to avoid this?

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  • C callback functions defined in an unnamed namespace?

    - by Johannes Schaub - litb
    Hi all. I have a C++ project that uses a C bison parser. The C parser uses a struct of function pointers to call functions that create proper AST nodes when productions are reduced by bison: typedef void Node; struct Actions { Node *(*newIntLit)(int val); Node *(*newAsgnExpr)(Node *left, Node *right); /* ... */ }; Now, in the C++ part of the project, i fill those pointers class AstNode { /* ... */ }; class IntLit : public AstNode { /* ... */ }; extern "C" { Node *newIntLit(int val) { return (Node*)new IntLit(val); } /* ... */ } Actions createActions() { Actions a; a.newIntLit = &newIntLit; /* ... */ return a; } Now the only reason i put them within extern "C" is because i want them to have C calling conventions. But optimally, i would like their names still be mangled. They are never called by-name from C code, so name mangling isn't an issue. Having them mangled will avoid name conflicts, since some actions are called like error, and the C++ callback function has ugly names like the following just to avoid name clashes with other modules. extern "C" { void uglyNameError(char const *str) { /* ... */ } /* ... */ } a.error = &uglyNameError; I wondered whether it could be possible by merely giving the function type C linkage extern "C" void fty(char const *str); namespace { fty error; /* Declared! But i can i define it with that type!? */ } Any ideas? I'm looking for Standard-C++ solutions.

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  • What C++ templates issue is going on with this error?

    - by WilliamKF
    Running gcc v3.4.6 on the Botan v1.8.8 I get the following compile time error building my application after successfully building Botan and running its self test: ../../src/Botan-1.8.8/build/include/botan/secmem.h: In member function `Botan::MemoryVector<T>& Botan::MemoryVector<T>::operator=(const Botan::MemoryRegion<T>&)': ../../src/Botan-1.8.8/build/include/botan/secmem.h:310: error: missing template arguments before '(' token What is this compiler error telling me? Here is a snippet of secmem.h that includes line 130: [...] /** * This class represents variable length buffers that do not * make use of memory locking. */ template<typename T> class MemoryVector : public MemoryRegion<T> { public: /** * Copy the contents of another buffer into this buffer. * @param in the buffer to copy the contents from * @return a reference to *this */ MemoryVector<T>& operator=(const MemoryRegion<T>& in) { if(this != &in) set(in); return (*this); } // This is line 130! [...]

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  • Serializable object in intent returning as String

    - by B_
    In my application, I am trying to pass a serializable object through an intent to another activity. The intent is not entirely created by me, it is created and passed through a search suggestion. In the content provider for the search suggestion, the object is created and placed in the SUGGEST_COLUMN_INTENT_EXTRA_DATA column of the MatrixCursor. However, when in the receiving activity I call getIntent().getSerializableExtra(SearchManager.EXTRA_DATA_KEY), the returned object is of type String and I cannot cast it into the original object class. I tried making a parcelable wrapper for my object that calls out.writeSerializable(...) and use that instead but the same thing happened. The string that is returned is like a generic Object toString(), i.e. com.foo.yak.MyAwesomeClass@4350058, so I'm assuming that toString() is being called somewhere where I have no control. Hopefully I'm just missing something simple. Thanks for the help! Edit: Some of my code This is in the content provider that acts as the search authority: //These are the search suggestion columns private static final String[] COLUMNS = { "_id", // mandatory column SearchManager.SUGGEST_COLUMN_TEXT_1, SearchManager.SUGGEST_COLUMN_INTENT_EXTRA_DATA }; //This places the serializable or parcelable object (and other info) into the search suggestion private Cursor getSuggestions(String query, String[] projection) { List<Widget> widgets = WidgetLoader.getMatches(query); MatrixCursor cursor = new MatrixCursor(COLUMNS); for (Widget w : widgets) { cursor.addRow(new Object[] { w.id w.name w.data //This is the MyAwesomeClass object I'm trying to pass }); } return cursor; } This is in the activity that receives the search suggestion: public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); Object extra = getIntent().getSerializableExtra(SearchManager.EXTRA_DATA_KEY); //extra.getClass() returns String, when it should return MyAwesomeClass, so this next line throws a ClassCastException and causes a crash MyAwesomeClass mac = (MyAwesomeClass)extra; ... }

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  • Custom button with property as StaticResource

    - by alin
    I am trying to achieve the following thing: use an svg image into a custom button. In order to do this I created a Custom button: public class MainButton : Button { static MainButton() { DefaultStyleKeyProperty.OverrideMetadata(typeof(MainButton), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(typeof(MainButton))); } public string Text { get { return (string)GetValue(TextProperty); } set { SetValue(TextProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty TextProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("Text", typeof(string), typeof(MainButton), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); public object Image { get { return (object)GetValue(ImageProperty); } set { SetValue(ImageProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty ImageProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("Image", typeof(object), typeof(MainButton), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); } I took a svg file, opened it in inkscape and saved it as xaml file. I opened Themes.xaml and added the created xaml image as a ControlTemplate And the button style is: Style TargetType="{x:Type local:MainButton}" <StackPanel Canvas.Top="12" Canvas.Left="0" Canvas.ZIndex="2" Width="80"> <ContentControl x:Name="Img" Template="{StaticResource Home}" /> </StackPanel> <StackPanel x:Name="spText" Canvas.Top="45" Canvas.Left="1" Canvas.ZIndex="1" Width="80"> <TextBlock x:Name="Txt" Text="{Binding Path=(local:MainButton.Text), RelativeSource ={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType ={x:Type Button}}}" VerticalAlignment="Center" HorizontalAlignment="Center" Foreground="White" FontSize="14"/> </StackPanel> ... As you can see I have hardcoded the StaticResource name I want to be able to have a binding with property Image on this Template, something like So that I can set the Image property of the button with the name of the StaticResource I want. For example, having beside "Home" image, another one "Back" I would have two buttons in MainWindow declared like this: Any advice is kindly taken. Thank you for your time.

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  • Removing empty space with jQuery after deleting Selectable item

    - by Tx3
    I have two ordered lists and user can move items between them. I am using jQuery UI's Selectable for both of them. Problem is that when I move item from the middle of the list it leaves an empty space behind. How can I make list shrink according to the how many items is actually in the list? HTML <ol id="allUnits"> <li class="ui-state-default">Item 1</li> <li class="ui-state-default">Item 2</li> <li class="ui-state-default">Item 3</li> <li class="ui-state-default">Item 4</li> <li class="ui-state-default">Item 5</li> </ol> <input id="arrowRight" type="image" alt="Move item to right" src="<%= Url.Content("~/Content/Images/arrowRight.png")%>" /> <input id="arrowLeft" type="image" alt="Move item to left" src="<%= Url.Content("~/Content/Images/arrowLeft.png")%>" /> <ol id="productUnits"> <li class="ui-state-default">Item 1</li> <li class="ui-state-default">Item 2</li> <li class="ui-state-default">Item 3</li> <li class="ui-state-default">Item 4</li> <li class="ui-state-default">Item 5</li> </ol> jQuery $().ready(function () { $("#allUnits").selectable(); $("#productUnits").selectable(); $('#arrowRight').click(function () { return !$('#allUnits .ui-selected').remove().appendTo('#productUnits').removeClass(".ui-selected"); }); $('#arrowLeft').click(function () { return !$('#productUnits .ui-selected').remove().appendTo('#allUnits').removeClass(".ui-selected"); }); });

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  • Foreign key relationships in Entity Framework

    - by Anders Svensson
    I'm trying to add an object created from Entity Data Model classes. I have a table called Users, which has turned into a User EDM class. And I also have a table Pages, which has become a Page EDM class. These tables have a foreign key relationship, so that each page is associated with many users. Now I want to be able to add a page, but I can't get how to do it. I get a nullreference exception on Users below. I'm still rather confused by all this, so I'm sure it's a simple error, but I just can't see how to do it. Also, by the way, the compiler requires that I set PageID in the object initializer, even though this field is set to be an automatic id in the table. Am I doing it right just setting it to 0, expecting it to be updated automatically in the table when saved, or how should I do that? Any help appreciated! The method in question: private Page GetPage(User currentUser) { string url = _request.ServerVariables["url"].ToLower(); var userPages = from p in _context.PageSet where p.Users.UserID == currentUser.UserID select p; var existingPage = userPages.FirstOrDefault(e => e.Url == url); //Could be combined with above, but hard to read? if (existingPage != null) return existingPage; Page page = new Page() { Count = 0, Url = _request.ServerVariables["url"].ToLower(), PageID = 0, //Only initial value, changed later? }; _context.AddToPageSet(page); page.Users.UserID = currentUser.UserID; //Here's the problem... return page; }

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  • ZeroMQ REQ/REP on ipc:// and concurrency

    - by Metiu
    I implemented a JSON-RPC server using a REQ/REP 0MQ ipc:// socket and I'm experiencing strange behavior which I suspect is due to the fact that the ipc:// underlying unix socket is not a real socket, but rather a single pipe. From the documentation, one has to enforce strict zmq_send()/zmq_recv() alternation, otherwise the out-of-order zmq_send() will return an error. However, I expected the enforcement to be per-client, not per-socket. Of course with a Unix socket there is just one pipeline from multiple clients to the server, so the server won't know who it is talking with. Two clients could zmq_send() simultaneously and the server would see this as an alternation violation. The sequence could be: ClientA: zmq_send() ClientB: zmq_send() : will it block until the other send/receive completes? will it return -1? (I suspect it will with ipc:// due to inherent low-level problems, but with TCP it could distinguish the two clients) ClientA: zmq_recv() ClientB: zmq_recv() so what about tcp:// sockets? Will it work concurrently? Should I use some other locking mechanism to work around this?

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  • Php JSON Response Array

    - by Nick Kl
    I have this php code. As you can see i query a mysql database through a function showallevents. I return a the $result to the $event variable. I try to return all rows of the data that i take with the msql_fetch_assoc. I don't get response even when i encode the $response variable. It returns null to all fields. Can anyone help me on what i am doing wrong. I had a valid code but it was returning only 1 row of data so i tried to make an associative array but seems i am failing. if ($tag == 'showallevents') { // Request type is show all events // show all events $event = $db->showallevents(); if ($event != false) { $data = array(); while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($event)) { $data[] = array( $response["success"] = 1, $response["uid"] = $event["uid"], $response["event"]["date"] = $event["date"], $response["event"]["hours"] = $event["hours"], $response["event"]["store_name"] = $event["store_name"], $response["event"]["event_information"] = $event["event_information"], $response["event"]["event_type"] = $event["event_type"], $response["event"]["Phone"] = $event["Phone"], $response["event"]["address"] = $event["address"], $response["event"]["created_at"] = $event["created_at"], $response["event"]["updated_at"] = $event["updated_at"]); } echo json_encode($data); } else { // event not found // echo json with error = 1 $response["error"] = 1; $response["error_msg"] = "Events not found"; echo json_encode($response); } } else { echo "Access Denied"; } } ?>

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  • Compatibility jquery with IE - click function and fade

    - by Julien Fotnaine
    Here my script : http://jsfiddle.net/3XwZv/153/ HTML <div id="box1" class="choice" style="background:blue;"> <div class="selection ordinateur"> <div class="choix1"><a class="link1" href="#"></a></div> </div> </div> <div id="box2" class="choice" style="display:none;background:red;"> <div class="selection ordinateur"> <div class="choix1"><a class="link2" href="#"></a></div> </div> </div> <div id="box3" class="choice" style="display:none;background:green;"> <div class="selection ordinateur"> <div class="choix1"><a href="#"></a></div> </div> </div> JS $(".link1").click(function() { $('#box1').fadeOut("slow", function(){ $('#box2').css("display","block"); $('#box2').replaceWith(div); $('#box1').fadeIn("slow"); }); $('.link1').fadeOut("slow"); return false; }); $(".link2").click(function() { $('#box2').fadeOut("slow", function(){ $('#box3').css("display","block"); $('#box3').replaceWith(div); $('#box2').fadeIn("slow"); }); $('.link2').fadeOut("slow"); return false; }); The main goal is that when you click on the giant square, I have three differents action. However, in Internet Explorer I block to the second. (the red square does not go to the green square). Please I need your help guys!

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  • Tomcat does not pick up the class file - the JSP file is not displayed

    - by blueSky
    I have a Java code which is a controller for a jsp page, called: HomeController.java. Code is as follows: @Controller public class HomeController { protected final transient Log log = LogFactory.getLog(getClass()); @RequestMapping(value = "/mypage") public String home() { System.out.println("HomeController: Passing through..."); return "home"; } } There is nothing especial in the jsp page: home.jsp. If I go to this url: http://localhost:8080/adcopyqueue/mypage I can view mypage and everything works fine. Also in the tomcat Dos page I can see the comment: HomeController: Passing through... As expected. Now under the same directory that I have HomeController.java, I've created another file called: LoginController.java. Following is the code: @Controller public class LoginController { protected final transient Log log = LogFactory.getLog(getClass()); @RequestMapping(value = "/loginpage") public String login() { System.out.println("LoginController: Passing through..."); return "login"; } } And under the same place which I have home.jsp, I've created login.jsp. Also under tomcat folders, LoginController.class exists under the same folder that HomeController.class exists and login.jsp exists under the same folder which home.jsp exists. But when I go to this url: http://localhost:8080/adcopyqueue/loginpage Nothing is displayed! I think tomcat does not pick up LoginController.class b/c on the tomcat Dos window, I do NOT see this comment: LoginController: Passing through... Instead I see following which I do not know what do they mean? [ INFO] [http-8080-1 01:43:45] (AppInfo.java:populateAppInfo:34) got manifest [ INFO] [http-8080-1 01:43:45] (AppInfo.java:populateAppInfo:36) manifest entrie s 8 The structure and the code for HomeController.java and LoginController.java plus the jsp files match. I have no idea why tomcat sees one of the files and not the other? Clean build did not help. Does anybody have any idea? Any help is greatly appraciated.

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  • Unusual heap size limitations in VS2003 C++

    - by Shane MacLaughlin
    I have a C++ app that uses large arrays of data, and have noticed while testing that it is running out of memory, while there is still plenty of memory available. I have reduced the code to a sample test case as follows; void MemTest() { size_t Size = 500*1024*1024; // 512mb if (Size > _HEAP_MAXREQ) TRACE("Invalid Size"); void * mem = malloc(Size); if (mem == NULL) TRACE("allocation failed"); } If I create a new MFC project, include this function, and run it from InitInstance, it works fine in debug mode (memory allocated as expected), yet fails in release mode (malloc returns NULL). Single stepping through release into the C run times, my function gets inlined I get the following // malloc.c void * __cdecl _malloc_base (size_t size) { void *res = _nh_malloc_base(size, _newmode); RTCCALLBACK(_RTC_Allocate_hook, (res, size, 0)); return res; } Calling _nh_malloc_base void * __cdecl _nh_malloc_base (size_t size, int nhFlag) { void * pvReturn; // validate size if (size > _HEAP_MAXREQ) return NULL; ' ' And (size _HEAP_MAXREQ) returns true and hence my memory doesn't get allocated. Putting a watch on size comes back with the exptected 512MB, which suggests the program is linking into a different run-time library with a much smaller _HEAP_MAXREQ. Grepping the VC++ folders for _HEAP_MAXREQ shows the expected 0xFFFFFFE0, so I can't figure out what is happening here. Anyone know of any CRT changes or versions that would cause this problem, or am I missing something way more obvious?

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  • Paging using Linq-To-Sql based on two parameters in asp.net mvc...

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    As two parameters i say currentPage and pagesize .....I thus far used sql server stored procedures and implemented paging like this, GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetMaterialsInView] -- Add the parameters for the stored procedure here @CurrentPage INT, @PageSize INT AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; SELECT *,ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY Id) AS Row FROM ( SELECT *,ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY Id) AS Row FROM InTimePagingView ) AS InTimePages WHERE Row >= (@CurrentPage - 1) * @PageSize + 1 AND Row <= @CurrentPage*@PageSize SELECT COUNT(*) as TotalCount FROM InTimePagingView SELECT CEILING(COUNT(*) / CAST(@PageSize AS FLOAT)) NumberOfPages FROM InTimePagingView END Now i am using Linq-to-sql and i use this, public IQueryable<MaterialsObj> FindAllMaterials() { var materials = from m in db.Materials join Mt in db.MeasurementTypes on m.MeasurementTypeId equals Mt.Id where m.Is_Deleted == 0 select new MaterialsObj() { Id = Convert.ToInt64(m.Mat_id), Mat_Name = m.Mat_Name, Mes_Name = Mt.Name, }; return materials; } Now i want to return the records,TotalCount where i use Total count to generate pagenumbers..... Is this possible... Any suggestion... EDIT: Just found this... NorthWindDataContext db = new NorthWindDataContext(); var query = from c in db.Customers select c.CompanyName; //Assuming Page Number = 2, Page Size = 10 int iPageNum = 2; int iPageSize = 10; var PagedData = query.Skip((iPageNum - 1) * iPageSize).Take(iPageSize); ObjectDumper.Write(PagedData);

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  • In which year was the date the same as the original year?

    - by Marta
    It's my first question on this site, but I always found this site really useful. What I mean with my question is: you ask the person to give a date (eg. Fill in a date [dd-mm-yyyy]: 16-10-2013) you than have to ask an interval between 2 years (eg. Give an interval [yyyy-yyyy]:1800-2000) When the program runs, it has to show what day of the week the given date is. In this case it was a Wednesday. Than the program has to look in which year, in between the interval, the date 16 October also fell on a Wednesday. So in the end it has to look something like this: Fill in a date: [dd-mm-yyyy]: 16-10-2013 Give an interval [yyyy-yyyy]: 1900-2000 16 October was a wednesday in the following years: 1905 1911 1916 1922 1933 1939 1944 1950 1961 1967 1972 1978 1989 1995 2000 The full date is Wednesday 16 October, 2013 The small (or biggest) problem is, I am not allowed to use the DATE.function in java. If someone can help me with the second part I would be really really happy, cause I have no idea how I am supposed to do this To find out what day of the week the given date falls, I use the Zeller Congruence class Day { Date date; //To grab the month and year form the Date class int day; final static String[] DAYS_OF_WEEK = { "Saturday", "Sunday", "Monday", "Tuesday", "Wednesday", "Thursday", "Friday" }; public void dayWeekInterval{ //code to grab the interval from interval Class, and doing stuff here } public void dayOfTheWeek { int m = date.getMonth(); int y = date.getYear(); if (m < 3) { m += 12; y -= 1; } int k = y % 100; int j = y / 100; int day = ((q + (((m + 1) * 26) / 10) + k + (k / 4) + (j / 4)) + (5 * j)) % 7; return day; } public string ToString(){ return "" + DAYS_OF_WEEK[day] + day; } }

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  • Putting all methods in class definition

    - by Amnon
    When I use the pimpl idiom, is it a good idea to put all the methods definitions inside the class definition? For example: // in A.h class A { class impl; boost::scoped_ptr<impl> pimpl; public: A(); int foo(); } // in A.cpp class A::impl { // method defined in class int foo() { return 42; } // as opposed to only declaring the method, and defining elsewhere: float bar(); }; A::A() : pimpl(new impl) { } int A::foo() { return pimpl->foo(); } As far as I know, the only problems with putting a method definition inside a class definition is that (1) the implementation is visible in files that include the class definition, and (2) the compiler may make the method inline. These are not problems in this case since the class is defined in a private file, and inlining has no effect since the methods are called in only one place. The advantage of putting the definition inside the class is that you don't have to repeat the method signature. So, is this OK? Are there any other issues to be aware of?

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  • Read Cookies using Javascript

    - by Ajith
    I want to create a cookie using php,an also i need to read it using javascript.ie, by using setcookie('mycookie','hello',time()+34000) in php i am creating a cookie in my system.Now,i need to read it using javascript.Is it possible?If anybody knows please give me some idea.Please....help me.I am using javscript as follows ` function Get_Cookie( check_name ) { // first we'll split this cookie up into name/value pairs // note: document.cookie only returns name=value, not the other components var a_all_cookies = document.cookie.split( ';' ); var a_temp_cookie = ''; var cookie_name = ''; var cookie_value = ''; var b_cookie_found = false; // set boolean t/f default f for ( i = 0; i < a_all_cookies.length; i++ ) { // now we'll split apart each name=value pair a_temp_cookie = a_all_cookies[i].split( '=' ); // and trim left/right whitespace while we're at it cookie_name = a_temp_cookie[0].replace(/^\s+|\s+$/g, ''); // if the extracted name matches passed check_name if ( cookie_name == check_name ) { b_cookie_found = true; // we need to handle case where cookie has no value but exists (no = sign, that is): if ( a_temp_cookie.length > 1 ) { cookie_value = unescape( a_temp_cookie[1].replace(/^\s+|\s+$/g, '') ); } // note that in cases where cookie is initialized but no value, null is returned return cookie_value; break; } a_temp_cookie = null; cookie_name = ''; } if ( !b_cookie_found ) { return null; } } if (Get_Cookie('__gsb')) { alert('Found'); } `

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  • Need a better way to execute console commands from python and log the results

    - by Wim Coenen
    I have a python script which needs to execute several command line utilities. The stdout output is sometimes used for further processing. In all cases, I want to log the results and raise an exception if an error is detected. I use the following function to achieve this: def execute(cmd, logsink): logsink.log("executing: %s\n" % cmd) popen_obj = subprocess.Popen(\ cmd, shell=True, stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE) (stdout, stderr) = popen_obj.communicate() returncode = popen_obj.returncode if (returncode <> 0): logsink.log(" RETURN CODE: %s\n" % str(returncode)) if (len(stdout.strip()) > 0): logsink.log(" STDOUT:\n%s\n" % stdout) if (len(stderr.strip()) > 0): logsink.log(" STDERR:\n%s\n" % stderr) if (returncode <> 0): raise Exception, "execute failed with error output:\n%s" % stderr return stdout "logsink" can be any python object with a log method. I typically use this to forward the logging data to a specific file, or echo it to the console, or both, or something else... This works pretty good, except for three problems where I need more fine-grained control than the communicate() method provides: stdout and stderr output can be interleaved on the console, but the above function logs them separately. This can complicate the interpretation of the log. How do I log stdout and stderr lines interleaved, in the same order as they were output? The above function will only log the command output once the command has completed. This complicates diagnosis of issues when commands get stuck in an infinite loop or take a very long time for some other reason. How do I get the log in real-time, while the command is still executing? If the logs are large, it can get hard to interpret which command generated which output. Is there a way to prefix each line with something (e.g. the first word of the cmd string followed by :).

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  • ASP.NET MVC - ValidationSummary set from a different controller

    - by Rap
    I have a HomeController with an Index action that shows the Index.aspx view. It has a username/password login section. When the user clicks the submit button, it POSTs to a Login action in the AccountController. <% Html.BeginForm("Login", "Account", FormMethod.Post); %> In that action, it tests for Username/Password validity and if invalid, sends the user back to the Login page with a message that the credentials were bad. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Login(LoginViewModel Model, string ReturnUrl) { User user = MembershipService.ValidateUser(Model.UserName, Model.Password); if (user != null) { //Detail removed here FormsService.SignIn(user.ToString(), Model.RememberMe); return Redirect(ReturnUrl); } else { ModelState.AddModelError("", "The user name or password provided is incorrect."); } // If we got this far, something failed, redisplay form return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); // <-- Here is the problem. ModelState is lost. } But here's the problem: the ValidationSummary is always blank because we're losing the Model when we RedirectToAction. How do I send the user to the action on a different controller without a Redirect?

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  • PHP - print content from file after manipulation

    - by ludicco
    Hello there, I'm struggling trying to read a php file inside a php and do some manipulation..after that have the content as a string, but when I try to output that with echo or print all the php tags are literally included on the file. so here is my code: function compilePage($page,$path){ $contents = array(); $menu = getMenuFor($page); $file = file_get_contents($path); array_push($contents,$menu); array_push($contents,$file); return implode("\n",$contents); } and this will return a string like <div id="content> <h2>Here is my title</h2> <p><? echo "my body text"; ?></p> </div> but this will print exactly the content above not compiling the php on it. So, how can I render this "compilePage" making sure it returns a compiled php result and not just a plain text? Thanks in advance

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  • jquery append a tr after calling

    - by marharépa
    Hello! I've got a table. <table id="servers" ...> ... {section name=i loop=$ownsites} <tr id="site_id_{$ownsites[i].id}"> ... <td>{$ownsites[i].phone}</td> <td class="icon"><a id="{$ownsites[i].id}" onClick="return makedeleterow(this.getAttribute('id'));" ...></a></td> </tr> {/section} <tbody> </table> And this java script. <script type="text/javascript"> function makedeleterow(id) { $('#delete').remove(); $('#servers').append($(document.createElement("tr")).attr({id: "delete"})); $('#delete').append($(document.createElement("td")).attr({colspan: "9", id: "deleter"})); $('#deleter').text('Biztosan törölni szeretnéd ezt a weblapod?'); $('#deleter').append($(document.createElement("input")).attr({type: "submit", id: id, onClick: "return truedeleterow(this.getAttribute('id'))"})); $('#deleter').append($(document.createElement("input")).attr({type: "hidden", name: "website_del", value: id})); } </script> It's workin fine, it makes a TR after the table's last tr and put the info to it, and the delete also works fine. But i'd like to make this AFTER the tr which calling the script. How can i do this? I've tried it with closest() but not work :(

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  • Where clause on joined table used for user defined key/value pairs

    - by Steve Wright
    Our application allows administrators to add “User Properties” in order for them to be able to tailor the system to match their own HR systems. For example, if your company has departments, you can define “Departments” in the Properties table and then add values that correspond to “Departments” such as “Jewelry”, “Electronics” etc… You are then able to assign a department to users. Here is the schema: In this schema, a User can have only one UserPropertyValue per Property, but doesn’t have to have a value for the property. I am trying to build a query that will be used in SSRS 2005 and also have it use the PropertyValues as the filter for users. My query looks like this: SELECT UserLogin, FirstName, LastName FROM Users U LEFT OUTER JOIN UserPropertyValues UPV ON U.ID = UPV.UserID WHERE UPV.PropertyValueID IN (1, 5) When I run this, if the user has ANY of the property values, they are returned. What I would like to have is where this query will return users that have values BY PROPERTY. So if PropertyValueID = 1 is of Department (Jewelry), and PropertyValueID = 5 is of EmploymentType (Full Time), I want to return all users that are in Department Jewelry that are EmployeeType of Full Time, can this be done? Here's a full data example: User A has Department(Jewelry value = 1) and EmploymentType(FullTime value = 5)User B has Department(Electronics value = 2) and EmploymentType(FullTime value = 5)User C has Department(Jewelry value = 1) and EmployementType(PartTime value = 6) My query should only return User A using the above query UPDATE: I should state that this query is used as a dataset in SSRS, so the parameter passed to the query will be @PropertyIDs and it is defined as a multi-value parameter in SSRS. WHERE UPV.PropertyValueID IN (@PropertyIDs)

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  • Easiest way to remove Keys from a 2D Array?

    - by dbemerlin
    Hi, I have an Array that looks like this: array( 0 => array( 'key1' => 'a', 'key2' => 'b', 'key3' => 'c' ), 1 => array( 'key1' => 'c', 'key2' => 'b', 'key3' => 'a' ), ... ) I need a function to get an array containing just a (variable) number of keys, i.e. reduce_array(array('key1', 'key3')); should return: array( 0 => array( 'key1' => 'a', 'key3' => 'c' ), 1 => array( 'key1' => 'c', 'key3' => 'a' ), ... ) What is the easiest way to do this? If possible without any additional helper function like array_filter or array_map as my coworkers already complain about me using too many functions. The source array will always have the given keys so it's not required to check for existance. Bonus points if the values are unique (the keys will always be related to each other, meaning that if key1 has value a then the other key(s) will always have value b). My current solution which works but is quite clumsy (even the name is horrible but can't find a better one): function get_unique_values_from_array_by_keys(array $array, array $keys) { $result = array(); $found = array(); if (count($keys) > 0) { foreach ($array as $item) { if (in_array($item[$keys[0]], $found)) continue; array_push($found, $item[$keys[0]]); $result_item = array(); foreach ($keys as $key) { $result_item[$key] = $item[$key]; } array_push($result, $result_item); } } return $result; } Addition: PHP Version is 5.1.6.

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  • Hash Code for a group of three fields

    - by Gauranga
    I have three fields namely Number1 Number2 Time I am trying to write a function in java that returns a unique hash value (long needs to be the return type of hash) for the above fields. This hash would then be used to store database rows corresponding to the above mentioned fields in a HashSet. I am new to writing a hash code function, can someone please review what I have. Any help would be appreciated. public class HashCode { private long Number1; private long Number2; String Time; public HashCode(long Number1, long Number2, String Time){ this.Number1 = Number1; this.Number2 = Number2; this.Time = Time; } public long getHashCode() { long hash = 3; hash = 47 * hash + (long) (this.Number1 ^ (this.Number1 >>> 32)); hash = 47 * hash + (long) (this.Number2 ^ (this.Number2 >>> 32)); hash = 47 * hash + (this.Time != null ? this.Time.hashCode() : 0); return hash; } }

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  • dropdownlist binding from function in code behind aspx vb

    - by Dr.H
    so I have this working in C# , why it is not working in VB public string[] CustomizedRoles() { int length = Roles.GetAllRoles().Length; string[] arrRoles=Roles.GetAllRoles(); string[] customizedRoles= new string[length+1]; customizedRoles[0] = ""; for (int i = 1; i < length+1; i++) { customizedRoles[i] = arrRoles[i-1]; } return customizedRoles; } asp:GridView.... asp:DropDownList ID="ddlOwnerRolesUpdate" runat="server" DataSource="<%# CustomizedRoles() %" Height="25px" Width="177px" SelectedValue='<%# Bind("Owner") %' where is "Owner" is a data value come from a datasource for the grid it is working fine in C# . in Vb with the same aspx and this code behind it is not working. Public Function CustomizedRoles() As String() Dim length As Integer = Roles.GetAllRoles().Length Dim arrRoles As String() = Roles.GetAllRoles() Dim _customizedRoles As String() = New String(length + 1) {} _customizedRoles(0) = " " For index As Integer = 1 To length _customizedRoles(index) = arrRoles(index - 1) Next Return _customizedRoles End Function can anyone show me how to bind array of string to a dropdownlist from aspx to code behind in VB

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  • JQuery Ajax Get passing parameters

    - by George
    Hi, I am working on my first MVC application and am running into a bit of a problem. I have a data table that when a row is clicked, I want to return the detail from that row. I have a function set up as: function rowClick(item) { $("#detailInfo").data("width.dialog", 800); $.ajax({ type: "GET", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", url: "<%= Url.Action("GetDetails", "WarningRecognition")%>", data: "", dataType: "json", success: function(data) {//do some stuff...and show results} } The problem I am running into is the passing of the "item". I calls the Controller function that looks like this: public JsonResult GetDetails(string sDetail) { Debug.WriteLine(Request.QueryString["sDetail"]); Debug.WriteLine("sDetail: " + sDetail); var myDetailsDao = new WarnRecogDetailsDao(); return new JsonResult { Data = myDetailsDao.SelectDetailedInfo(Convert.ToInt32(sDetail)) }; } But it never shows anything as the the "sDetail". It does hit the function but nothing is passed to it. So, I have read where you pass the parameter via the data but I have tried every combination I can think of and it never shows up. Tried: data: {"item"} data: {sDetail[item]} data: {sDetail[" + item + "]} Any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance. Geo...

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