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• log activity. intrusion detection. user event notification ( interraction ). messaging

  - by Julian Davchev

  Have three questions that I somehow find related so I put them in same place. Currently building relatively large LAMP system - making use of messaging(activeMQ) , memcache and other goodies. I wonder if there are best practices or nice tips and tricks on howto implement those. System is user aware - meaning all actions done can be bind to particular logged user. 1. How to log all actions/activities of users? So that stats/graphics might be extracted later for analysing. At best that will include all url calls, post data etc etc. Meaning tons of inserts. I am thinking sending messages to activeMQ and later cron dumping in DB and cron analysing might be good idea here. Since using Zend Framework I guess I may use some request plugin so I don't have to make the log() call all over the code. 2.How to log stuff so may be used for intrusion detection? I know most things might be done on http level using apache mods for example but there are also specific cases like (5 failed login attempts in a row (leads to captcha) etc etc..) This also would include tons of inserts. Here I guess direct usage of memcache might be best approach as data don't seem vital to be permanantly persisted. Not sure if cannot use data from point 1. 3.System will notify users of some events. Like need approval , something broke..whatever.Some events will need feedback(action) from user, others are just informational. Wonder if there is common solutions for needs like this. Example: Based on occuring event(s) user will be notifed (user inbox for example) what happend. There will be link or something to lead him to details of thingy that happend and take action accordingly. Those seem trivial at first look but problem I see if coding it directly is becoming really fast hard to maintain.

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• .NET Embedded Manifest Crashes XP

  - by Alan Spark

  Hi, I am embedding a manifest in a .NET exe so that it can request elevated permissions in Vista and Windows 7. The manifest that I am using is as follows: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <assembly xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1" manifestVersion="1.0"> <assemblyIdentity version="1.0.0.0" name="ElevationTest" type="win32"/> <trustInfo xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v3"> <security> <requestedPrivileges> <requestedExecutionLevel level="requireAdministrator"/> </requestedPrivileges> </security> </trustInfo> </assembly> It works as expected in Vista and Windows 7 but crashes XP with the standard "... has encountered a problem and needs to close..." error. If I don't embed any manifest then it works as expected but will obviously not have the required permissions in Vista and Windows 7. What is a standard way of producing an exe that will function with the correct permissions in XP and Vista / Windows 7? Thanks, Alan

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• Trying to build a dynamic PHP mysql_query string to update a row and getting back the updated row

  - by adardesign

  I have a form that jQuery tracks the onChage .change() event so when something is changed it runs a ajax request and i pass in the column, id, and the values in the url. Here i have the PHP code that should update the data. My question is now how do i build the mySQl string dynamically. and how do i echo back the changes/updates that where just changed on the db. Here is the PHP code i am trying to work with. <?php require_once('Connections/connect.php'); ?> <?php $id = $_GET['id']; $collumn = $_GET['collumn']; $val = $_GET['val']; ?> <?php mysql_select_db($myDB, $connection); // here i try to build the query string and pass in the passed in values $sqlUpdate = 'UPDATE `plProducts`.`allPens` SET `$collumn` = '$val' WHERE `allPens`.`prodId` = '$id' LIMIT 1;'; // here i want to echo back the updated row (or the updated data) $seeResults = mysql_query($sqlUpdate, $connection); echo $seeResults ?>

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• Page_Load or Page_Init

  - by balexandre

  Let's take a really simple example on using jQuery to ajaxify our page... $.load("getOrders.aspx", {limit: 25}, function(data) { // info as JSON is available in the data variable }); and in the ASP.NET (HTML part) page (only one line) <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="getOrders.aspx.cs" Inherits="getOrders" %> and in the ASP.NET (Code Behind) page public partial class getOrders : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string lmt = Request["limit"]; List<Orders> ords = dll.GetOrders(limit); WriteOutput( Newtonsoft.Json.JsonConvert.SerializeObject(ords) ); } private void WriteOutput(string s) { Response.Clear(); Response.Write(s); Response.Flush(); Response.End(); } } my question is Should it be protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) or protected void Page_Init(object sender, EventArgs e) So we can save some milliseconds as we don't actually need to process the events for the page, or will Page_Init lack of some sorting of a method by the time it is called? P.S. Currently works fine in both methods, but I just want to understand the ins and outs of choosing one method over the other

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• Same Origin issue with web service call

  - by Wjdavis5

  My web server runs at http://mypc.com:80 ` Given the following snip: $(window).load(function () { var myURL = "http://mypc.com:8000/PSOCharts/service/HighChart_ColumnChart/i"; $.getJSON(myURL) .done(function(data) {alert(data);}); }); I am running to this error: XMLHttpRequest cannot load http://mypc.com:8000/PSOCharts/service/HighChart_ColumnChart/i. Origin http://mypc.com is not allowed by Access-Control-Allow-Origin. I understand why (I think) b/c my webservice runs at port 8000 which is different from what IIS is running on (port 80). I thought I could get around by using jsonp (according to the jQuery documentation here So I copied the example of making a call to the flickr api, but it isnt working. Any thoughts/sugggestions? UPDATE Ok so my request is being made now: var myURL = "http://192.168.1.104:8000/PSOCharts/service/HighChart_ColumnChart/i?jsoncallback=?"; $.ajax({ url :myURL, dataType: "jsonp", success: function(data) {a(data)} , error: function(){alert("err");}, }); But I am continually hitting the error function, here is what's being returned: [1.4,54.43,49.39,93.23] Now I'm assuming this is b/c the response text doesnt contain any type of callback here is the part of the interface I'm calling: [WebInvoke(Method = "GET", RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, UriTemplate = "HighChart_ColumnChart/{id}?callback={cb}")] List<double> HighChart_ColumnChart(string id,string cb); Here is the actual function being called: public List<double> HighChart_ColumnChart(string id,string cb) { var z = new List<double>(); z.Add(1.4); z.Add(54.43); z.Add(49.39); z.Add(93.23); return z; } when I debug, the CB param is something like : "jQuery19108121746340766549_1372630643878". How do I modify the code to wrap it correctly? Thanks for the help thus far!

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• Pointer and malloc issue

  - by Andy

  I am fairly new to C and am getting stuck with arrays and pointers when they refer to strings. I can ask for input of 2 numbers (ints) and then return the one I want (first number or second number) without any issues. But when I request names and try to return them, the program crashes after I enter the first name and not sure why. In theory I am looking to reserve memory for the first name, and then expand it to include a second name. Can anyone explain why this breaks? Thanks! #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> void main () { int NumItems = 0; NumItems += 1; char* NameList = malloc(sizeof(char[10])*NumItems); printf("Please enter name #1: \n"); scanf("%9s", NameList[0]); fpurge(stdin); NumItems += 1; NameList = realloc(NameList,sizeof(char[10])*NumItems); printf("Please enter name #2: \n"); scanf("%9s", NameList[1]); fpurge(stdin); printf("The first name is: %s",NameList[0]); printf("The second name is: %s",NameList[1]); return 0; }

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• REST design: what verb and resource name to use for a filtering service

  - by kabaros

  I am developing a cleanup/filtering service that has a method that receives a list of objects serialized in xml, and apply some filtering rules to return a subset of those objects. In a REST-ful service, what verb shall I use for such a method? I thought that GET is a natural choice, but I have to put the serialized XML in the body of the request which works but feels incorrect. The other verbs don't seem to fit semantically. What is a good way to define that Service interface? Naming the resource /Cleanup or /Filter seems weird mainly because in the examples I see online, it is always a name rather than a verb being used for resource name. Am I right to feel that REST services are better suited for CRUD operations and you start bending the rules in situations like this service? If yes, am I then making a wrong architectural choice. I've pushed to develop this service in REST-ful style (as opposed to SOAP) for simplicity, but such awkward cases happen a lot and make me feel like I am missing something. Either choosing REST where it shouldn't be used or may be over-thinking some stuff that doesn't really matter? In that case, what really matters?

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• JSP includes and MVC pattern

  - by xingyu

  I am new to JSP/Servlets/MVC and am writing a JSP page (using Servlets and MVC pattern) that displays information about recipies, and want the ability for users to "comment" on it too. So for the Servlet, on doGet(), it grabs all the required info into a Model POJO and forwards the request on to a JSP View for rendering. That is working just fine. I'd like the "comment" part to be a separate JSP, so on the RecipeView.jsp I can use to separate these views out. So I've made that, but am now a little stuck. The form in the CommentOnRecipe.jsp posts to a CommentAction servlet that handles the recording of the comment just fine. So when I reload the Recipe page, I can see the comment I just made. I'd like to: Reload the page automatically after commenting (no AJAX for now) Block the user from making more than one comment on each Recipe over a 1 day timeframe (via a Cookie). So I store a cookie indicating the product ID whenever the user makes a comment, so we can check this later? How would it work in a MVC context? Show a message to the user that they have already commented on the Recipe when they visit one which they have commented on I'm confused about using beans/including JSPs etc on how to achieve this. I know in ASP.NET land, it would be a UseControl that I would place on a page, or in ASP.NET MVC, it would be a PartialView of some sort. I'm just confused with the way this works in a JSP/Servlets/MVC context.

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• ASP.NET DropDownList control doesn't postback correctly inside of UserControl

  - by RichardAZ

  I have a situation where a DropDownList control is not posting back correctly. The AutoPost property is set to true, so the postback does happen, but the SelectedValue is not set to the correct value. In addition, the onSelectedIndexChanged event doesn't fire. The exact same code works perfect fine on an ASPX page, but does not work in a ASCX control. I have tried all the obvious things, I hope, trying to figure this one out, but no luck so far. I have even investigated what comes back in Request.Form["__EVENTTARGET"] and __EVENTARGUMENT. __EVENTTARGET does point to the drop down list, but the argument is empty. Can the folks of StackOverflow help lead me in the right direction to debug this issue. Of course, it is further complicated by master pages and the usual overcomplication of ASP.NET. Here is the code: <div> <asp:DropDownList ID="testDrop" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true" EnableViewState="true" onselectedindexchanged="testDrop_SelectedIndexChanged"> <asp:ListItem Value="1" Text="1">1</asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Value="2" Text="2">2</asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> </div> And here is the generated html: <select id="ctl00_MainContent_rptAccordion_ctl00_statControl_testDrop" onchange="javascript:setTimeout('__doPostBack(\'ctl00$MainContent$rptAccordion$ctl00$statControl$testDrop\',\'\')', 0)" name="ctl00$MainContent$rptAccordion$ctl00$statControl$testDrop"> <option value="1" selected="selected">1</option> <option value="2">2</option> THANKS!

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• Anything wrong with my cURL code (http status of 0)?

  - by Ilya

  Consistently getting a status of 0 even though if I copy and paste the url sent into my browser, I get a json object right back <?php $mainUrl = "https://api.xxxx.com/?"; $co = "xxxxx"; $pa = "xxxx"; $par = "xxxx"; $part= "xxxx"; $partn = "xxxx"; $us= "xxx"; $fields_string; $fields = array( 'co'=>urlencode($co), 'pa'=>urlencode($pa), 'par'=>urlencode($par), 'part'=>urlencode($part), 'partn'=>urlencode($partn), 'us'=>urlencode($us) ); foreach($fields as $key=>$value) { $fields_string .= $key . '=' . $value . '&' ;} $fields_string = rtrim($fields_string, "&"); $fields_string = "?" . $fields_string; $url = "https://api.xxxxx.com/" . $fields_string; $request = $url; $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER,1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT,'3'); $content = trim(curl_exec($ch)); $http_status = curl_getinfo($ch, CURLINFO_HTTP_CODE); curl_close($ch); print $url; print $http_status; print $content; ?>

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• How to end a thread in perl

  - by user1672190

  I am new to perl and i have a question about perl thread. I am trying to create a new thread to check if the running function is timed out, and my way of doing it is as below. Logic is 1.create a new thread 2.run the main function and see if it is timed out, if ture, kill it Sample code: $exit_tread = false; # a flag to make sure timeout thread will run my $thr_timeout = threads->new( \&timeout ); execute main function here; $exit_thread = true # set the flag to true to force thread ends $thr_timeout->join(); #wait for the timeout thread ends Code of timeout function sub timeout { $timeout = false; my $start_time = time(); while (!$exit_thread) { sleep(1); last if (main function is executed); if (time() - $start_time >= configured time ) { logmsg "process is killed as request timed out"; _kill_remote_process(); $timeout = true; last; } } } now the code is running as i expected, but i am just not very clear if the code $exit_thread = true works because there is a "last" at the end of while loop. Can anybody give me a answer? Thanks

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• The HTTP verb POST used to access path '[my path]' is not allowed.

  - by Jed

  I am receiving an error that states: "The HTTP verb POST used to access path '[my path]' is not allowed.". The error is being caused by the fact that I am implementing an HTML form element that uses the POST method and does not explicitly define an .aspx page in its ACTION parameter. For example: <form action="" method="post"> <input type="submit" /> </form> The HTML above is on a file at "/foo/default.aspx". Now, if the user points the URL to the root directory "foo" without specifying the aspx file (i.e. "http://localhost/foo") and then submits the form, the error "The HTTP verb POST used to access path '/foo' is not allowed." will be thrown. However, if the user goes to "http://localhost/foo/default.aspx" and then submits the form, all goes well (even if the ACTION parameter is left empty). Note: If I explicitly add the name of the .aspx (default.aspx) page to the ACTION parameter, no errors are thrown. So the example below works fine regardless if the user defines the name of the file in the URL or not. <form action="default.aspx" method="post"> <input type="submit" /> </form> I was curious as to why the error was being thrown, so I read a Microsoft KB that states This problem occurs because a client makes an HTTP request by sending the POST method to a static HTML page. Static HTML pages do not support the POST method. I suppose the core of the explanation makes sense, however in my case, my form is not being sent to a static html page - it's being sent to the same page that the html form lives on (default.aspx)... this is implicit to an ACTION param that is left empty. Is it possible to configure IIS (or otherwise) that will allow us to do form POSTing and keep the ACTION param empty?

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• how can i make sure to get the server response correctly when i invoke the server with QNetworkReque

  - by noname

  I wrote the server site call in Qt, but i haven't get the server response for every server invoking. I have to use the server reply to continue the program flow. The request is correctly reached to server and server do reply.The server is also on my machine. Here is the code how i make the server site call; QNetworkAccessManager nam1 = new QNetworkAccessManager(this); qnetmg=nam1; QObject::connect(nam1, SIGNAL(finished(QNetworkReply*)),this,SLOT(finishedGettingMarker(QNetworkReply*))); QString strurl="http://localhost:8080/ServerWeb"; QUrl url(strurl); QNetworkRequest preq(url); QNetworkReply* reply = nam1->get(preq); qreply=reply; Inside finisedGettingMarker slot, i have already eliminate for QNetworkReply-error case and i used one global variable for QNetworkAccessManager;"qnetmg" and one global variable for QNetworkReply;"qreply". And also i make qnetmg.disconnect(this,0); and qreply.abort(); inside that slot method. But the problem is i haven't got the response for every server invoking time. If anyone who know the way to solve it , please reply me. This situation happened only in Opera. Thanks in advance.

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• How to reset keyboard for an entry field?

  - by David.Chu.ca

  I am using tag field as a flag for text fields text view fields for auto-jumping to the next field: - (BOOL)findNextEntryFieldAsResponder:(UIControl *)field { BOOL retVal = NO; for (UIView* aView in mEntryFields) { if (aView.tag == (field.tag + 1)) { [aView becomeFirstResponder]; retVal = YES; break; } } return retVal; } It works fine in terms of auto-jumping to the next field when Next key is pressed. However, my case is that the keyboards are different some fields. For example, one fields is numeric & punctuation, and the next one is default (alphabetic keys). For the numeric & punctuation keyboard is OK, but the next field will stay as the same layout. It requires user to press 123 to go back ABC keyboard. I am not sure if there is any way to reset the keyboard for a field as its keyboard defined in xib? Not sure if there is any APIs available? I guess I have to do something is the following delegate? -(void)textFieldDidBegingEditing:(UITextField*) textField { // reset to the keyboard to request specific keyboard view? .... } OK. I found a solution close to my case by slatvik: -(void) textFieldDidBeginEditing:(UITextField*) textField { textField.keyboardType = UIKeybardTypeAlphabet; } However, in the case of the previous text fields is numeric, the keyboard stays numeric when auto-jumped to the next field. Is there any way to set keyboard to alphabet mode?

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• Does Spring MVC form submit data bind children objects automagically?

  - by predhme

  I have a data model that is something like this: public class Report { // report owner private User user; ... typical getter setter ... } public class User { ... omitted for clarity } What happens is when a report is created, the current user is set to the report user object. When the report is edited, the spring controller handling the POST request is receiving a report where the user object is null. Here is what my controller looks like: @Controller @RequestMapping("/report") public class ReportController { @RequestMapping(value = "/edit/{id}", method = RequestMethod.GET) public String editReport(@PathVariable Long id, Model model) { Report r = backend.getReport(id); // fully loads object model.addAttribute("report", report); return "report/edit"; } @RequestMapping(value = "/edit/{id}", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String process(@ModelAttribute("report") Report r) { backend.save(r); return "redirect:/report/show" + r.getId(); } } I ran things throw the debugger and it looks like in the editReport method the model object is storing the fully loaded report object (I can see the user inside the report). On the form jsp I can do the following: ${report.user.username} and the correct result is rendered. However, when I look at the debugger in the process method, the passed in Report r has a null user. I don't need to do any special data binding to ensure that information is retained do I?

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• Granting administrator privileges to an application launched at startup without UAC prompt?

  - by iKenndac

  Background I've written a small C#/.NET 4.0 application that syncs various settings from a game installed in Program Files to and from other copies of the same game on different machines (think Chrome bookmark sync, but for this game). The sync itself is a relatively simple affair, dealing with files stored inside the game's Program Files folder. On my machine, this works fine without having to elevate my application through UAC. Windows 7 makes the game use Program Files virtualisation and my application works fine with that. However, on a lot of tester's machines, I'm getting reports that the application either can't work with the files and in come cases can't even see the game's folder! Having the user right-click and "Run as Administrator" solves the problem in every case. So, we just set the application's manifest to require admin privileges, right? That's fine (although not ideal) for when the user manually invokes the application or the sync process because they'll be interacting with the application and ready to accept a UAC request. However, one of the features of my application is a "Sync Automatically" option, which allows the user to "set and forget" the application. With this set, the application puts itself into the registry at HKCU\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run to be run at startup and sits in the system tray syncing the settings in the background as needed. Obviously, I need to be smarter here. Presenting a UAC prompt as soon as the user logs in to their account or at random intervals afterwards isn't the way forwards. So, my question! What's the best way to approach a situation where I'd need to run an application at startup that needs administrator privileges? Is there a way to have the user authorise an installation that causes the system to automatically run the application with the correct privileges without a prompt at startup/login?

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• Listening to PHP function calls to intercept the returned value

  - by Lansen Q

  I am working on making use of a Web Services API offered by the hosts of our internal system. I am accessing it via PHP with the built-in SOAP offering. The API session is initiated by a remote call to a function that returns some session tokens; every call to any function thereafter will return a new session token, which must accompany the next request. I have an API Client class that is doing the bulk of the work; what I would like to do is to set something up whereby any SOAP call that is made will make sure to update the API Client class' $session variable with the new session details, and then pass the data along. So far the only way I can think of doing this is creating a new class extending the SoapClient class, with a __call function wrapper to execute the function, update the new session token, and return the results nonetheless. I'm not sure that this will a) work b) be the best way to go about this. The wrapper class would be identical to making a SOAP call, and it would return an identical result, just it would update the session token before you get your result back. Thanks! Hope I explained myself properly.

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• Is a web-server (e.g servlets) a good solution for an IM server?

  - by John

  I'm looking at a new app, broadly speaking an IM application with a strong client-server model - all communications go through a server so they can be logged centrally. The server will be Java in some form, clients could at this point be anything from a .NET Desktop app to Flex/Silverlight, to a simple web-interface using JS/AJAX. I had anticipated doing the server using standard J2EE so I get a thread-safe, multi-user server for 'free'... to make things simple let's say using Servlets (but in practice SpringMVC would be likely). This all seemed very neat but I'm concerned if the stateless nature of Servlets is the best approach. If my memory of servlets (been a year or two) is right, each time a client sent a HTTP request, typically a new message entered by the user, the servlet could not assume it had the user/chat in memory and might have to get it from the DB... regardless it has to look it up. Then it either has to use some PUSH system to inform other members of the chat, or cache that there are new messages, for other clients who poll the server using AJAX or similar - and when they poll it again has to lookup the chat, including new messages, and send the new data. I'm wondering if a better system would be the server is running core Java, and implements a socket-based communication with clients. This allows much more immediate data transfer and is more flexible if say the IM client included some game you could play. But then you're writing a custom server and sockets don't sound very friendly to a browser-based client on current browsers. Am I missing some big piece of the puzzle here, it kind of feels like I am? Perhaps a better way to ask the question would simply be "if the client was browser-based using HTML/JS and had to run on IE7+,FF2+ (i.e no HTML5), how would you implement the server?" edit: if you are going to suggest using XMPP, I have been trying to get my head around this in another question, so please consider if that's a more appropriate place to discuss this specifically.

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• Wicket: Where to add components? Constructor? Or onBeforeRender?

  - by gmallett

  I'm a Wicket newb. This may just be my ignorance of the Wicket lifecycle so please enlighten me! My understanding is that Wicket WebPage objects are instantiated once and then serialized. This has led to a point of confusion for me, see below. Currently I have a template class which I intend to subclass. I followed the example in the Wicket docs demonstrating how to override the template's behavior in the subclass: protected void onBeforeRender() { add(new Label("title", getTitle())); super.onBeforeRender(); } protected String getTitle() { return "template"; } Subclass: protected String getTitle() { return "Home"; } This works very well. What's not clear to me are the "best practices" for this. It seems like onBeforeRender() is called on every request for the page, no? This seems like there would be substantially more processing done on a page if everything is in onBeforeRender(). I could easily follow the example of the other Wicket examples and add some components in the constructor that I do not want to override, but then I've divided by component logic into two places, something I'm hesitant to do. If I add a component that I intend to be in all subclasses, should I add it to the constructor or onBeforeRender()?

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• Django: How to override a related sets "add" method?

  - by MB_

  I am working on a django project and i want to send a signal when something get's added to some models related set, e.g. we have an owner wo has a set of collectables and each time the method owner.collectable_set.add(something) is getting called i want signal like "collectable_added" or something. signals are clear to me, but in which manager(?) the "add" method sits that i want to override is unclear to me. edit: Upon the request of Xaver to provide more details. You can easily override a models "save" method, by simply defining it and calling the super-"save" so it get's properly saved with some extra functionality for example. But i wonder where to override a related sets "add" method. gosh, i think i haven't brought in any further details. but i think it even should be clear what i want to do from the first paragraph. edit2: This is the method i want to override. Is it recommended to do so or do you suggest another way to place the sending of the signal?

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• Major JQuery bug on IE not reproducible - What can i do in this situation to solve this bug?

  - by ming yeow

  I am hoping to get some help on this issue. Some users on IE have been reporting this javascript issue, but I have been unable to re-produce it. In essence, for some class of windows IE users, the game doesn't work (or $.ajax() is not working). What I know: I swapped out an ajax call (ajax_init_trainer) and used a standard link with some request parameters to do the initialization and ppl seemed to get passed the problem until they hit the next ajax call. I read somewhere that IE does crazy caching so you need to make the urls unique, which is why i added the _requestno parameter. However, setting the cache:false is said to also do this. This didn't fix it for someone who was complaining. function done(res, status) { var data = JSON.parse(res.responseText); hide_loading(); if (status == "success") { window.location.href="/bamo/battle/?{{ fb_sig}}"; } else { display_alert("Problem!",data.msg,$("#notifications")); } }; $(".monster_select_class").click(function() { $(this).attr("src","{{MEDIA_URL}}/bamo/button_select_click.png"); monster_class = $(this).attr("monster_class"); monster_type = $(this).attr("monster_type"); ajax_init_trainer(monster_class,monster_type); }); function ajax_init_trainer(trainer_class,monster_type) { var data = {trainer_class:trainer_class,monster_type:monster_type}; var d = new Date(); var args = { type:"POST",url:"/bamo/api/init_trainer/?_requestno="+d.getTime(),data:data,contentType:"application/json;", dataType: "json",cache:false,complete:done}; $.ajax(args); return false; };

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• PHP session_write_close() keeps sending a set-cookie header

  - by Chiraag Mundhe

  In my framework, I make a number of calls to session_write_close(). Let's assume that a session has been initiated with a user agent. The following code... foreach($i = 0; $i < 3; $i++) { session_start(); session_write_close(); } ...will send the following request header to the browser: Set-Cookie PHPSESSID=bv4d0n31vj2otb8mjtr59ln322; path=/ PHPSESSID=bv4d0n31vj2otb8mjtr59ln322; path=/ There should be no Set-Cookie header because, as I stipulated, the session cookie has already been created on the user's end. But every call to session_write_close() after the first one in the script above will result in PHP instructing the browser to set the current session again. This is not breaking my app or anything, but it is annoying. Does anyone have any insight into preventing PHP from re-setting the cookie with each subsequent call to session_write_close? EDIT The problem seems to be that with every subsequent call to session_start(), PHP re-sets the session cookie to its own SID and sends a Set-Cookie response header. But why??

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• .htaccess file on localhost throwing an error when using a Virtual Host config on my Localhost!!

  - by Chris

  I am trying to set-up my localhost development server. I have everything working but when I try to add an .htaccess it throws this error: Internal Server Error The server encountered an internal error or misconfiguration and was unable to complete your request. Please contact the server administrator, [no address given] and inform them of the time the error occurred, and anything you might have done that may have caused the error. More information about this error may be available in the server error log. I dont know exactly why this is, this is pretty much the exact same setup as the other developers machine, but when using my .htaccess file I get that error. Here is my .htaccess file (NOTE: They are commented because I left my site with this setup. It only lets me view the index page. Without this .htaccess file, I can navigate.): Options -indexes RewriteEngine On ErrorDocument 404 /404 RewriteRule ^battery/([^/]+)$ /browser/product?sku=BATTERY+$1&type=battery RewriteRule ^vehicles/([^/]+)/([^/]+)/([^/]+)/product([0-9]+)$ /browser/index.php?make=$1&model=$2&id=$3 [L,NC] RewriteRule ^vehicles/([^/]+)/([^/]+)/([^/]+)/([0-9]+)$ /browser/product.php?make=$1&model=$2&year=$3&id=$4 [L,NC] RewriteRule ^vehicles/([^/]+)/([^/]+)/([^/]+)$ /browser/index.php?make=$1&model=$2&year=$3 [L,NC] RewriteRule ^vehicles/([^/]+)/([^/]+)$ /browser/index.php?make=$1&model=$2 [L,NC] RewriteRule ^vehicles/([^/]+)$ /browser/index.php?make=$1 [L,NC] RewriteRule ^vehicles/$ /browser/index.php [L,NC] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME}\.php -f RewriteRule ^(.*)$ $1.php

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• Force language change from custom account creation script through url

  - by jax

  I have made a custom 'Account Creation' script so that users can login from my phone application. What I want is to be able to change the responses from the server depending on their locale. So when I request a page I would add lang=en or lang=zh etc. This works http://mysite.com/phone/my_custom_account_creation.php?lang=en Response: <resource classification="error" code="Error (Code: 500)"> <message>Please enter your name:</message> </resource> This does not work: http://mysite.com/phone/my_custom_account_creation.php?lang=zh Response: <resource classification="error" code="Error (Code: 500)"> <message>Please enter your name:</message> </resource> If I go into Joomla at set the default language to chinese, it works. <resource classification="error" code="Error (Code: 500)"> <message>????????</message> </resource> but http://mysite.com/phone/my_custom_account_creation.php?lang=en does not work, instead it continues to show the chinese version. What might I be able to do here?

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• Checking if user owns file before deleting it

  - by Martin Hoe

  I'm building an API for my site that allows users to delete the files they upload. Obviously, I want to check if the user owns that file before they delete it through the API. I have a files table and a users table, here's the schema: f_id, s_id, u_id, name, size, uploaded u_id, username, password, email, activated, activation_code u_id is a foreign key. The u_id field in the files table points to the u_id in the users table. Given the users username, I want to find the users u_id, and then check if they own the file through the file ID (f_id). I wrote this SQL: $sql = 'SELECT u.username FROM `users` u JOIN `files` f ON u.u_id = f.u_id WHERE f_id = ? AND u.u_id = ? LIMIT 1'; I'm assuming that'd work if I was given the users u_id in the API request, but alas I'm given only their username. How can I modify that SQL to find their user ID and use that? Thanks. Edit: Alright I've got this query but it's always returning an empty result set even though both the file ID and username exist. SELECT u.username FROM `users` u JOIN `files` f ON u.u_id = f.u_id WHERE f.f_id = ? AND u.username = ? LIMIT 1

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