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  • Invoking a SOAP ( Web Services ) from ORACLE DB

    - by Mousarules
    Dears, Kindly note that I’m trying to invoke a SOAP (web services) from ORACLE DB using pl\sql , after I have done some investigations it says that I have to use the UTL_HTTP package but It didn't work with me !!! Kindly to advice me , where should I exactly place the following SOAP in pl\SQL to be invoked .... is it posible ? SOAP 1.1 The following is a sample SOAP 1.1 request and response. The placeholders shown need to be replaced with actual values. POST /gmgwebservice/service.asmx HTTP/1.1 Host: bulk.umniah.com Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: length SOAPAction: "http://tempuri.org/SendSMS" <SendSMS xmlns="http://tempuri.org/"> <UserName>string</UserName> <Password>string</Password> <MessageBody>string</MessageBody> <Sender>string</Sender> <Destination>string</Destination> </SendSMS> HTTP/1.1 200 OK Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: length <SendSMSResponse xmlns="http://tempuri.org/"> <SendSMSResult>string</SendSMSResult> </SendSMSResponse> --This web services refers to a web site called Bulk Messaging ; the web site sends SMS to a specific mobile number by filling in some text boxes , I need it to be done from ORACLE forms when a specific action occurs ( JOB ) but I don’t know how to use it inside my pl\sql code . Hope that it’s clear ,is there something else I have to mention ?

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  • Checking if user owns file before deleting it

    - by Martin Hoe
    I'm building an API for my site that allows users to delete the files they upload. Obviously, I want to check if the user owns that file before they delete it through the API. I have a files table and a users table, here's the schema: f_id, s_id, u_id, name, size, uploaded u_id, username, password, email, activated, activation_code u_id is a foreign key. The u_id field in the files table points to the u_id in the users table. Given the users username, I want to find the users u_id, and then check if they own the file through the file ID (f_id). I wrote this SQL: $sql = 'SELECT u.username FROM `users` u JOIN `files` f ON u.u_id = f.u_id WHERE f_id = ? AND u.u_id = ? LIMIT 1'; I'm assuming that'd work if I was given the users u_id in the API request, but alas I'm given only their username. How can I modify that SQL to find their user ID and use that? Thanks. Edit: Alright I've got this query but it's always returning an empty result set even though both the file ID and username exist. SELECT u.username FROM `users` u JOIN `files` f ON u.u_id = f.u_id WHERE f.f_id = ? AND u.username = ? LIMIT 1

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  • DRY jQuery for RESTful PUT/DELETE links

    - by Aupajo
    I'm putting together PUT/DELETE links, a la Rails, which when clicked create a POST form with an hidden input labelled _method that sends the intended request type. I want to make it DRYer, but my jQuery knowledge isn't up to it. HTML: <a href="/articles/1" class="delete">Destroy Article 1</a> <a href="/articles/1/publish" class="put">Publish Article 1</a> jQuery: $(document).ready(function() { $('.delete').click(function() { if(confirm('Are you sure?')) { var f = document.createElement('form'); $(this).after($(f).attr({ method: 'post', action: $(this).attr('href') }).append('<input type="hidden" name="_method" value="DELETE" />')); $(f).submit(); } return false; }); $('.put').click(function() { var f = document.createElement('form'); $(this).after($(f).attr({ method: 'post', action: $(this).attr('href') }).append('<input type="hidden" name="_method" value="PUT" />')); $(f).submit(); return false; }); });

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  • C# object (2 numbers) performing 2 calculations

    - by Chris
    I have a couple questions about creating a object (2 values) and how to "call" it. Initializing the object with: Tweetal t1, t2, t3, t4, t5, t6; t1 = new Tweetal(); //a: 0 , b = 0 t2 = new Tweetal(-2); //a: -2, b = -2 t3 = new Tweetal(5, 17); //a: 5, b = 17 t4 = new Tweetal(t3); //a:5, b = 17 Console.Write("t1 = " + t1); Console.Write("\tt2 = " + t2); Console.Write("\tt3 = " + t3); Console.Write("\tt4 = " + t4); Console.WriteLine("\n"); t1 = t1.Som(t2); t4 = t2.Som(t2); //...... Now the 2 things i want to do with this object are taking the SUM and the SUMNumber: Sum: t4 = t2.sum(t3); (this would result in t4: a:3 (-2+5), b: 15(-2+17) SumNumber: t1 = t3.sum(8) (this would result in t1: a:13 , b:25) Next is my code for the object (in a separate class), but how exactly do i perform the simple sum calculation when i call up for example t2 etc... public class Tweetal: Object { private int a; private int b; public Tweetal() { //??? //Sum(...,...) } public Tweetal(int a) { //??? //Sum(...,...) } public Tweetal(int a, int b) { //??? } public Tweetal(Tweetal //....) // to call upton the object if i request t1, t2, t3,... insteed of a direct number value) { // ???? } public void Sum(int aValue, int bValue) { //a = ??? //b = ??? //Sum(...,...) } public void SumNumber(int aValue, int bValue) { } public override string ToString() { return string.Format("({0}, {1})", a, b); }/*ToString*/ }

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  • How to retrieve content via .load() or $.get() with this line

    - by Sin
    hello :) I posted a question a day or two ago about how to retrieve php via ajax method in this modal I was using. I kinda found out the right way to go about it, but there's still something I'm not doing right (obviously lol) Here's the section thats giving me the issues: jQuery('div that holds content').fadeIn(200).css({ 'width': Number( popWidth ) }); $('').load('/something/somewhere/this #content'); So, im using safari, and a local server (mamp), when I check activity in my browser, it shows that it is loading the content with every click, AND the pop up pops up, but no content. When I simply retrieve content via hidden div, ofcourse, i get it. This is what I'm trying to avoid. right now I have that div in my footer stashed as hidden. I'd rather just make a call when its needed, instead of loading it every single time a page is accessed. you can go here to see the whole script i posted in my last question: How to use ajax to show php in a modal pop up Anyone have any idea? I read that .load() has the ability to grab specific content from a request, but im not sure the major difference between that and $.get() I've tried both, and I get the same results. Im using wordpress, and wordpress's ajax requests run smooth as ever, so I know its not a local problem, i'ts my coding lol Ok....Im done typing :)

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  • Undefined Variable? But I defined it...

    - by Rob
    Well before anyone claims that theres a duplicate question... (I've noticed that people who can't answer the question tend to run and look for a duplicate, and then report it.) Here is the duplicate you are looking for: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2481382/php-claims-my-defined-variable-is-undefined However, this isn't quite a duplicate. It gives me a solution, but I'm not really looking for this particular solution. Here is my problem: Notice: Undefined variable: custom Now here is my code: $headers = apache_request_headers(); // Request the visitor's headers. $customheader = "Header: 7ddb6ffab28bb675215a7d6e31cfc759"; //This is what the header should be. foreach ($headers as $header => $value) { $custom .= "$header: $value"; } Clearly, $custom is defined. According to the other question, it's a global and should be marked as one. But how is it a global? And how can I make it a (non-global)? The script works fine, it still displays what its supposed to and acts correctly, but when I turn on error messages, it simply outputs that notice as well. I suppose its not currently necessary to fix it, but I'd like to anyway, as well as know why its doing this.

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  • Why "Content-Length: 0" in POST requests?

    - by stesch
    A customer sometimes sends POST requests with Content-Length: 0 when submitting a form (10 to over 40 fields). We tested it with different browsers and from different locations but couldn't reproduce the error. The customer is using Internet Explorer 7 and a proxy. We asked them to let their system administrator see into the problem from their side. Running some tests without the proxy, etc.. In the meantime (half a year later and still no answer) I'm curious if somebody else knows of similar problems with a Content-Length: 0 request. Maybe from inside some Windows network with a special proxy for big companies. Is there a known problem with Internet Explorer 7? With a proxy system? The Windows network itself? Google only showed something in the context of NTLM (and such) authentication, but we aren't using this in the web application. Maybe it's in the way the proxy operates in the customer's network with Windows logins? (I'm no Windows expert. Just guessing.) I have no further information about the infrastructure.

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  • Collect all fields in form to an array

    - by Industrial
    Hi everyone, Each div with the class "row" is added upon request from the user, to be able to add multiple items at once. So now is the question how I'll collect all the forms in to an array that PHP can read (like JSON for instance). I'll guess that there's already some easy and effective way of doing this? <div class="container"> <div class="row"> <input type="text" name="value1" id="textfield" /> <input type="text" name="value2" id="textfield" /> <input type="text" name="value3" id="textfield" /> </div> </div> Here's what I would like to achieve out of the shown example: array( array ('value1' => '', 'value2' => '', 'value3' => '') ); Thanks! Update: The form will be handled with PHP and it would be super to be able to do something like a foreach loop on the specific container-div content.

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  • Android EVO4G SenseUI Flash Lite 4 cookie problem

    - by cmurray
    Got the EVO4G today, watching it run Actionscript3 out of the box was EXTREMELY cool. Ran into a problem though. When I connect to a server which creates an HTTP session and hands a cookie to my application, subsequent calls from my client to the server do not have the cookie attached to the HTTP request. That causes the server to invalidate the session and my user is logged out. This appears to be a bug between the Flash Lite 4 player and the SenseUI/browser running in Android 2.1 for the EVO4G. This same application works on other platforms, including the HTC HERO if compiled for flash lite 2. If I hardcode my HTTP requests in the browser address bar, the cookies work, so I know cookies are working on the phone. But when my application is running in the Flash Player, the cookies are not working. I realize this may not be the best forum for this question, so if you cant answer or help me, if you could give me some more appropriate forums to ask on, I would appreciate that. Thanks!

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  • Expressjs route param as variable in main app

    - by MoDFoX
    For my app I have two route set up, app.get('/', routes.index); app.get('/:name', routes.index); I would like it to be so that if I don't specify a param, say just go to appurl.com (localhost:3000), it would load a default user, but if I do specify a param(localhost:3000/user), use that as the variable "username" in the following function (placed after my routes). (function getUser(){ var body = '', username = 'WillsonSM', options = { host: 'ws.audioscrobbler.com', port: 80, path: '/2.0/?method=user.gettopartists&user=' + username + '&format=json&limit=20&api_key=APIKEYGOESHERE' }; require('http').request(options, function(res) { res.setEncoding('utf8'); res.on('data', function(chunk) { body += chunk; }); res.on('end', function() { body = JSON.parse(body); artists = body.topartists.artist; }); }).end(); })(); Along with this I have my route set up like so: exports.index = function(req, res){ res.render('index', { title: 'LasTube' }); username = req.params.name; console.log(username); }; unfortunately setting username there to req.params.name does not seem to be accessible from the main app function. My question is: How can I set expressjs/nodejs to use the parameter set via /name when available, and just use a default - in this example "WillsonSM" if not available. I've tried taking "username" out of the main app, and just leaving it in the function, but username becomes undefined, as it is inaccessible from the route, and the app will not run. I can spit out "username" via the routes console.log, so assigning it there is not an issue, but as I am new to expressjs, I am unaware of how I should go about doing this. I have tried all I can think of and find from looking around the internet. Also, if there is a better way of doing this, or I am doing something wrong, please let me know. If I've left out any information, just throw in a comment and I'll try to address it.

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  • redirect web app results to own application

    - by vbNewbie
    Is it possible to redirect a web apps results to a second application? I cannot parse the html source. It contains the javascript functions that execute the queries but all the content is probably server side. I hope this makes sense. The owner has made the script available but I am not sure how this helps. Can I using .net call the site and redirect results perhaps to a file or database? the app accesses one of googles apis and performs searches/queries and returns results which are displayed on the site. Now all the javascript functions that perform these queries are listed in the source but I do not know javascript so it does not make much sense to me. I have used the documentation which uses the oauth protocol to access the api and have implemented that in my web app but it took me nearly a week to get the request token right and now to send requests to the api, sometimes I get one result back and sometimes none. It is frustrating me and the owner of the web app has given use of his script but he says all that happens is that my browser interacts with the google api and not his server. So I thought why not have my web app call his, since his interacts with the API flawlessly and have the results sent to my app to save in a database. I have very little experience here so pardon my ignorance

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  • NHibernate Entity code conversion from #C to VB.Net

    - by CoderRoller
    Hello and thanks for your help in advance. I am starting on the NHibernate world and i am experimenting with the NHibernate CookBook recipes, i am trying to set a base entity class for my entities and this is the C# code for this. I would like to know whats the VB.NET version so i can implement it in my sample project. This is the C# code: public abstract class Entity<TId> { public virtual TId Id { get; protected set; } public override bool Equals(object obj) { return Equals(obj as Entity<TId>); } private static bool IsTransient(Entity<TId> obj) { return obj != null && Equals(obj.Id, default(TId)); } private Type GetUnproxiedType() { return GetType(); } public virtual bool Equals(Entity<TId> other) { if (other == null) return false; if (ReferenceEquals(this, other)) return true; if (!IsTransient(this) && !IsTransient(other) && Equals(Id, other.Id)) { var otherType = other.GetUnproxiedType(); var thisType = GetUnproxiedType(); return thisType.IsAssignableFrom(otherType) || otherType.IsAssignableFrom(thisType); } return false; } public override int GetHashCode() { if (Equals(Id, default(TId))) return base.GetHashCode(); return Id.GetHashCode(); } } I tried using an online converter but puts a Nothing reference in place of default(TId) that doesn't seem right to me that's why I request for help: Private Shared Function IsTransient(obj As Entity(Of TId)) As Boolean Return obj IsNot Nothing AndAlso Equals(obj.Id, Nothing) End Function I Would appreciate the insight you may give me on the subject.

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  • howto catch jQuery for multiple links but not all

    - by user247245
    I'm trying to dig into jQuery but would like some feedback on how to do things the best way, I have a list with items, which each contains a hidden div that should show upon click on it's parent, list div:ed item1 with link hidden div div:ed item2 with link hidden div .. My current solution is to trace the calling link by it's id and then reusing that ID for showing the correct hidden one: $(document).ready(function() { //jQ should only trigger on links with id="cmLinkINT" $("a").click(function() { //see if it's a comment request. var s = $(this).attr("id"); if (s.indexOf('cmLink') != -1) { //ok, it was a 'show'-link, get the id.. var j = s.substring(6); //ok, now I have the id i want to show (detailsINT) return false; } }); }); What's not clear to me is the best approach, Should I use id for requesting a or trace the id of the parent div. How to avoid that the code triggers on any link? Class? Thankful for any feedback, regards //t

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  • f:ajax not working on tomcat7/eclipse

    - by mntgoat
    I have this very simple code which works fine until I add a f:ajax tag. Code that works: <h:commandButton disabled="#{!feature.available}" class="featureButton" value="#{feature.selected ? 'selected': feature.available? 'available':'unavailable'} " style="vertical-align: top;" action="#{Bean.toggleFeature(feature)}"> </h:commandButton> Code that doesn't work: <h:commandButton disabled="#{!feature.available}" class="featureButton" value="#{feature.selected ? 'selected': feature.available? 'available':'unavailable'} " style="vertical-align: top;" action="#{Bean.toggleFeature(feature)}"> <f:ajax event="click" /> </h:commandButton> As far as I can tell the jsf.js file is loaded fine, this is automatically added by the facelet servlet to the head of my rendered document <script type="text/javascript" src="/www/javax.faces.resource/jsf.js.xhtml?ln=javax.faces"></script> and I was even able to do a jsf.ajax.request directly from javascript and got the page to rerender something. I am using mojarra 2.1.13, tomcat 7, eclipse juno, java 7. Any thoughts on what I might be doing wrong or how I might be able to troubleshoot this issue? debugging it in javascript didn't help at all. Thanks.

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  • Django Save Incomplete Progress on Form

    - by jimbob
    I have a django webapp with multiple users logging in and fill in a form. Some users may start filling in a form and lack some required data (e.g., a grant #) needed to validate the form (and before we can start working on it). I want them to be able to fill out the form and have an option to save the partial info (so another day they can log back in and complete it) or submit the full info undergoing validation. Currently I'm using ModelForm for all the forms I use, and the Model has constraints to ensure valid data (e.g., the grant # has to be unique). However, I want them to be able to save this intermediary data without undergoing any validation. The solution I've thought of seems rather inelegant and un-django-ey: create a "Save Partial Form" button that saves the POST dictionary converts it to a shelf file and create a "SavedPartialForm" model connecting the user to partial forms saved in the shelf. Does this seem sensible? Is there a better way to save the POST dict directly into the db? Or is an add-on module that does this partial-save of a form (which seems to be a fairly common activity with webforms)? My biggest concern with my method is I want to eventually be able to do this form-autosave automatically (say every 10 minutes) in some ajax/jquery method without actually pressing a button and sending the POST request (e.g., so the user isn't redirected off the page when autosave is triggered). I'm not that familiar with jquery and am wondering if it would be possible to do this.

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  • Fetch multiple rows from SQL in PHP foreach item in array

    - by TrySpace
    I try to request an array of IDs, to return each row with that ID, and push each into an Array $finalArray But only the first result from the Query will output, and at the second foreach, it skips the while loop. I have this working in another script, so I don't understand where it's going wrong. The $arrayItems is an array containing: "home, info" $finalArray = array(); foreach ($arrayItems as $UID_get) { $Query = "SELECT * FROM items WHERE (uid = '" . cleanQuery($UID_get) . "' ) ORDER BY uid"; if($Result = $mysqli->query($Query)) { print_r($UID_get); echo "<BR><-><BR>"; while ($Row = $Result->fetch_assoc()) { array_push($finalArray , $Row); print_r($finalArray ); echo "<BR><><BR>"; } } else { echo '{ "returned" : "FAIL" }'; //. mysqli_connect_errno() . ' ' . mysqli_connect_error() . "<BR>"; } } (the cleanQuery is to escape and stripslashes) What I'm trying to get is an array of multiple rows (after i json_encoded it, like: {"finalArray" : { "home": {"id":"1","created":"0000-00-00 00:00:00","css":"{ \"background-color\" : \"red\" }"} }, { "info": {"id":"2","created":"0000-00-00 00:00:00","css":"{ \"background-color\" : \"blue\" }"} } } But that's after I get both, or more results from the db. the print_r($UID_get); does print info, but then nothing.. So, why am I not getting the second row from info? I am essentially re-querying foreach $arrayItem right?

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  • Django: How to override a related sets "add" method?

    - by MB_
    I am working on a django project and i want to send a signal when something get's added to some models related set, e.g. we have an owner wo has a set of collectables and each time the method owner.collectable_set.add(something) is getting called i want signal like "collectable_added" or something. signals are clear to me, but in which manager(?) the "add" method sits that i want to override is unclear to me. edit: Upon the request of Xaver to provide more details. You can easily override a models "save" method, by simply defining it and calling the super-"save" so it get's properly saved with some extra functionality for example. But i wonder where to override a related sets "add" method. gosh, i think i haven't brought in any further details. but i think it even should be clear what i want to do from the first paragraph. edit2: This is the method i want to override. Is it recommended to do so or do you suggest another way to place the sending of the signal?

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  • Laravel check if id exists?

    - by devt204
    I've two columns in contents tables 1. id 2. content now this is what i'm trying to do Route::post('save', function() { $editor_content=Input::get('editor_content'); $rules = array('editor_content' => 'required'); $validator= Validator::make(Input::all(), $rules); if($validator->passes()) { //1. check if id is submitted? //2. if id exists update content table //3. else insert new content //create new instance $content= new Content; // insert the content to content column $content->content = $editor_content; //save the content $content->save(); // check if content has id $id=$content->id; return Response::json(array('success' => 'sucessfully saved', 'id' => $id)); } if($validator->fails()) { return $validator->messages() ; } }); i wanted to check if id has been already submit or checked i'm processing the request via ajax, and if id exists i wanted update the content column and if it doesn't i wanted to create new instance how do i do it ?

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  • CakePHP dropping session between pages

    - by DavidYell
    Hi, I have an application with multiple regions and various incoming links. The premise, well it worked before, is that in the app_controller, I break out these incoming links and set them in the session. So I have a huge beforeFilter() in my *app_controller* which catches these and sets two variables in the session. Viewing.region and Search.engine, no problem. The problem arises that the session does not seem to be persistant across page requests. So for example, going to /reviews/write (userReviews/add) should have a session available which was set when the user arrived at the site. Although it seems to have vanished! It would appear that unless $this-params is caught explicitly in the *app_controller* and a session variable written, it does not exist on other pages. So far I have tried, swapping between storing session in 'cake' and 'php' both seem to exhibit the same behaviour. I use 'php' as a default. My Session.timeout is '120', Session.checkAgent is False and Security.level is 'low'. All of which should give enough leniency to the framework to allow sessions the most room to live! I'm a bit stumped as to why the session seems to be either recreated or blanked when a new page is being requested. I have commented out the requestAction() calls to make sure that isn't confusing the session request object also, which doesn't seem to make a difference. Any help would be great, as I don't have to have to recode the site to pass all the various variables via parameters in the url, as that would suck, and it's worked before, thus switching on $this-Session-read('Viewing.region') in all my code!

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  • Grails - ElasticSearch - QueryParsingException[[index] No query registered for [query]]; with elasticSearchHelper; JSON via curl works fine though

    - by v1p
    I have been working on a Grails project, clubbed with ElasticSearch ( v 20.6 ), with a custom build of elasticsearch-grails-plugin(to support geo_point indexing : v.20.6) have been trying to do a filtered Search, while using script_fields (to calculate distance). Following is Closure & the generated JSON from the GXContentBuilder : Closure records = Domain.search(searchType:'dfs_query_and_fetch'){ query { filtered = { query = { if(queryTxt){ query_string(query: queryTxt) }else{ match_all {} } } filter = { geo_distance = { distance = "${userDistance}km" "location"{ lat = latlon[0]?:0.00 lon = latlon[1]?:0.00 } } } } } script_fields = { distance = { script = "doc['location'].arcDistanceInKm($latlon)" } } fields = ["_source"] } GXContentBuilder generated query JSON : { "query": { "filtered": { "query": { "match_all": {} }, "filter": { "geo_distance": { "distance": "5km", "location": { "lat": "37.752258", "lon": "-121.949886" } } } } }, "script_fields": { "distance": { "script": "doc['location'].arcDistanceInKm(37.752258, -121.949886)" } }, "fields": ["_source"] } The JSON query, using curl-way, works perfectly fine. But when I try to execute it from Groovy Code, I mean with this : elasticSearchHelper.withElasticSearch { Client client -> def response = client.search(request).actionGet() } It throws following error : Failed to execute phase [dfs], total failure; shardFailures {[1][index][3]: SearchParseException[[index][3]: from[0],size[60]: Parse Failure [Failed to parse source [{"from":0,"size":60,"query_binary":"eyJxdWVyeSI6eyJmaWx0ZXJlZCI6eyJxdWVyeSI6eyJtYXRjaF9hbGwiOnt9fSwiZmlsdGVyIjp7Imdlb19kaXN0YW5jZSI6eyJkaXN0YW5jZSI6IjVrbSIsImNvbXBhbnkuYWRkcmVzcy5sb2NhdGlvbiI6eyJsYXQiOiIzNy43NTIyNTgiLCJsb24iOiItMTIxLjk0OTg4NiJ9fX19fSwic2NyaXB0X2ZpZWxkcyI6eyJkaXN0YW5jZSI6eyJzY3JpcHQiOiJkb2NbJ2NvbXBhbnkuYWRkcmVzcy5sb2NhdGlvbiddLmFyY0Rpc3RhbmNlSW5LbSgzNy43NTIyNTgsIC0xMjEuOTQ5ODg2KSJ9fSwiZmllbGRzIjpbIl9zb3VyY2UiXX0=","explain":true}]]]; nested: QueryParsingException[[index] No query registered for [query]]; } The above Closure works if I only use filtered = { ... } script_fields = { ... } but it doesn't return the calculated distance. Anyone had any similar problem ? Thanks in advance :) It's possible that I might have been dim to point out the obvious here :P

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  • Reordering columns (fields) in a ADO Recordset

    - by Sukotto
    I have a classic asp webpage written in vbscript that outputs the results from a third-party stored procedure. My user wants the page to display the columns of data in a different order than they come in from the database. Is there an easy and safe way to re-order the columns in an ADO recordset? I did not write this page and cannot change the SP. What is the minimum change I can make here to get the job done and not risk screwing up all the other stuff in the page? The code looks something like dim Conn, strSQL, RS Set Conn = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Conn.Open ServerName Set strSQL = "EXEC storedProc @foo = " & Request("fooParam") 'This stored procedure returns a date column, an arbitrary ' ' number of data columns, and two summation columns. We ' ' want the two summation columns to move so they appear ' ' immediately after the data column ' Set RS = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.RecordSet") RS.ActiveConnection = Nothing RS.CursorLocation = adUseClient RS.CursorType = adOpenStatic RS.LockType = adLockBatchOptimistic RS.Open strSQL, Conn, adOpenDynamic, adLockOptimistic dim A ' ----- ' ' Insert some code here to move the columns of the RS around ' ' to suit the whim of my user ' ' ----- ' ' Several blocks of code that iterate over the RS and display it various ways ' RS.MoveFirst For A = 0 To RS.Fields.Count -1 ' do stuff ' Next ... RS.MoveFirst For A = 0 To RS.Fields.Count -1 ' do more stuff ' Next RS.Close : Set RS = Nothing Conn.Close : Set Conn = Nothing

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  • how can i make sure to get the server response correctly when i invoke the server with QNetworkReque

    - by noname
    I wrote the server site call in Qt, but i haven't get the server response for every server invoking. I have to use the server reply to continue the program flow. The request is correctly reached to server and server do reply.The server is also on my machine. Here is the code how i make the server site call; QNetworkAccessManager nam1 = new QNetworkAccessManager(this); qnetmg=nam1; QObject::connect(nam1, SIGNAL(finished(QNetworkReply*)),this,SLOT(finishedGettingMarker(QNetworkReply*))); QString strurl="http://localhost:8080/ServerWeb"; QUrl url(strurl); QNetworkRequest preq(url); QNetworkReply* reply = nam1->get(preq); qreply=reply; Inside finisedGettingMarker slot, i have already eliminate for QNetworkReply-error case and i used one global variable for QNetworkAccessManager;"qnetmg" and one global variable for QNetworkReply;"qreply". And also i make qnetmg.disconnect(this,0); and qreply.abort(); inside that slot method. But the problem is i haven't got the response for every server invoking time. If anyone who know the way to solve it , please reply me. This situation happened only in Opera. Thanks in advance.

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  • How to reset keyboard for an entry field?

    - by David.Chu.ca
    I am using tag field as a flag for text fields text view fields for auto-jumping to the next field: - (BOOL)findNextEntryFieldAsResponder:(UIControl *)field { BOOL retVal = NO; for (UIView* aView in mEntryFields) { if (aView.tag == (field.tag + 1)) { [aView becomeFirstResponder]; retVal = YES; break; } } return retVal; } It works fine in terms of auto-jumping to the next field when Next key is pressed. However, my case is that the keyboards are different some fields. For example, one fields is numeric & punctuation, and the next one is default (alphabetic keys). For the numeric & punctuation keyboard is OK, but the next field will stay as the same layout. It requires user to press 123 to go back ABC keyboard. I am not sure if there is any way to reset the keyboard for a field as its keyboard defined in xib? Not sure if there is any APIs available? I guess I have to do something is the following delegate? -(void)textFieldDidBegingEditing:(UITextField*) textField { // reset to the keyboard to request specific keyboard view? .... } OK. I found a solution close to my case by slatvik: -(void) textFieldDidBeginEditing:(UITextField*) textField { textField.keyboardType = UIKeybardTypeAlphabet; } However, in the case of the previous text fields is numeric, the keyboard stays numeric when auto-jumped to the next field. Is there any way to set keyboard to alphabet mode?

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  • PHP 5.3 and interface \ArrayAccess

    - by Jakub Lédl
    I'm now working on a project and I have one class that implements the ArrayAccess interface. Howewer, I'm getting an error that says that my implementation: must be compatible with that of ArrayAccess::offsetSet(). My implementation looks like this: public function offsetSet($offset, $value) { if (!is_string($offset)) { throw new \LogicException("..."); } $this->params[$offset] = $value; } So, to me it looks like my implementation is correct. Any idea what is wrong? Thanks very much! The class look like this: class HttpRequest implements \ArrayAccess { // tons of private variables, methods for working // with current http request etc. Really nothing that // could interfere with that interface. // ArrayAccess implementation public function offsetExists($offset) { return isset ($this->params[$offset]); } public function offsetGet($offset) { return isset ($this->params[$offset]) ? $this->params[$offset] : NULL; } public function offsetSet($offset, $value) { if (!is_string($offset)) { throw new \LogicException("You can only assing to params using specified key."); } $this->params[$offset] = $value; } public function offsetUnset($offset) { unset ($this->params[$offset]); } }

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  • Need help mocking a ASP.NET Controller in RhinoMocks

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I'm trying to mock up a fake ASP.NET Controller. I don't have any concrete controllers, so I was hoping to just mock a Controller and it will work. This is what I have, currently. _fakeRequestBase = MockRepository.GenerateMock<HttpRequestBase>(); _fakeRequestBase.Stub(x => x.HttpMethod).Return("GET"); _fakeContextBase = MockRepository.GenerateMock<HttpContextBase>(); _fakeContextBase.Stub(x => x.Request).Return(_fakeRequestBase); var controllerContext = new ControllerContext(_fakeContextBase, new RouteData(), MockRepository.GenerateMock<ControllerBase>()); _fakeController = MockRepository.GenerateMock<Controller>(); _fakeController.Stub(x => x.ControllerContext).Return(controllerContext); Everything works except the last line, which throws a runtime error and is asking me for some Rhino.Mocks source code or something (which I don't have). See how I'm trying to mock up an abstract Controller - is that allowed? Can someone help me?

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