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  • Grails - Simple hasMany Problem - How does 'save' work?

    - by gav
    My problem is this: I want to create a grails domain instance, defining the 'Many' instances of another domain that it has. I have the actual source in a Google Code Project but the following should illustrate the problem. class Person { String name static hasMany[skills:Skill] static constraints = { id (visible:false) skills (nullable:false, blank:false) } } class Skill { String name String description static constraints = { id (visible:false) name (nullable:false, blank:false) description (nullable:false, blank:false) } } If you use this model and def scaffold for the two Controllers then you end up with a form like this that doesn't work; My own attempt to get this to work enumerates the Skills as checkboxes and looks like this; But when I save the Volunteer the skills are null! This is the code for my save method; def save = { log.info "Saving: " + params.toString() def skills = params.skills log.info "Skills: " + skills def volunteerInstance = new Volunteer(params) log.info volunteerInstance if (volunteerInstance.save(flush: true)) { flash.message = "${message(code: 'default.created.message', args: [message(code: 'volunteer.label', default: 'Volunteer'), volunteerInstance.id])}" redirect(action: "show", id: volunteerInstance.id) log.info volunteerInstance } else { render(view: "create", model: [volunteerInstance: volunteerInstance]) } } This is my log output (I have custom toString() methods); 2010-05-10 21:06:41,494 [http-8080-3] INFO bumbumtrain.VolunteerController - Saving: ["skills":["1", "2"], "name":"Ian", "_skills":["", ""], "create":"Create", "action":"save", "controller":"volunteer"] 2010-05-10 21:06:41,495 [http-8080-3] INFO bumbumtrain.VolunteerController - Skills: [1, 2] 2010-05-10 21:06:41,508 [http-8080-3] INFO bumbumtrain.VolunteerController - Volunteer[ id: null | Name: Ian | Skills [Skill[ id: 1 | Name: Carpenter ] , Skill[ id: 2 | Name: Sound Engineer ] ]] Note that in the final log line the right Skills have been picked up and are part of the object instance. When the volunteer is saved the 'Skills' are ignored and not commited to the database despite the in memory version created clearly does have the items. Is it not possible to pass the Skills at construction time? There must be a way round this? I need a single form to allow a person to register but I want to normalise the data so that I can add more skills at a later time. If you think this should 'just work' then a link to a working example would be great. Hope this makes sense, thanks in advance! Gav

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  • Javscript closure questions

    - by Shuchun Yang
    While I was reading the book Javascript: The Good Parts. I can not understand the piece of code bellow: We can generalize this by making a function that helps us make memoized functions. The memoizer function will take an initial memo array and the fundamental function. It returns a shell function that manages the memo store and that calls the fundamental function as needed. We pass the shell function and the function's parameters to the fundamental function: var memoizer = function (memo, fundamental) { var shell = function (n) { var result = memo[n]; if (typeof result !== 'number') { result = fundamental(shell, n); memo[n] = result; } return result; }; return shell; }; We can now define fibonacci with the memoizer, providing the initial memo array and fundamental function: var fibonacci = memoizer([0, 1], function (test, n) { return test(n - 1) + test(n - 2); }); My question is what is the test function? When does it get defined and invoked? It seems very confusing to me. Also I think this statement: memo[n] = result; is useless. Please correct if I am wrong.

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  • Does jQuery strip some html elements from a string when using .html()?

    - by Nic Hubbard
    I have a var that contains a full html page, including the head, html, body, etc. When I pass that string into the .html() function, jQuery strips out all those elements, such as body, html, head, etc, which I don't want. My data var contains: <html> <head> <title>Untitled Document</title> </head> <body> </body> </html> // data is a full html document string data = $('<div/>').html(data); // jQuery stips my document string! alert(data.find('head').html()); I am needing to manipulate a full html page string, so that I can return what is in the element. I would like to do this with jQuery, but it seems all of the methods, append(), prepend() and html() all try to convert the string to dom elements, which remove all the other parts of a full html page. Is there another way that I could do this? I would be fine using another method. My final goal is to find certain elements inside my string, so I figured jQuery would be best, since I am so used to it. But, if it is going to trim and remove parts of my string, I am going to have to look for another method. Ideas?

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  • Authenticating to Google Search Appliance using Basic HTTP auth and ASP.NET (VB)

    - by Chainlink
    I've run into a snag though which has to do with authentication between the Google Search Appliance and ASP. Normally, when asking for secure pages from the search appliance, the search appliance asks for credentials, then uses these credentials to try and access the secure results. If this attempt is successful, the page shows up in the results list. Since ASP is contacting the search appliance on the client's behalf, it will need to collect credentials and pass them along to the search appliance. I have tried a couple of different documented ways of accomplishing this, but they don't seem to work. Below is the code I have tried: 'Bypass SSL since discovery.gov.mb.ca does not have valid SSL cert (NOT PRODUCTION SAFE) ServerCertificateValidationCallback = New System.Net.Security.RemoteCertificateValidationCallback(AddressOf customXertificateValidation) googleUrl = "https://removed.com" Dim rdr As New XmlTextReader(googleUrl) Dim resolver As New XmlUrlResolver() Dim myCred As New System.Net.NetworkCredential("USERNAME", "PASSWORD", Nothing) Dim credCache As New CredentialCache() credCache.Add(New Uri(googleUrl), "Basic", myCred) resolver.Credentials = credCache rdr.XmlResolver = resolver doc = New System.Xml.XPath.XPathDocument(rdr) path = doc.CreateNavigator() Private Function customXertificateValidation(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal certificate As System.Security.Cryptography.X509Certificates.X509Certificate, ByVal chain As System.Security.Cryptography.X509Certificates.X509Chain, ByVal sslPolicyErrors As Net.Security.SslPolicyErrors) As Boolean Return True End Function

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  • Asp.Net MVC Tutorial Unit Tests

    - by Nicholas
    I am working through Steve Sanderson's book Pro ASP.NET MVC Framework and I having some issues with two unit tests which produce errors. In the example below it tests the CheckOut ViewResult: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ViewResult CheckOut(Cart cart, FormCollection form) { // Empty carts can't be checked out if (cart.Lines.Count == 0) { ModelState.AddModelError("Cart", "Sorry, your cart is empty!"); return View(); } // Invoke model binding manually if (TryUpdateModel(cart.ShippingDetails, form.ToValueProvider())) { orderSubmitter.SubmitOrder(cart); cart.Clear(); return View("Completed"); } else // Something was invalid return View(); } with the following unit test [Test] public void Submitting_Empty_Shipping_Details_Displays_Default_View_With_Error() { // Arrange CartController controller = new CartController(null, null); Cart cart = new Cart(); cart.AddItem(new Product(), 1); // Act var result = controller.CheckOut(cart, new FormCollection { { "Name", "" } }); // Assert Assert.IsEmpty(result.ViewName); Assert.IsFalse(result.ViewData.ModelState.IsValid); } I have resolved any issues surrounding 'TryUpdateModel' by upgrading to ASP.NET MVC 2 (Release Candidate 2) and the website runs as expected. The associated error messages are: *Tests.CartControllerTests.Submitting_Empty_Shipping_Details_Displays_Default_View_With_Error: System.ArgumentNullException : Value cannot be null. Parameter name: controllerContext* and the more detailed at System.Web.Mvc.ModelValidator..ctor(ModelMetadata metadata, ControllerContext controllerContext) at System.Web.Mvc.DefaultModelBinder.OnModelUpdated(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) at System.Web.Mvc.DefaultModelBinder.BindComplexModel(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) at System.Web.Mvc.Controller.TryUpdateModel[TModel](TModel model, String prefix, String[] includeProperties, String[] excludeProperties, IValueProvider valueProvider) at System.Web.Mvc.Controller.TryUpdateModel[TModel](TModel model, IValueProvider valueProvider) at WebUI.Controllers.CartController.CheckOut(Cart cart, FormCollection form) Has anyone run into a similar issue or indeed got the test to pass?

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  • How do I securely authenticate the calling assembly of a WCF service method?

    - by Tim
    The current situation is as follows: We have an production .net 3.5 WCF service, used by several applications throughout the organization, over wsHttpBinding or netTcpBinding. User authentication is being done on the Transport level, using Windows integrated security. This service has a method Foo(string parameter), which can only be called by members of given AD groups. The string parameter is obligatory. A new client application has come into play (.net 3.5, C# console app), which eliminates the necessity of the string parameter. However, only calls from this particular application should be allowed to omit the string parameter. The identity of the caller of the client application should still be known by the server because the AD group limitation still applies (ruling out impersonation on the client side). I found a way to pass on the "evidence" of the calling (strong-named) assembly in the message headers, but this method is clearly not secure because the "evidence" can easily be spoofed. Also, CAS (code access security) seems like a possible solution, but I can't seem to figure out how to make use of CAS in this particular scenario. Does anyone have a suggestion on how to solve this issue? Edit: I found another thread on this subject; apparently the conclusion there is that it is simply impossible to implement in a secure fashion.

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  • Maintaining session information between 2 asp.net calls programmatically?

    - by Santhosh
    Hi, I'm not sure if I'll be clear enough in my explaination to make you guys understand, but I'll try. Here's my problem: We have an external site which the users in our company connect to by giving their corresponding username and password. The external site is an ASP.NET website. We want to integrate this website into our intranet portal so that the users don't have to enter their UN/Pwd to login to the website. Since the target website has no provision for SSO, we are simulating the POST request to login. So far so good. We are now required to perform an action after the initial login is done, on an another page. We can simulate the corresponding POST request as well. But the problem is since we are not maintaining any session information in our initial POST request, it always redirects to the login screen! Is there any way to maintain ASP.NET session information between multiple calls done programmatically? Can we create an ASP.NET session id cookie programmatically and then pass it along with our initial request? Or this is not possible at all? Any comments are appreciated. Thanks for your help. Regards.

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  • Why doesn't every class in the .Net framework have a corresponding interface?

    - by Thorsten Lorenz
    Since I started to develop in a test/behavior driven style, I appreciated the ability to mock out every dependency. Since mocking frameworks like Moq work best when told to mock an interface, I now implement an interface for almost every class I create b/c most likely I will have to mock it out in a test eventually. Well, and programming to an interface is good practice, anyways. At times, my classes take dependencies on .Net classes (e.g. FileSystemWatcher, DispatcherTimer). It would be great in that case to have an interface, so I could depend on an IDispatcherTimer instead, to be able to pass it a mock and simulate its behavior to see if my system under test reacts correctly. Unfortunately both of above mentioned classes do not implement such interfaces, so I have to resort to creating adapters, that do nothing else but inherit from the original class and conform to an interface, that I then can use. Here is such an adapter for the DispatcherTimer and the corresponding interface: using System; using System.Windows.Threading; public interface IDispatcherTimer { #region Events event EventHandler Tick; #endregion #region Properties Dispatcher Dispatcher { get; } TimeSpan Interval { get; set; } bool IsEnabled { get; set; } object Tag { get; set; } #endregion #region Public Methods void Start(); void Stop(); #endregion } /// <summary> /// Adapts the DispatcherTimer class to implement the <see cref="IDispatcherTimer"/> interface. /// </summary> public class DispatcherTimerAdapter : DispatcherTimer, IDispatcherTimer { } Although this is not the end of the world, I wonder, why the .Net developers didn't take the minute to make their classes implement these interfaces from the get go. It puzzles me especially since now there is a big push for good practices from inside Microsoft. Does anyone have any (maybe inside) information why this contradiction exists?

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  • Previously working emberjs1.0-pre form on jsfiddle returns "error": "Please use POST request"

    - by brg
    This code ** http://jsfiddle.net/wagenet/ACzaJ/8/ ** was working a few days ago, when i returned to it today, it throws {"error": "Please use POST request"}, when i click add button Also the jsfiddle editor.js always throws exception on this line: function stop(){cc = stop; throw StopIteration;}; Does anyone knows the cause of this issue. Many thanks Update 1 Based on @Peter Wagenet's suggestions below, the form now logs entries or inputs to the console but it doesn't display on the result section of jsfiddle instead what is displayed on jsfiddle result section or page is still this error {"error": "Please use POST request"} ** http://jsfiddle.net/ACzaJ/18/ Update 2 In this fiddle, http://jsfiddle.net/ACzaJ/19/, i have successfully eliminated this error {"error": "Please use POST request"} by adding event.preventDefault(); to the submit action in Todos.TodoFormView. That allows us to use arbitrary view methods as action handlers. The existing issue is that the input to the form, only displays on the console and not on jsfiddle result section, though no error displays on the result section, there is a new error appearing in the console of the updated fiddle: Uncaught Error: Cannot perform operations on a Metamorph that is not in the DOM. Finally solved I needed to comment out App.initialize() for it to work as expected. This the working fiddle ** http://jsfiddle.net/ACzaJ/20/. I don't know why that is so, but my guess is that, App.initialize works with other parts like the router for routing, ApplicationController and ApplicationView with {{outlet}} in the handlebars, which i didn't need for this fiddle. Finally Finally and completely solved This ** http://jsfiddle.net/tQWn8/ works with App.initialize. But you have to declare all those components above and pass the router to App.initialize, like this App..initialize(router). If you don't do this, then you will get the old error Uncaught Error: Cannot perform operations on a Metamorph that is not in the DOM.

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  • Passing char * into fopen with C.

    - by Rhys
    Hey there, I'm writing a program that passes data from a file into an array, but I'm having trouble with fopen (). It seems to work fine when I hardcode the file path into the parameters (eg fopen ("data/1.dat", "r");) but when I pass it as a pointer, it returns NULL. Note that line 142 will print "data/1.dat" if entered from command line so parse_args () appears to be working. 132 int 133 main(int argc, char **argv) 134 { 135 FILE *in_file; 136 int *nextItem = (int *) malloc (sizeof (int)); 137 set_t *dictionary; 138 139 /* Parse Arguments */ 140 clo_t *iopts = parse_args(argc, argv); 141 142 printf ("INPUT FILE: %s.\n", iopts->input_file); /* This prints correct path */ 143 /* Initialise dictionary */ 144 dictionary = set_create (SET_INITAL_SIZE); 145 146 /* Use fscanf to read all data values into new set_t */ 147 if ((in_file = fopen (iopts->input_file, "r")) == NULL) 148 { 149 printf ("File not found...\n"); 150 return 0; 151 } Thanks! Rhys

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  • Pattern for sharing data between views (MVP or MVVM)

    - by Dovix
    What is a good pattern for sharing data between related views?. I have an application where 1 form contains many small views, each views behaves independently from each other more or less (they communicate/interact via an event bus). Every so often I need to pass the same objects to the child views. Sometimes I need this same object to be passed to a child view and then the child passes it onto another child itself contains. What is a good approach to sharing this data between all the views contained within the parent form (view) ? I have looked into CAB and their approach and every "view" has a "root work item" this work item has dictionary that contains a shared "state" between the views that are contained. Is this the best approach? just a shared dictionary all the views under a root view can access? My current approach right now is to have a function on the view that allows one to set the object for that view. Something like view.SetCustomer(Customer c); then if the view contains a child view it knows to set it on the child view ala: this.childview1.SetCustomer(c); The application is written in C# 3.5, for winforms using MVP with structure map as a IoC/DI provider.

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  • Multiple Jira instances on a single Tomcat 6 server?

    - by davidhayes
    I have a feeling this is a stupid question but I can't find the answer anywhere... I need to deploy 2 Jira instances on asingle Tomcat server, I can't figure out how to pass in the jira.home property The documentation says I need to:- Add a web context property called 'jira.home' — this property is set in different files depending on your application server. For example, for Tomcat (and therefore for JIRA Standalone), you will need to configure the server.xml file. For other application servers you may need to configure the web.xml file, or set 'Context parameter' options on the deployment UI of the application server, etc. Note that If you have specified a JIRA home in jira-application.properties (ie. the recommended method), it will override your web context property. I was hoping something like this would work. <Context jira.home="d:/jira/data" path="" docBase="D:\Jira\atlassian-jira-enterprise-4.1\dist-tomcat\tomcat-6\atlassian-jira-4.1.war" debug="0"> <Resource name="jdbc/JiraDS" auth="Container" type="javax.sql.DataSource" username="sa" password="*****" driverClassName="net.sourceforge.jtds.jdbc.Driver" url="jdbc:jtds:sqlserver://*****:1433/jira41_519;user=****;password=****" /> <Resource name="UserTransaction" auth="Container" type="javax.transaction.UserTransaction" factory="org.objectweb.jotm.UserTransactionFactory" jotm.timeout="60"/> <Manager pathname=""/> </Context> Any ideas??

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  • C# TCP Async EndReceive() throws InvalidOperationException ONLY on Windows XP 32-bit

    - by James Farmer
    I have a simple C# Async Client using a .NET socket that waits for timed messages from a local Java server used for automating commands. The messages come in asynchronously and is written to a ring buffer. This implementation seems to work fine on Windows Vista/7/8 and OSX, but will randomly throw this exception while it's receiving a message from the local Java server: Unhandled Exception: System.InvalidOperationException: EndReceive can only be called once for each asynchronous operation.     at System.Net.Sockets.Socket.EndReceive(IAsyncResult asyncResult, SocketError& errorCode)     at System.Net.Sockets.Socket.EndReceive(IAsyncResult asyncResult)     at SocketTest.Controller.RecvAsyncCallback(IAsyncResult ar)     at System.Net.LazyAsyncResult.Complete(IntPtr userToken)     ... I've looked online for this error, but have found nothing really helpful. This is the code where it seems to break: /// <summary> /// Callback to receive socket data /// </summary> /// <param name="ar">AsyncResult to pass to End</param> private void RecvAsyncCallback(IAsyncResult ar) { // The exception will randomly happen on this call int bytes = _socket.EndReceive(_recvAsyncResult); // check for connection closed if (bytes == 0) { return; } _ringBuffer.Write(_buffer, 0, bytes); // Checks buffer CheckBuffer(); _recvAsyncResult = _sock.BeginReceive(_buffer, 0, _buffer.Length, SocketFlags.None, RecvAsyncCallback, null); } The error doesn't happen on any particular moment except in the middle of receiving a message. The message itself can be any length for this to happen, and the exception can happen right away, or sometimes even up to a minute of perfect communication. I'm pretty new with sockets and network communication, and I feel I might be missing something here. I've tested on at least 8 different computers, and the only similarity with the computers that throw this exception is that their OS is Windows XP 32-bit.

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  • Extra fulltext ordering criteria beyond default relevance

    - by Jeremy Warne
    I'm implementing an ingredient text search, for adding ingredients to a recipe. I've currently got a full text index on the ingredient name, which is stored in a single text field, like so: "Sauce, tomato, lite, Heinz" I've found that because there are a lot of ingredients with very similar names in the database, simply sorting by relevance doesn't work that well a lot of the time. So, I've found myself sorting by a bunch of my own rules of thumb, which probably duplicates a lot of the full-text search algorithm which spits out a numerical relevance. For instance (abridged): ORDER BY [ingredient name is exactly search term], [ingredient name starts with search term], [ingredient name starts with any word from the search and contains all search terms in some order], [ingredient name contains all search terms in some order], ...and so on. Each of these is defined in the SELECT specification as an expression returning either 1 or 0, and so I order by those in sequential order. I would love to hear suggestions for: A better way to define complicated order-by criteria in one place, say perhaps in a view or stored procedure that you can pass just the search term to and get back a set of results without having to worry about how they're ordered? A better tool for this than MySQL's fulltext engine -- perhaps if I was using Sphinx or something [which I've heard of but not used before], would I find some sort of complicated config option designed to solve problems like this? Some google search terms which might turn up discussion on how to order text items within a specific domain like this? I haven't found much that's of use. Thanks for reading!

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  • VB.Net Custom Object Master-Detail Data Binding

    - by clawson
    Since beginning to use VB.Net some years ago I have become slowly familiar with using the data binding features of .Net, however I often find my self bewildered by it's behavior and instead of discover the correct way it should work I find some dirty work around to suit my needs and continue on. Needless to say my problems continue to arise. I am using Custom Objects as the Data Sources for by controls and often entire forms. I find it frustrating to separate business logic and the graphical interface. (That could be a new question entirely.) So for a lot of objects I generate a form which has the DataBindingSource for the object. When I create each from using the New Constructor I explicitly pass to it the object to which it should be bound, and then set this passed object as the DataSource of the BindingSource. (That's a mouthful!) Now the Master object (say, bound to each form) often contains a List of objects which I like to have displayed in a DataGridView. I (sometimes) create and modify these child objects in their own form (again creating a databind the same way as the master form) but when I add them to the List in the master object the DataGridView won't update with the new items. So my question really has a few layers: How can I easily/efficiently/correctly update this DataGridView with the list of Detail objects when I add them to the list of the Master object. Is this approach to DataBinding good/viable. What's the best way to separate business logic from graphical interface. Thanks for the help!

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  • batch file to merge .js files from subfolders into one combined file

    - by Andrew Johns
    I'm struggling to get this to work. Plenty of examples on the web, but they all do something just slightly different to what I'm aiming to do, and every time I think I can solve it, I get hit by an error that means nothing to me. After giving up on the JSLint.VS plugin, I'm attempting to create a batch file that I can call from a Visual Studio build event, or perhaps from cruise control, which will generate JSLint warnings for a project. The final goal is to get a combined js file that I can pass to jslint, using: cscript jslint.js < tmp.js which would validate that my scripts are ready to be combined into one file for use in a js minifier, or output a bunch of errors using standard output. but the js files that would make up tmp.js are likely to be in multiple subfolders in the project, e.g: D:\_projects\trunk\web\projectname\js\somefile.debug.js D:\_projects\trunk\web\projectname\js\jquery\plugins\jquery.plugin.js The ideal solution would be to be able to call a batch file along the lines of: jslint.bat %ProjectPath% and this would then combine all the js files within the project into one temp js file. This way I would have flexibility in which project was being passed to the batch file. I've been trying to make this work with copy, xcopy, type, and echo, and using a for do loop, with dir /s etc, to make it do what I want, but whatever I try I get an error.

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  • Coherent access to mainframe files from Win32 application and IBM RDZ/Eclipse?

    - by Ira Baxter
    I have a suite of tools for processing IBM COBOL source code; these tools are built as Win32 applications and talk to Windows (including network) files using traditional Windows file system calls (open, close, read, write) and work just fine, thank you. I'd like to integrate these with Eclipse; we understand how to get Eclipse to do UI for us we think. The problem is that Eclipse/RDZ users access mainframe files through some IBM magic. In How does RDZ access mainframe files I tried to understand how Eclipse accessed files on a mainframe. Apparantly Eclipse/RDZ has a secret filesystem access backdoor not available to normal mortals. At issue is how our tools, reading some Windows-accessible file (local disk file, NFS to mainframe, ...) can associate such files with the files that Eclipse can access or is using? Ideally we'd like UI-integrated versions of our tools take an Eclipse file-name string for a mainframe file, pass it to our Windows application to process, have the Windows application open/read/process the file, and return results associated with that file to the Eclipse UI. Is there a canonical file name path that would be used with mainframe NFS that would be equivalent to the name or access object the Eclipse RDZ used to access the same file? Are all operations doable internally by Eclipse, doable by the mainframe NFS [for instance, can NFS read/update an element in a partitioned data set? Can Eclipse RDZ? Does it matter?] Is the mainframe file access available to custom Java code running under Eclipse RDZ (e.g., equivalents of open/close/read/write based on filename/path/something?) If so, can somebody steer me towards documentation describing the access methods? Anybody else already solve this problem or have a good suggestion?

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  • .NET EventHandlers - Generic or no?

    - by Chris Marasti-Georg
    Every time I start in deep in a C# project, I end up with lots of events that really just need to pass a single item. I stick with the EventHandler/EventArgs practice, but what I like to do is have something like: public delegate void EventHandler<T>(object src, EventArgs<T> args); public class EventArgs<T>: EventArgs { private T item; public EventArgs(T item) { this.item = item; } public T Item { get { return item; } } } Later, I can have my public event EventHandler<Foo> FooChanged; public event EventHandler<Bar> BarChanged; However, it seems that the standard for .NET is to create a new delegate and EventArgs subclass for each type of event. Is there something wrong with my generic approach? EDIT: The reason for this post is that I just re-created this in a new project, and wanted to make sure it was ok. Actually, I was re-creating it as I posted. I found that there is a generic EventHandler<TEventArgs, so you don't need to create the generic delegate, but you still need the generic EventArgs<T class, because TEventArgs: EventArgs. Another EDIT: One downside (to me) of the built-in solution is the extra verbosity: public event EventHandler<EventArgs<Foo>> FooChanged; vs. public event EventHandler<Foo> FooChanged; It can be a pain for clients to register for your events though, because the System namespace is imported by default, so they have to manually seek out your namespace, even with a fancy tool like Resharper... Anyone have any ideas pertaining to that?

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  • IIS 7.5 What am I doing wrong?

    - by chugh97
    In IIS 7.5 under Windows 7 Utilmate, I have an application which is configured for authentication as follows: Anonymous & Windows In the ASP.NET Website, I have turned Forms authentication and identity impersonate = true I also deny any anonymous users. <authentication mode="Forms"> </authentication> <identity impersonate="true"/> <authorization> <deny user="?"> </authorization> IIS complains. What am I doing wrong... What I want to achieve :I want the windows Logged On User so I can build a FormsAuthentication ticket and pass it to a Passive STS. So in IIS I have anonymous and windows...If have only windows ticked, I cannot go onto the Login.aspx page as I have an extra parameter to be passed from there. So now in webconfig, I then disable anonymous users by saying deny user="?" , so it leaves me with the authenticated windows user but using Forms Authentication.You know what I mean??

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  • A question about paypal IPN

    - by user304828
    i download sample code from https://cms.paypal.com/cms_content/US/en_US/files/developer/nvp_DoDirectPayment_php.txt run and get TIMESTAMP=2010%2d05%2d11T04%3a42%3a06Z&CORRELATIONID=ac15852d1e958&ACK=Failure&VERSION=51%2e0&BUILD=1268624&L_ERRORCODE0=10002&L_SHORTMESSAGE0=Security%20error&L_LONGMESSAGE0=Security%20header%20is%20not%20valid&L_SEVERITYCODE0=Error' (length=233) what is problem ? api username ? api pass ? signature or anything else ? this infor i fill in source code: // Set request-specific fields. $paymentType = urlencode('Authorization'); // or 'Sale' $firstName = urlencode('Nguyen'); $lastName = urlencode('Quang Trung'); $creditCardType = urlencode('Visa'); $creditCardNumber = urlencode(' 4111111111111111'); $expDateMonth = '04'; // Month must be padded with leading zero $padDateMonth = urlencode(str_pad($expDateMonth, 2, '0', STR_PAD_LEFT)); $expDateYear = urlencode('2015'); $cvv2Number = urlencode('5360 '); $address1 = urlencode('ha noi'); $address2 = urlencode('hcm'); $city = urlencode('ha noi'); $state = urlencode('ha noi state'); $zip = urlencode('84'); $country = urlencode('viet nam'); // US or other valid country code $amount = urlencode('900'); $currencyID = urlencode('USD'); // or other currency ('GBP', 'EUR', 'JPY', 'CAD', 'AUD')

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  • jqModal/JQuery problem, div not updating with new content?

    - by echoesofspring
    I'm hoping someone can point a relative jQuery/jqModal newbie in the right direction for debugging this error. I'm loading an html fragment into a div and then use jqModal to display that div as a modal dialog. The problem is that the div is displayed but not with my updated html. I'm showing my jqModal dialog in the response from a jquery call, function foo is called from an onclick event: function foo(url) { $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: url, success: function(msg) { $('#ajaxmodal').html(msg); $('#ajaxmodal').jqmShow(); } }); } ajaxmodal is a simple div. Initially I thought the problem must be in the html snippet (msg) I'm passing to the callback, but I don't think that's it, I get the err (see below) even when I comment out the $('#ajaxmodal').html(msg) line or pass it hardcode html. I think I have jqModal configured correctly, other calls using our ajaxmodal div work correctly, I'm able to display the modal, update the content based the server response, etc. When I try to debug in firebug, I get the following error following the call to .jqmShow(). I have seen the err on occasion in other places when it seemed maybe the page hadn't loaded yet, and I confess I'm confused about that, since we've wrapped our jqModal selectors in a $(document).ready() call, so maybe I have a larger issue that this call just happens to trigger? From the jquery.jqModal.js file, line 64: js err is $(':input:visible',h.w)[0] is undefined in the line: f=function(h){try{$(':input:visible',h.w)[0].focus();}catch(_){}} When I step through this in firefox, h.w[0] seems ok, it references our '#ajaxmodal' div. Thanks in advance for any suggestions in tracking this down?

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  • YUI DataTable - Howto have just one paginator?

    - by Rollo Tomazzi
    Hello, I'm using the YUI DataTable in a Grails 1.1 project using the Grails UI plugin 1.0.2 (YUI being 2.6.1). By default, the DataTable displays 2 paginators: one above and another one below the table. Looking up the YUI API documentation, I could see that I can pass an array of YUI containers as a config parameter but - what are the names of these containers? I've tried loooking at the HTML of the page using Firebug. The ID of the divs containing the paginators are: yui-dt0-paginator0 (above) and yui-dt0-paginator1 (below). If I use them to configure the containers for the navigator, then the navigator is just not displayed at all. Here's the relevant extract of the GSP page containing the Datatable element. <div class="body"> <h1>This is the List of Control Accounts</h1> <g:if test="${flash.message}"> <div class="message">${flash.message}</div> </g:if> <div class="yui-skin-sam"> <gui:dataTable controller="controlAccount" action="enhancedListDataTableJSON" columnDefs="[ [key:'id', label:'ID'], [key:'col1', label:'Col 1', sortable: true, resizeable: true], [key:'col2', label:'Col 2', sortable: true, resizeable: true] ]" sortedBy="col1" rowsPerPage="20" paginatorConfig="[ template:'{PreviousPageLink} {PageLinks} {NextPageLink} {CurrentPageReport}', pageReportTemplate:'{totalRecords} total accounts', alwaysVisible:true, containers:'yui-dt0-paginator1' ]" rowExpansion="true" /> </div> </div> Any help? Thanks! Rollo

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  • HtmlHelper Getting the route name

    - by Simon G
    Hi, I've created a html helper that adds a css class property to a li item if the user is on the current page. The helper looks like this: public static string MenuItem( this HtmlHelper helper, string linkText, string actionName, string controllerName, object routeValues, object htmlAttributes ) { string currentControllerName = ( string )helper.ViewContext.RouteData.Values["controller"]; string currentActionName = ( string )helper.ViewContext.RouteData.Values["action"]; var builder = new TagBuilder( "li" ); // Add selected class if ( currentControllerName.Equals( controllerName, StringComparison.CurrentCultureIgnoreCase ) && currentActionName.Equals( actionName, StringComparison.CurrentCultureIgnoreCase ) ) builder.AddCssClass( "active" ); // Add link builder.InnerHtml = helper.ActionLink( linkText, actionName, controllerName, routeValues, htmlAttributes ); // Render Tag Builder return builder.ToString( TagRenderMode.Normal ); } I want to expand this class so I can pass a route name to the helper and if the user is on that route then it adds the css class to the li item. However I'm having difficulty finding the route the user is on. Is this possible? The code I have so far is: public static string MenuItem( this HtmlHelper helper, string linkText, string routeName, object routeValues, object htmlAttributes ) { string currentControllerName = ( string )helper.ViewContext.RouteData.Values["controller"]; string currentActionName = ( string )helper.ViewContext.RouteData.Values["action"]; var builder = new TagBuilder( "li" ); // Add selected class // Some code for here // if ( routeName == currentRoute ) AddCssClass; // Add link builder.InnerHtml = helper.RouteLink( linkText, routeName, routeValues, htmlAttributes ); // Render Tag Builder return builder.ToString( TagRenderMode.Normal ); } BTW I'm using MVC 1.0. Thanks

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  • Editing 8bpp indexed Bitmaps

    - by Pedro Sá
    hi, i'm trying to edit the pixels of a 8bpp. Since this PixelFormat is indexed i'm aware that it uses a Color Table to map the pixel values. Even though I can edit the bitmap by converting it to 24bpp, 8bpp editing is much faster (13ms vs 3ms). But, changing each value when accessing the 8bpp bitmap results in some random rgb colors even though the PixelFormat remains 8bpp. I'm currently developing in c# and the algorithm is as follows: (C#) 1- Load original Bitmap at 8bpp 2- Create Empty temp Bitmap with 8bpp with the same size as the original 3-LockBits of both bitmaps and, using P/Invoke, calling c++ method where I pass the Scan0 of each BitmapData object. (I used a c++ method as it offers better performance when iterating through the Bitmap's pixels) (C++) 4- Create a int[256] palette according to some parameters and edit the temp bitmap bytes by passing the original's pixel values through the palette. (C#) 5- UnlockBits. My question is how can I edit the pixel values without having the strange rgb colors, or even better, edit the 8bpp bitmap's Color Table? Regards, Pedro

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  • Building simple Reddit scraper

    - by Bazant Fundator
    Let's say that I would like to make a collection of images from reddit for my own amusement. I have ran the code on my development env and It haven't gone past the first page of posts (anything beyond requries the after string from the JSON. Additionally, When I turn on the validation, the whole loop breaks if the item doesn't pass it, not just the current iteration. I would be glad If you helped me understand mistakes I made. class Link include Mongoid::Document include Mongoid::Timestamps field :author, type: String field :url, type: String validates_uniqueness_of :url, # no duplicates validates :url, uniqueness :true end def fetch (count, after) count_s = count.to_s # convert count to string link = "http://reddit.com/r/aww/.json?count="+count_s+"&after="+after #so it can be used there res = HTTParty.get(link) # GET req. to the reddit server json = JSON.parse(res.body) # Parse the response if json['kind'] == "Listing" then # check if the retrieved item is a Listing for i in 1...(count) do # for each list item datum = json['data']['children'][i]['data'] #i-th element properties if datum['domain'].in?(["imgur.com", "i.imgur.com"]) then # fetch only imgur links Link.create!(author: datum['author'], url: datum['url']) # save to db end end count += 25 fetch(count, json['data']['after']) # if it retrieved the right kind of object, move on to the next page end end fetch(25," ") # run it

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