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  • autoreload webpage on new release

    - by user3726562
    I have a website in PHP which is completely ajax-based. There is an index.php, but a part from it, all the other page are never rendered directly into the browser. Instead, all the post and get request are done tfrom javascript through ajax. So basically, if you go to /contact.php you will not see anything. All the pages are rendered inside index.php. So, there are a lot of people that use this page that are not very good in using the web. Asking them to "refresh" the page makes them to wonder what we are talking about. Unfortunately. The biggest issue happens when we do a new release. Especially the javascript code (but not only) can be the old one in a client's webpage as they maybe havent refreshed the page for some week (lol). S I do an svn-update and the new code is on the server. I just refresh my page and see the new features. However, the poor guys that dont really know how to make a refresh, will not see anything. I have added a big button on the page with the text "refresh". Which makes a location.reload. Hopefully this can help a few of them. But my question is: how to "force" the browser to reload itself when a new svn-version has been released? Hopefully in a simple way, without needing some node.js, javascript timer or stuff like that. It is also quite important to not refresh the page when the user is doing something with the page (maybe writing a mail in the UI, and then suddenly the page get refreshed: not so good).

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  • Context.Items.Add on an XML return type?

    - by Scott Schluer
    So I have the following code contained within an HttpModule in an application I've been asked to support: app.Context.Response.ContentType = "text/xml"; app.Context.Items.Add("IpixRoomId", ipixRoomId); app.Context.Items.Add("IpixId", ipixId); app.Context.Response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.NoCache); app.Context.RewritePath(rewriteUrl, true); What's the purpose of adding data to Context.Items when the content type is XML? EDIT: For clarification, I'm calling up this URL: http://website.com/virtualtour/1971/6284/panorama2flash.swf I assume the SWF file (I know very little about Flash) makes another call to http://website.com/virtualtour/config.xml. The code I pasted above only executes on calls to config.xml. So since it's only the SWF file and config.xml being requested from the server, I'm a little confused. Can the .SWF file have access to HttpContext.Current.Items? Other than the HttpModule, there is no .NET involved in the code, it's a straight request to the SWF file which triggers a call to config.xml but it seems that those Context.Items contain the data needed to make the SWF file display the right virtual tour. I'm just missing where that link happens. It can't happen in the XML, so maybe in Flash?

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  • What access token should i use?

    - by user548458
    I made a posting scores. It worked normaly sometimes. But, now I cant post any score. If I use user accessToken: string path = meID + "/scores"; var parameters = new Dictionary<string, object> (){ { "score", score.ToString () }, { "access_token", accessToken } }; facebook.post (path, parameters, ( error, obj ) => I get error: {"error":{"message":"(#15) This method must be called with an app access_token.", "type":"OAuthException", "code":15}} If I use an app access token: string path = meID + "/scores"; var parameters = new Dictionary<string, object> () { { "score", score.ToString () }, { "access_token", appAccessToken } }; facebook.post (path, parameters, ( error, obj ) => I get other error: {"error":{"message":"A user access token is required to request this resource.", "type":"OAuthException", "code":102}} Help me please, what am i doing wrong? PS: I worked well recently, but now - dont. Cant explain it...

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  • Persistent Objects in ASP.NET

    - by user204588
    Hello, I'm trying to find the best way to persist an object or in use the same object at a later point in the code. So, I create an object, then you're redirected to another page(a form) that needs to use variables from that object. That form is submitted to a third party and there is stuff done on their end and then they request a page on my application that runs some more code and needs the objects variables again. I thought about Database but this is all done at once. This is done during a user checkout process and after it's over, there's no reason to retrieve this object again. So adding and retrieving from a database seems like it would be overkill and I think it would make the process slower. Right now I'm using Session but I keep hearing not to use that but no one is really saying why I shouldn't except it is bad practice. I can't really use post back values because the pages don't work that way. The checkout process starts off in a dll code that redirects to the form that is submitted to the third party and the a page is requested by the third party. So, I'm not really sure of the best way. What are all the options and what does everyone recommend as the best way?

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  • Cross domain iframe content load detection

    - by fpb
    I have a rather interesting problem. I have a parent page that will create a modal jquery dialog with an iframe contained within the dialog. The iframe will be populated with content from a 3rd party domain. My issue is that I need to create some dialog level javascript that can detect if the content of the iframe loaded successfully and if it hasn't within a 5 second time frame, then to close the dialog and return the user to the parent page. I have researched numerous solutions and only two are of any true value. Get the remote site to include a javascript line of document.domain = 'our-domain.com'. Use a URL Fragment hack, but again I would need the request that the remote site able to modify the URL by appending '#some_value' to the end of the URL and my dialog window would have to poll the URL until it either sees it or times out. Are these honestly the only options I have to work with? Is there not a simpler way to just detect this? I have been researching if there's a way to poll for http response errors, but this still remains confined to the same restrictions. Any help would be immensely appreciated. Thanks

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  • Getting rejected value null spring validation

    - by Shabarinath
    Hi in my project when I am trying to validate my form its not showing any error messages even if validation fails (Event Form is not submitted and enters into validation fail block) Here is my code /****************** Post Method *************/ @RequestMapping(value="/property", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String saveOrUpdateProperty(@ModelAttribute("property") Property property, BindingResult result, Model model, HttpServletRequest request) throws Exception { try { if(validateFormData(property, result)) { model.addAttribute("property", new Property()); return "property/postProperty"; } } /********* Validate Block *************/ private boolean validateFormData(Property property, BindingResult result) throws DaoException { if (property.getPropertyType() == null || property.getPropertyType().equals("")) { result.rejectValue("propertyType", "Cannot Be Empty !", "Cannot Be Empty !"); } if (property.getTitle() == null || property.getTitle().equals("")) { result.rejectValue("title", "Cannot Be Empty !", "Cannot Be Empty !"); } return (result.hasFieldErrors() || result.hasErrors()); } But when i debug i can see below one org.springframework.validation.BeanPropertyBindingResult: 1 errors Field error in object 'property' on field 'title': rejected value [null]; codes [Cannot Be Empty !.property.title,Cannot Be Empty !.title,Cannot Be Empty !.java.lang.String,Cannot Be Empty !]; arguments []; default message [Cannot Be Empty !] and this is how i am displaying in jsp file <div class="control-group"> <div class="controls"> <label class="control-label"><span class="required">* </span>Property Type</label> <div class="controls"> <form:input path="title" placeholder="Pin Code" cssClass="form-control border-radius-4 textField"/> <form:errors path="title" style="color:red;"/> </div> </div> </div> Event though when i see the below one when i debug (1 Error its correct) org.springframework.validation.BeanPropertyBindingResult: 1 errors Why it is not displayed in jsp can any one hep me?

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  • Does Spring MVC form submit data bind children objects automagically?

    - by predhme
    I have a data model that is something like this: public class Report { // report owner private User user; ... typical getter setter ... } public class User { ... omitted for clarity } What happens is when a report is created, the current user is set to the report user object. When the report is edited, the spring controller handling the POST request is receiving a report where the user object is null. Here is what my controller looks like: @Controller @RequestMapping("/report") public class ReportController { @RequestMapping(value = "/edit/{id}", method = RequestMethod.GET) public String editReport(@PathVariable Long id, Model model) { Report r = backend.getReport(id); // fully loads object model.addAttribute("report", report); return "report/edit"; } @RequestMapping(value = "/edit/{id}", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String process(@ModelAttribute("report") Report r) { backend.save(r); return "redirect:/report/show" + r.getId(); } } I ran things throw the debugger and it looks like in the editReport method the model object is storing the fully loaded report object (I can see the user inside the report). On the form jsp I can do the following: ${report.user.username} and the correct result is rendered. However, when I look at the debugger in the process method, the passed in Report r has a null user. I don't need to do any special data binding to ensure that information is retained do I?

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  • Spring MVC - Set an actionURL parameter with Javascript

    - by jeffl8n
    Is it possible to dynamically set a Spring MVC portlet:actionURL portlet:param using javascript? I have tried with the following code, but the id value always comes across as null to the controller. I have verified that setting the portlet:param manually passes the value correctly: <portlet:param name="id" value="2" /> I have also verified the value in the javascript is being set correctly and is not null. (Note: I've changed the variable names, etc. from the original code to simplify it and obfuscate it since it is my employer's code.) JSP: <portlet:actionURL var="modifyURL"> <portlet:param name="do" value="modify" /> <portlet:param name="id" value="${model.id}" /> </portlet:actionURL> ... <form:form action="${modifyURL}" id="modifyForm" modelAttribute="model"> <form:hidden path="id" id="id" /> </form:form> Javascript called when the update URL is clicked: function update() { document.forms[0]["id"].value = selectedId; document.forms[0].submit(); } Controller: @RequestMapping(params = {"do=modify"}) public void modify(@ModelAttribute("model") Model model, @RequestParam(value = "id", required=true) Long id, ActionRequest request, ActionResponse response, SessionStatus sessionStatus, ModelMap modelMap) { ....

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  • Issue with ko.observableArray

    - by user1574860
    I am using Knockout plugin. The following is my code. In this i am making getting the ceremony list from the server and then save that list in the array. But the problem is in IniitialCallForCeremonies(). The array is not initializing with the returned array from IniitialCallForCeremonies() function. function CeremonyViewModel() { var self = this; self.Ceremonies = ko.observableArray(InitialCallForCeremonies()); } $(document).ready(function () { ko.applyBindings(new CeremonyViewModel()); }); function InitialCallForCeremonies() { var request = $.ajax({ url: "address", type: "GET", async: false, dataType: "JSON" }).success(function (data) { var tempArray = new Array(); $.each(data, function (index, value) { tempArray.push(new Ceremony(value)); }); return tempArray; }); } function Ceremony(val) { this.Id = val.Id; this.Event = val.Event; this.Date = val.Date; this.Guest = val.Guest; }

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  • How to add "missing" columns in a column group in reporting services?

    - by Gimly
    Hello, I'm trying to create a report that displays for each months of the year the quantity of goods sold. I have a query that returns the list of goods sold for each month, it looks something like this : SELECT Seller.FirstName, Seller.LastName, SellingHistory.Month, SUM(SellingHistory.QuantitySold) FROM SellingHistory JOIN Seller on SellingHistory.SellerId = Seller.SellerId WHERE SellingHistory.Year = @Year GOUP BY Seller.FirstName, Seller.LastName, SellingHistory.Month What I want to do is display a report that has a column for each months + a total column that will display for each Seller the quantity sold in the selected month. Seller Name | Jan | Feb | Mar | Apr | May | Jun | Jul | Aug | Sep | Oct | Nov | Dec | Total What I managed to do is using a matrix and a column group (group on Month) to display the columns for existing data, if I have data from January to March, it will display the 3 first columns and the total. What I would like to do is always display all the columns. I thought about making that by adding the missing months in the SQL request, but I find that a bit weird and I'm sure there must be some "cleanest" solution as this is something that must be quite frequent. Thanks. PS: I'm using SQL Server Express 2008

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  • Java giving incorrect year values

    - by whistler
    Something very, very strange is occurring in my program, and I'm wondering if anyone out there has seen this occur before. And, if so, how to fix it. Basically, I am parsing an csv file...no problem there. One column contains a date and I am taking it in as a String and changing to a Date object. Again, no problem there. The code is as follows: SimpleDateFormat dateFormat = new SimpleDateFormat("MM/dd/yy hh:mm"); Date initialDate = new Date(); try { initialDate = dateFormat.parse(rows.get(0)[8]); System.out.println(initialDate); } catch (ParseException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } Of course, I'm parsing other columns as well (and those are working fine). So, when I run my program for a small csv file (2.8 MB), the dates come out (i.e. are parsed) perfectly. However, when I run the program for a large csv file (25 MB), the dates are a hot mess. For example, take a look at the year values I am getting (the following is just a tiny portion of the println output from the code above): 1000264 at Sun Nov 05 15:30:00 EST 2186 1000320 at Sat Mar 04 17:30:00 EST 2169 1000347 at Sat Apr 01 09:45:00 EDT 2169 1000413 at Tue Jul 09 13:00:00 EDT 2182 1000638 at Fri Dec 11 13:45:00 EST 2167 1000667 at Wed Dec 10 10:00:00 EST 2188 1000690 at Mon Jan 02 13:00:00 EST 2169 1000843 at Thu Feb 11 13:30:00 EST 2196 In actuality, the years are in the realm of 1990-2006 or so. Again, this does not happen with the small csv file. Does anyone know what's going on here and how I can fix it? I need to process the large csv file (the small one was just for testing purposes). By request, here are the actual dates in the csv file and after that the value given by the code above: 5/20/03 15:30 5/20/03 15:30 8/30/04 9:00 8/30/04 9:00 12/20/04 10:30 12/20/04 10:30 Sun Nov 05 15:30:00 EST 2186 Sun Nov 05 15:30:00 EST 2186 Sun Nov 05 15:30:00 EST 2186 Thu Dec 08 09:00:00 EST 2196 Tue Dec 12 10:30:00 EST 2186 Tue Dec 12 10:30:00 EST 2186

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  • How do I parse data received in a memorystream?

    - by Kerberos42
    I'm new to using sockets. I have a very basic client that sends a request, and waits for a response. The response is one stream, but has two parts. The first part is prefixed with ANS and is a set of key/value pairs in this form: KEY:Value with each pair on a separate line. The second part of the response is prefixed by RCT and this is pre-formatted text that needs to be send directly to a printer. So what would be the best way to extract both parts of the response, and in the first part, get each Key:Value pair. I might not even need them all, but I have to look at each one to see what the values are then decide what to do with it. I'm currently writing the response out to a textbox just to understand what its doing, but now I need to actually do something with the data. Here's a data sample, as it is received: ANS Result: Data Received RCPRES:Q[81] TML:123 OPP: MRR:000000999999 <several dozen more KEY:Value pairs> RCTNov 05 2013 04:03 pm Trans# 123456 <pre-formatted text>

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  • Why would 1.000 subforms in a db be a bad idea?

    - by KlaymenDK
    Warm-up I'm trying to come up with a good way to implement customized document forms. It's for a tool to request access to applications; each application will want to ask its own specific questions. The thing is, we have one kind of (common) user who needs to fill in and submit documents based on templates, and another kind of (super) user who needs to be able to define what each template needs to contain. One implementation option would be to use a form (with the basic mandatory stuff), and have that form dynamically include a subform appropriate to the specific task at hand. The gist of the matter is that we could (=will!) quite easily end up having many hundreds of different subforms! (NB. These subforms will be maintained in an automated manner, but that is another topic that may be considered outside the scope of this Question.) Question It's common knowledge that having a lot of views in a Notes database is Bad Thing. But has anyone tried pushing the number of forms or subforms and made any experiences regarding performance?

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  • Redirect To Another Site With Header Information Attached Javascript

    - by Nick LaMarca
    I am trying to make a client side click and redirect to another site with header information added, my client side code for the onclick is this: function selectApp(appGUID, userId ,embedUrl) { if(embedUrl==="") { var success = setAppGUID(appGUID); window.location.replace('AppDetail.aspx'); } else { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: embedUrl, contentType: "text/html", beforeSend: function (xhr, settings) { xhr.setRequestHeader("UserId", userId); }, success: function (msg) { //go to slx window.location.replace(embedUrl); } }); } } And the server side code in "embedUrl" is protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string isSet = (String)HttpContext.Current.Session["saveUserID"]; if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(isSet)) { NameValueCollection headers = base.Request.Headers; for (int i = 0; i < headers.Count; i++) { if (headers.GetKey(i).Equals("UserId")) { HttpContext.Current.Session["saveUserID"] = headers.Get(i); } } } else { TextBox1.Text = HttpContext.Current.Session["saveUserID"].ToString(); } } This seems to work but its not too elegant. Is there a way to redirect with header data? Without (what Im doing) Saving header info in a session var then doing a redirect in 2 seperate pieces.

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  • how to call a js function from loaded jquery

    - by Y.G.J
    the function is in the page loading the ajax but i'm trying to call the function codes: [ajax] $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "loginpersonal.asp", data: "id=<%=request("id")%>", beforeSend: function() { $("#personaltab").hide(); }, success: function(msg){ $("#personaltab").empty().append(msg); }, complete: function() { $("#personaltab").slideDown(); }, error: function() { $("#personaltab").append("error").slideDown(); } }); [the js function] function GetCount(t){ if(t>0) { total = t } else { total -=1; } amount=total; if(amount < 0){ startpersonalbid(); } else{ days=0;hours=0;mins=0;secs=0;out=""; days=Math.floor(amount/86400);//days amount=amount%86400; hours=Math.floor(amount/3600);//hours amount=amount%3600; mins=Math.floor(amount/60);//minutes amount=amount%60; secs=Math.floor(amount);//seconds if(days != 0){out += days +":";} if(days != 0 || hours != 0){out += hours +":";} if(days != 0 || hours != 0 || mins != 0){out += ((mins>=10)?mins:"0"+mins) +":";} out += ((secs>=10)?secs:"0"+secs) ; document.getElementById('countbox').innerHTML=out; setTimeout("GetCount()", 1000); } } window.onload=function(){ GetCount(<%= DateDiff("s", Now,privatesellstartdate&" "&privatesellstarttime ) %>); so at the end of the loginpersonal.asp from the ajax... if it does what it suppose to do... i'm trying to call the function GetCount() again.

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  • Weird Rails database errors

    - by Jason Swett
    I've had some trouble getting my Rails app to connect to PostgreSQL so I decided to just say screw it and use SQLite for now. (I'm using the tutorial here: http://guides.rubyonrails.org/getting_started.html) I started a BRAND NEW, fresh Rails app from this tutorial. When I visit my app in the browser after deleting public/index.html, I get this the first time: Please install the pg adapter: `gem install activerecord-pg-adapter` (no such file to load -- active_record/connection_adapters/pg_adapter) That's odd to me because I'm not mentioning PostgreSQL anywhere. Here's my databases.yml: # SQLite version 3.x # gem install sqlite3-ruby (not necessary on OS X Leopard) development: adapter: sqlite3 database: db/development.sqlite3 pool: 5 timeout: 5000 # Warning: The database defined as "test" will be erased and # re-generated from your development database when you run "rake". # Do not set this db to the same as development or production. test: adapter: sqlite3 database: db/test.sqlite3 pool: 5 timeout: 5000 production: adapter: sqlite3 database: db/production.sqlite3 pool: 5 timeout: 5000 To make things more confusing, I only get that "pg adapter" error on the first load. For every subsequent page request, I get this error: ActiveRecord::ConnectionNotEstablished So even though I removed all mention of PostgreSQL, I'm still getting errors. What could be going on?

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  • Using an objects date (without time) for a table header instead of an objects date and time (iphone)

    - by billywilliamton
    I've been working on an iphone project and have run into an issue. Currently In the table view where it displays all the objects, I use headers based on the objects datePerformed field. The only problem is that my code apparently creates a header that contains both the date and time resulting in objects not being grouped solely by their date as I intended, but rather based on their date and time. I'm not sure if it matters, but when an object is created I use a date picker to pick the date, but not the time. I was wondering if anyone could give me any suggestions or advice. Here is the code where i set up the fetchedResultsController - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController { if (fetchedResultsController != nil) { return fetchedResultsController; } // Create and configure a fetch request with the Exercise entity. NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Exercise" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; // Create the sort descriptors array using date and name NSSortDescriptor *dateDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"datePerformed" ascending:NO]; NSSortDescriptor *nameDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"name" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:dateDescriptor, nameDescriptor, nil]; [fetchRequest setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; // Create and initialize the fetch results controller NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:fetchRequest managedObjectContext:managedObjectContext sectionNameKeyPath:@"datePerformed" cacheName:@"Root"]; self.fetchedResultsController = aFetchedResultsController; fetchedResultsController.delegate = self; // Memory management calls [aFetchedResultsController release]; [fetchRequest release]; [dateDescriptor release]; [nameDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; return fetchedResultsController; } Here's where I set up the table header properties - (NSString *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView titleForHeaderInSection:(NSInteger)section { // Display the exercise' date as section headings. return [[[fetchedResultsController sections] objectAtIndex:section] name]; } Any suggestions welcome. Thanks for your time. -Billy Williamton

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  • Is starting to use CDATA a breaking change?

    - by kicsit
    For interaction with a customer's application we use XML documents. That is, we send an XML over HTTP and receive a response XML document the same way. The customer specified two XML schemata that describe the format of both the request and reply. All was working fine, until one day the customer started to use CDATA sections in the response XML. We set up our parser unmindful of CDATA sections, so we failed to interpret them. My question is: Who made a mistake here? I tried to find an answer in the XML standards, but I'm still not sure. I think I cannot prescribe using or not using CDATA's in an XSD, is that right? If so, is it not enough to agree upon an XSD, but a separate agreement has to be made about CDATA sections? Or one is obliged to be prepared to parse CDATA and regular text as well? I'm interested in both your personal views and official statements too. Thank you!

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  • Jquery Block on my document .ready function not working

    - by kumar
    Hello Friens, I have this code, I added JS Script file to my Master page. <script src="/Scripts/Jquery.blockUI.js" type="text/javascript"></script> This Below code I have in my master page.on document.ready <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $.blockUI({ message: $('#question'), css: { width: '275px'} }); }); </script> <div id="question" style="display:none; cursor: default"> <h2 class="padding"><br />An unexpected system error has occurred while processing your request.<br /></h2> <h3>We apologize for this inconvenience.<br /> Please report this error to your system administrator with the following information:<br /><br /> Session id is:</h3> <input type="button" id="OK" value="OK" /> </asp:Content> On my Document.ready Function my BlockUi is not working? can any body tell me why its not working? thanks

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  • getting webpage contents using curl_init not working for some links

    - by Manish
    I am using this code to get contents of a url entered:- class MetaTagParser { public $metadata; private $html; private $url; public function __construct($url) { $this->url=$url; $this->html= $this->file_get_contents_curl(); $this->set_title(); $this->set_meta_properties(); } public function file_get_contents_curl() { $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $this->url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, 1); $data = curl_exec($ch); curl_close($ch); return $data; } public function set_title() { $doc = new DOMDocument(); @$doc->loadHTML($this->html); $nodes = $doc->getElementsByTagName('title'); $this->metadata['title'] = $nodes->item(0)->nodeValue; } this class works for some pages but for some url like this one - http://www.dnaindia.com/india/report_in-a-first-upa-govt-tweets-the-press_1745346 when I try to fetch data I get this error:-"Warning: get_meta_tags(http://www.dnaindia.com/india/report_in-a-first-upa-govt-tweets-the-press_1745346): failed to open stream: HTTP request failed! HTTP/1.1 403 Forbidden in C:\xampp\htdocs\prac\index.php on line 52" it is not working, any ideas why this is happening??

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  • Preserve name of file using cURL to transfer files

    - by Toby
    I'm transferring files from an existing http request using cURL like so... $postargs = array( 'nonfilefield' =>'nonfilevalue', 'fileentry' => '@'.$_FILES['thefile']['tmp_name'][0] ); $ch = curl_init('http://localhost/curl/rec.php'); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_USERAGENT, "Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 5.01; Windows NT 5.0)"); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_POST,TRUE); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS,$postargs); curl_exec($ch); curl_close($ch); The only way I can get this to work is using the tmp_name, without this it won't send. However, I then lose the name value for when I want to name the file later. Is there some way to do this preserving the $_FILES array as it normally would be without curl? I'm also using an array of file fields in my script, so at the moment I have to convert my multidimensional array into a single dimension for this to work

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  • PHP shell_exec() - Run directly, or perform a cron (bash/php) and include MySQL layer?

    - by Jimbo
    Sorry if the title is vague - I wasn't quite sure how to word it! What I'm Doing I'm running a Linux command to output data into a variable, parse the data, and output it as an array. Array values will be displayed on a page using PHP, and this PHP page output is requested via AJAX every 10 seconds so, in effect, the data will be retrieved and displayed/updated every 10 seconds. There could be as many as 10,000 characters being parsed on every request, although this is usually much lower. Alternative Idea I want to know if there is a better* alternative method of retrieving this data every 10 seconds, as multiple users (<10) will be having this command executed automatically for them. A cronjob running on the server could execute either bash or php (which is faster?) to grab the data and store it in a MySQL database. Then, any AJAX calls to the PHP output would return values in the MySQL database rather than making a direct call to execute server code every 10 seconds. Why? I know there are security concerns with running execs directly from PHP, and (I hope this isn't micro-optimisation) I'm worried about CPU usage on the server. The server is running a sempron processor. Yes, they do still exist. Having this only execute when the user is on the page (idea #1) means that the server isn't running code that doesn't need to be run. However, is this slow and insecure? Just in case the type of linux command may be of assistance in determining it's efficiency: shell_exec("transmission-remote $host:$port --auth $username:$password -l"); I'm hoping that there are differences in efficiency and level of security with the two methods I have outlined above, and that this isn't just micro-micro-optimisation. If there are alternative methods that are better*, I'd love to learn about these! :)

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  • POST to a webpage from C# app

    - by markiyanm
    I've been looking/asking around and can't seem to figure this one out. I have a C# application and need to be able to gather some data in the app, pop open a web browser and POST some data to it. I can POST to the site from within the app fine and I can obviously pop open IE to a certain link but I can't do both. I can't POST to that link directly. Any ideas on how to accomplish this? private void btnSubmit_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { ASCIIEncoding encoding = new ASCIIEncoding(); string postData = "Fullname=Test"; byte[] data = encoding.GetBytes(postData); // Prepare web request... HttpWebRequest myRequest = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://www.url.com/Default.aspx"); myRequest.Method = "POST"; myRequest.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; myRequest.ContentLength = data.Length; Stream newStream = myRequest.GetRequestStream(); // Send the data. newStream.Write(data, 0, data.Length); System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(myRequest.Address.ToString()); //open browser newStream.Close(); } Any insight would be greatly appreciated. Thanks

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  • HTTP 401.3 when PUT, DELETE to ADO.NET Data Service (.svc)

    - by Nate
    I have an ADO.NET Data Service (we'll call it service.svc). When I deploy it to an IIS 6 site with Integrated Windows Authentication turned on, all requests (GET, POST, PUT, and DELETE) work fine for me, because I am an administrator on the box. However, when a non-admin user hits the service, only GET and POST requests work. When they try a PUT or DELETE request, they get an HTTP 401.3 "Access is Denied" error: "Error message 401.3: You do not have permission to view this directory or page using the credentials you supplied (access denied due to Access Control Lists). Ask the web server's administrator to give you access to '...\service.svc'." If I give the "Authenticated Users" local group write access to the .svc file, everything works as it should, but I really don't want to do this (and don't think I should have to do this to get this to work). In fact, I'm confused as to why changing the file permissions would affect this at all, but it definitely seems to be the problem. I've found a couple of different suggestions to fix somewhat similar problems in the Microsoft forums (Here, and I would post more links, but am being told that new users can only post one link in a post), but none of the solutions help. Any help is much appreciated. I am certainly no IIS expert, and this one has got me stumped.

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  • Is a web-server (e.g servlets) a good solution for an IM server?

    - by John
    I'm looking at a new app, broadly speaking an IM application with a strong client-server model - all communications go through a server so they can be logged centrally. The server will be Java in some form, clients could at this point be anything from a .NET Desktop app to Flex/Silverlight, to a simple web-interface using JS/AJAX. I had anticipated doing the server using standard J2EE so I get a thread-safe, multi-user server for 'free'... to make things simple let's say using Servlets (but in practice SpringMVC would be likely). This all seemed very neat but I'm concerned if the stateless nature of Servlets is the best approach. If my memory of servlets (been a year or two) is right, each time a client sent a HTTP request, typically a new message entered by the user, the servlet could not assume it had the user/chat in memory and might have to get it from the DB... regardless it has to look it up. Then it either has to use some PUSH system to inform other members of the chat, or cache that there are new messages, for other clients who poll the server using AJAX or similar - and when they poll it again has to lookup the chat, including new messages, and send the new data. I'm wondering if a better system would be the server is running core Java, and implements a socket-based communication with clients. This allows much more immediate data transfer and is more flexible if say the IM client included some game you could play. But then you're writing a custom server and sockets don't sound very friendly to a browser-based client on current browsers. Am I missing some big piece of the puzzle here, it kind of feels like I am? Perhaps a better way to ask the question would simply be "if the client was browser-based using HTML/JS and had to run on IE7+,FF2+ (i.e no HTML5), how would you implement the server?" edit: if you are going to suggest using XMPP, I have been trying to get my head around this in another question, so please consider if that's a more appropriate place to discuss this specifically.

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