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• Where are the network boundaries in the Java Connector Architecture (JCA)?

  - by Laird Nelson

  I am writing a JCA resource adapter. I'm also, as I go, trying to fully understand the connection management portion of the JCA specification. As a thought experiment, pretend that the only client of this adapter will be a Swing Java Application Client located on a different machine. Also assume that the resource adapter will communicate with its "enterprise information system" (EIS) over the network as well. As I understand the JCA specification, the .rar file is deployed to the application server. The application server creates the .rar file's implementation of the ManagedConnectionFactory interface. It then asks it to produce a connection factory, which is the opaque object that is deployed to JNDI for the user to use to obtain a connection to the resource. (In the case of JDBC, the connection factory is a javax.sql.DataSource.) It is a requirement that the connection factory retain a reference to the application-server-supplied ConnectionManager, which, in turn, is required to be Serializable. This makes sense--in order for the connection factory to be stored in JNDI, it must be serializable, and in order for it to keep a reference to the ConnectionManager, the ConnectionManager must also be serializable. So fine, this little object graph gets installed in the application client's JNDI tree. This is where I start to get queasy. Is the ConnectionManager--the piece supplied by the application server that is supposed to handle connection management, sharing, pooling, etc.--wholly present on the client at this point? One of its jobs is to create ManagedConnection instances, and a ManagedConnection is not required to be Serializable, and the user connection handles it vends are also not required to be Serializable. That suggests to me that the whole connection pooling machinery is shipped wholesale to the application client and stuffed into its JNDI tree. Does this all mean that JCA interactions from the client side bypass the server-side componentry of the application server? Where are the network boundaries in the JCA API?

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• Why does this tooltip appear *below* a transclucent form?

  - by Daniel Stutzbach

  I have an form with an Opacity less then 1.0. I have a tooltip associated with a label on the form. When I hover the mouse over the label, the tooltip shows up under the form instead of over the form. If I leave the Opacity at its default value of 1.0, the tooltip correctly appears over the form. However, my form is obviously no longer translucent. ;-) I'm testing on an XP system with .NET 3.5. If you don't see this problem on your system, let me know what operating system and version of .NET you have. I have tried manually adjusting the position of the ToolTip with SetWindowPos() and creating a ToolTip "by hand" using CreateWindowEx(), but the problem remains. This makes me suspect its a Win32 API problem, not a problem with the Windows Forms implementation that runs on top of Win32. Why does the tooltip appear under the form, and, more importantly, how can I get it to appear over the form where it should? Here is a minimal program to demonstrate the problem: using System; using System.Windows.Forms; public class Form1 : Form { private ToolTip toolTip1; private Label label1; [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new Form1()); } public Form1() { toolTip1 = new ToolTip(); label1 = new Label(); label1.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(105, 127); label1.Text = "Hover over me"; label1.AutoSize = true; toolTip1.SetToolTip(label1, "This is a moderately long string, " + "designed to be very long so that it will also be quite long."); ClientSize = new System.Drawing.Size(292, 268); Controls.Add(label1); Opacity = 0.8; } }

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• ERB doesnt get executed in javascript scripts

  - by Stefano

  Hi guys I have a select input on my page. this select input displays/hides fields in the form. This all works fine. But the problem is that if i submit the form and lack some necessary fields, it doesnt set the select to the right value afterwards. I just cant get the embedded ruby to work! it keeps escaping the whole thing... here my code: $(document).ready(function() { $("#profile_sex").val('<%= @profile.sex %>') $("#profile_sex").change(function(){ ($(this).val() == "Frau") ? $('#form-female').show() : $('#form-female').hide(); ($(this).val() == "Mann") ? $('#form-male').show() : $('#form-male').hide(); if ($(this).val() == "Paar") { $('#form-female').show(); $('#form-male').show(); } }); }); why doesnt this work??? I dont get any error or anything it just sets the value to "<%= @profile.sex =" I was googling and searching about on stack overflow and railscasts, the rails API, everything. Im seriously confused... thanks for your help.

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• Broken JS Loop with Google Maps...

  - by Oscar Godson

  My code is below, and I had an issue with nearly the same code, and it was fixed here on StackOverflow, but, again, its not working. I haven't changed the working code, but i did wrap it in the for...in loop youll see below. The issue is that no matter what marker I click it always triggers the last marker/infoWindow that was placed. $(function(){ var latlng = new google.maps.LatLng(45.522015,-122.683811); var settings = { zoom: 10, center: latlng, disableDefaultUI:true, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.SATELLITE }; var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), settings); $.getJSON('api',function(json){ for (var property in json) { if (json.hasOwnProperty(property)) { var json_data = json[property]; var the_marker = new google.maps.Marker({ title:json_data.item.headline, map:map, clickable:true, position:new google.maps.LatLng( parseFloat(json_data.item.geoarray[0].latitude), parseFloat(json_data.item.geoarray[0].longitude) ) }); var infowindow = new google.maps.InfoWindow({ content: '<div><h1>'+json_data.item.headline+'</h1><p>'+json_data.item.full_content+'</p></div>' }); new google.maps.event.addListener(the_marker, 'click', function() { infowindow.open(map,the_marker); }); } } }); }); Thank you for whoever figures this out!

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• On XP, how do I get the tooltip to appear above a transclucent form?

  - by Daniel Stutzbach

  I have an form with an Opacity less then 1.0. I have a tooltip associated with a label on the form. When I hover the mouse over the label, the tooltip shows up under the form instead of over the form. If I leave the Opacity at its default value of 1.0, the tooltip correctly appears over the form. However, my form is obviously no longer translucent. ;-) I have tried manually adjusting the position of the ToolTip with SetWindowPos() and creating a ToolTip "by hand" using CreateWindowEx(), but the problem remains. This makes me suspect its a Win32 API problem, not a problem with the Windows Forms implementation that runs on top of Win32. Why does the tooltip appear under the form, and, more importantly, how can I get it to appear over the form where it should? Edit: this appears to be an XP-only problem. Vista and Windows 7 work correctly. I'd still like to find a workaround to get the tooltip to appear above the form on XP. Here is a minimal program to demonstrate the problem: using System; using System.Windows.Forms; public class Form1 : Form { private ToolTip toolTip1; private Label label1; [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new Form1()); } public Form1() { toolTip1 = new ToolTip(); label1 = new Label(); label1.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(105, 127); label1.Text = "Hover over me"; label1.AutoSize = true; toolTip1.SetToolTip(label1, "This is a moderately long string, " + "designed to be very long so that it will also be quite long."); ClientSize = new System.Drawing.Size(292, 268); Controls.Add(label1); Opacity = 0.8; } }

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• What is the standard way to bundle OSGi dependent libraries?

  - by Chris

  Hi, I have a project that references a number of open source libraries, some new, some not so new. That said, they are all stable and I wish to stick with my chosen versions until I have time to migrate to the newer versions (I tested hsqldb 2.0 yesterday and it contains many api changes). One of the libraries I have wish to embed is Jasper Reports, but as you all surely know, it comes with a mountain of supporting jar files and I have only need a subset of the mountain (known) therefore I am planning to custom bundle all of my dependant libraries. So: Does everyone custom-make their own OSGi bundles for open-source libraries they are using or is there a master source of OSGi versions of common libraries? Also, I was thinking that it would be far simpler for each of my bundles simply to embed their dependent jars within the bundle itself. Is this possible? If I choose to embed the 3rd party foc libraries within a bundle, I assume I will need to produce 2 jar files, one without the embedded libraries (for libraries to be loaded via the classpath via standard classloader), and one osgi version that includes the embedded libraryy, therefore should I choose a bundle name like this <<myprojectname>>-<<subproject>>-osgi-.1.0.0.jar ? If I cannot embed the open source libraries and choose to custom bundle the open source libraries (via bnd), should I choose a unique bundle name to avoid conflict with a possible official bundle? e.g. <<myprojectname>>-<<3rdpartylibname>>-<<3rdpartylibversion>>.jar ? My non-OSGi enabled project currently scans for custom plugins via scanning the META-INF folders in my various plugin jars via Service.providers(...). If I go OSGi, will this mechanism still work?

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• Loading city/state from SQL Server to Google Maps?

  - by knawlejj

  I'm trying to make a small application that takes a city & state and geocodes that address to a lat/long location. Right now I am utilizing Google Map's API, ColdFusion, and SQL Server. Basically the city and state fields are in a database table and I want to take those locations and get marker put on a Google Map showing where they are. This is my code to do the geocoding, and viewing the source of the page shows that it is correctly looping through my query and placing a location ("Omaha, NE") in the address field, but no marker, or map for that matter, is showing up on the page: function codeAddress() { <cfloop query="GetLocations"> var address = document.getElementById(<cfoutput>#Trim(hometown)#,#Trim(state)#</cfoutput>).value; if (geocoder) { geocoder.geocode( {<cfoutput>#Trim(hometown)#,#Trim(state)#</cfoutput>: address}, function(results, status) { if (status == google.maps.GeocoderStatus.OK) { var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ map: map, position: results[0].geometry.location, title: <cfoutput>#Trim(hometown)#,#Trim(state)#</cfoutput> }); } else { alert("Geocode was not successful for the following reason: " + status); } }); } </cfloop> } And here is the code to initialize the map: var geocoder; var map; function initialize() { geocoder = new google.maps.Geocoder(); var latlng = new google.maps.LatLng(42.4167,-90.4290); var myOptions = { zoom: 5, center: latlng, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP } var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: latlng, map: map, title: "Test" }); map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), myOptions); } I do have a map working that uses lat/long that was hard coded into the database table, but I want to be able to just use the city/state and convert that to a lat/long. Any suggestions or direction? Storing the lat/long in the database is also possible, but I don't know how to do that within SQL.

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• How do I correct feature envy in this case?

  - by RMorrisey

  I have some code that looks like: class Parent { private Intermediate intermediateContainer; public Intermediate getIntermediate(); } class Intermediate { private Child child; public Child getChild() {...} public void intermediateOp(); } class Child { public void something(); public void somethingElse(); } class Client { private Parent parent; public void something() { parent.getIntermediate().getChild().something(); } public void somethingElse() { parent.getIntermediate().getChild().somethingElse(); } public void intermediate() { parent.getIntermediate().intermediateOp(); } } I understand that is an example of the "feature envy" code smell. The question is, what's the best way to fix it? My first instinct is to put the three methods on parent: parent.something(); parent.somethingElse(); parent.intermediateOp(); ...but I feel like this duplicates code, and clutters the API of the Parent class (which is already rather busy). Do I want to store the result of getIntermediate(), and/or getChild(), and keep my own references to these objects?

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• Advice on Linq to SQL mapping object design

  - by fearofawhackplanet

  I hope the title and following text are clear, I'm not very familiar with the correct terms so please correct me if I get anything wrong. I'm using Linq ORM for the first time and am wondering how to address the following. Say I have two DB tables: User ---- Id Name Phone ----- Id UserId Model The Linq code generator produces a bunch of entity classes. I then write my own classes and interfaces which wrap these Linq classes: class DatabaseUser : IUser { public DatabaseUser(User user) { _user = user; } public Guid Id { get { return _user.Id; } } ... etc } so far so good. Now it's easy enough to find a users phones from Phones.Where(p => p.User = user) but surely comsumers of the API shouldn't need to be writing their own Linq queries to get at data, so I should wrap this query in a function or property somewhere. So the question is, in this example, would you add a Phones property to IUser or not? In other words, should my interface specifically be modelling my database objects (in which case Phones doesn't belong in IUser), or are they actually simply providing a set of functions and properties which are conceptually associated with a User (in which case it does)? There seems drawbacks to both views, but I'm wondering if there is a standard approach to the problem. Or just any general words of wisdom you could share. My first thought was to use extension methods but in fact that doesn't work in this case.

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• Rails problem with Delayed_Job and Active Record

  - by Michael Waxman

  I'm using Delayed_Job to grab a Twitter user's data from the API, but it's not saving it in the model for some reason! Please help! (code below) class BandJob < Struct.new(:band_id, :band_username) #parameter def perform require 'json' require 'open-uri' band = Band.find_by_id(band_id) t = JSON.parse(open("http://twitter.com/users/show/#{band_username}.json").read) band.screen_name = t['screen_name'] band.profile_background_image = t['profile_background_image_url'] band.url = 'http://' + band_username + '.com' band.save! end end To clarify, I'm actually not getting any errors, it's just not saving. Here's what my log looks like: * [JOB] acquiring lock on BandJob [4;36;1mDelayed::Job Update (3.1ms)[0m [0;1mUPDATE "delayed_jobs" SET locked_at = '2009-11-09 18:59:45', locked_by = 'host:dhcp128036151228.central.yale.edu pid:2864' WHERE (id = 10442 and (locked_at is null or locked_at < '2009-11-09 14:59:45') and (run_at <= '2009-11-09 18:59:45')) [0m [4;35;1mBand Load (1.5ms)[0m [0mSELECT * FROM "bands" WHERE ("bands"."id" = 34) LIMIT 1[0m [4;36;1mBand Update (0.6ms)[0m [0;1mUPDATE "bands" SET "updated_at" = '2009-11-09 18:59:45', "profile_background_image" = 'http://a3.twimg.com/profile_background_images/38193417/fbtile4.jpg', "url" = 'http://Coldplay.com', "screen_name" = 'coldplay' WHERE "id" = 34[0m [4;35;1mDelayed::Job Destroy (0.5ms)[0m [0mDELETE FROM "delayed_jobs" WHERE "id" = 10442[0m * [JOB] BandJob completed after 0.5448 1 jobs processed at 1.8011 j/s, 0 failed ... Thanks!

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• Prestashop - quick development questions

  - by Stefan Konno

  Sorry to post here about this but no one at the prestashop forum seems active enough to help. I thought maybe someone here on stackoverflow might have worked with prestashop. I started using Prestashop yesterday so I’m a total beginner, but I’m very experienced in web development, I do have some quick questions though. I’ve googled around but it causes me great frustration since I don’t really know what I’m looking for or what’s avaiable. Is there absolutely no API for this? I mean I found the wiki but it holds no good information. I want to edit my theme completely, as I wish. Edit html, add/remove js, just being able to do what I want, but when I edit the tpl files in my active theme, NOTHING happens. The site remains exactly the same. Why is this, or where do I change it without hacking the core? Do I have to recompile these .tpl files in some way for the changes to take affect? I also want to edit alot of the modules to match my demands, but same here, if I edit their tpl files nothing seems to happen or rather I don’t want to hack the core, since I suppose these will be affected if I update the platform. Where do I find my products page, I want to create a menu with a link to a page called products or something with an overview of the products avaiable in my store. I’m very confused, but I guess you just have to get through this, I’m used to developing in wordpress or without any cms for that matter. Sorry if my questions are very basic and probably have been answered before. :<

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• Enterprise Platform in Python, Design Advice

  - by Jason Miesionczek

  I am starting the design of a somewhat large enterprise platform in Python, and was wondering if you guys can give me some advice as to how to organize the various components and which packages would help achieve the goals of scalability, maintainability, and reliability. The system is basically a service that collects data from various outside sources, with each outside source having its own separate application. These applications would poll a central database and get any requests that have been submitted to perform on the external source. There will be a main website and REST/SOAP API that should also have access to the central data service. My initial thought was to use Django for the web site, web service and data access layer (using its built-in ORM), and then the outside source applications can use the web service(s) to get the information they need to process the request and save the results. Using this method would allow me to have multiple instances of the service applications running on the same or different machines to balance out the load. Are there more elegant means of accomplishing this? i've heard of messaging systems such as MQ, would something like that be beneficial in this scenario? My other thought was to use a completely separate data service not based on Django, and use some kind of remoting or remote objects (in they exist in Python) to interact with the data model. The downside here would be with the website which would become much slower if it had to push all of its data requests through a second layer. I would love to hear what other developers have come up with to achieve these goals in the most flexible way possible.

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• Task Queue stopped working

  - by pocoa

  I was playing with Goole App Engine Task Queue API to learn how to use it. But I couldn't make it trigger locally. My application is working like a charm when I upload to Google servers. But it doesn't trigger locally. All I see from the admin is the list of the tasks. But when their ETA comes, they just pass it. It's like they runs but they fails and waiting for the retries. But I can't see these events on command line. When I try to click "Run" on admin panel, it runs successfuly and I can see these requests from the command line. I'm using App Engine SDK 1.3.4 on Linux with google-app-engine-django. I'm trying to find the problem from 3 hours now and I couldn't find it. It's also very hard to debug GAE applications. Because debug messages do not appear on console screen. Thanks.

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• Is there a way to reload the page after <fb:like> is clicked?

  - by joon

  Hi, I'm wondering about this: I have a simple facebook-connect app that will only show certain content after you login and liked a certain page. It works (huzzah!) but I want to make it more user friendly by making it refresh automatically after you pressed the like button. Here's some code: <?php if ($me) { $pageid = -----------; $uid = $me['id']; $likeID = $facebook->api( array( 'method' => 'fql.query', 'query' => 'SELECT target_id FROM connection WHERE source_id = ' . $uid . ' AND target_id = ' . $pageid ) ); if ( empty($likeID) ) { // Person is LOGGED IN, but has NOT LIKED echo '<script src="MY WEBPAGE"></script><fb:like href="MY WEBPAGE" layout="box_count" show_faces="false" width="450"></fb:like>'; } else { // Person is LOGGED IN, and has LIKED, score! echo 'Download link'; } } else { // Person is NOT LOGGED IN, so we know NOTHING echo '<script src="MY WEBPAGE"></script><fb:like href="MY WEBPAGE" layout="box_count" show_faces="false" width="450"></fb:like>'; } ?> Is there anything I can do to this code (maybe in the fb:like tag?) that makes it reload the page after a like? Thanks.

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• PHP : How to get specific data from array

  - by Giffary

  Hello! I try to use amazon API using PHP. If I use print_r($parsed_xml->Items->Item->ItemAttributes) it show me some result like SimpleXMLElement Object ( [Binding] = Electronics [Brand] = Canon [DisplaySize] = 2.5 [EAN] = 0013803113662 [Feature] = Array ( [0] = High-powered 20x wide-angle optical zoom with Optical Image Stabilizer [1] = Capture 720p HD movies with stereo sound; HDMI output connector for easy playback on your HDTV [2] = 2.5-inch Vari-Angle System LCD; improved Smart AUTO intelligently selects from 22 predefined shooting situations [3] = DIGIC 4 Image Processor; 12.1-megapixel resolution for poster-size, photo-quality prints [4] = Powered by AA batteries (included); capture images to SD/SDHC memory cards (not included) ) [FloppyDiskDriveDescription] = None [FormFactor] = Rotating [HasRedEyeReduction] = 1 [IsAutographed] = 0 [IsMemorabilia] = 0 [ItemDimensions] = SimpleXMLElement Object ( [Height] = 340 [Length] = 490 [Weight] = 124 [Width] = 350 ) [Label] = Canon [LensType] = Zoom lens [ListPrice] = SimpleXMLElement Object ( [Amount] = 60103 [CurrencyCode] = USD [FormattedPrice] = $601.03 ) [Manufacturer] = Canon [MaximumFocalLength] = 100 [MaximumResolution] = 12.1 [MinimumFocalLength] = 5 [Model] = SX20IS [MPN] = SX20IS [OpticalSensorResolution] = 12.1 [OpticalZoom] = 20 [PackageDimensions] = SimpleXMLElement Object ( [Height] = 460 [Length] = 900 [Weight] = 242 [Width] = 630 ) [PackageQuantity] = 1 [ProductGroup] = Photography [ProductTypeName] = CAMERA_DIGITAL [ProductTypeSubcategory] = point-and-shoot [Publisher] = Canon [Studio] = Canon [Title] = Canon PowerShot SX20IS 12.1MP Digital Camera with 20x Wide Angle Optical Image Stabilized Zoom and 2.5-inch Articulating LCD [UPC] = 013803113662 ) my goal is to get only Feature infomation and I try to use $feature = $parsed_xml->Items->Item->ItemAttributes->Feature it does'not work for me because it just show me the first feature only. How do i get all feature information? please help

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• What is the correct approach to using GWT with persistent objects?

  - by dankilman

  Hi, I am currently working on a simple web application through Google App engine using GWT. It should be noted that this is my first attempt at such a task. I have run into to following problem/dilema: I have a simple Class (getters/setters and nothing more. For the sake of clarity I will refer to this Class as DataHolder) and I want to make it persistent. To do so I have used JDO which required me to add some annotations and more specifically add a Key field to be used as the primary key. The problem is that using the Key class requires me to import com.google.appengine.api.datastore.Key which is ok on the server side, but then I can't use DataHolder on the client side, because GWT doesn't allow it (as far as I know). So I have created a sister Class ClientDataHolder which is almost identical, though it doesn't have all the JDO annotations nor the Key field. Now this actually works but It feels like I'm doing something wrong. Using this approach would require maintaining to separate classes for each entity I wish to have. So my question is: Is there a better way of doing this? Thank you.

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• Issue with WatchService in java 7

  - by user972590

  I'm using jdk7's WatchService API for monitoring the folder on file system.I'm sending a new file through email to that folder, when the file comes into that folder i m triggering the ENTRY_CRATE option. its working fine. But the issue is its generating two events of ENTRY_CREATE instead of one event which i'm invoking. BELOW IS THE CODE: Path dir = Paths.get(/var/mail); WatchService watcher = dir.getFileSystem().newWatchService(); dir.register(watcher, StandardWatchEventKinds.ENTRY_CREATE); System.out.println("waiting for new file"); WatchKey watckKey = watcher.take(); List<WatchEvent<?>> events = watckKey.pollEvents(); System.out.println(events.size()); for(WatchEvent<?> event : events){ if(event.kind() == StandardWatchEventKinds.ENTRY_CREATE){ String fileCreated=event.context().toString().trim(); } } In the above code I'm gettng the events size as 2. Can any one please help me in finding out the reason why i'm getting two events.

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• Compile for mixed platform (32, 64) and reference a 32 or 64 bit DLL resolved at runtime

  - by Nigel Aston

  Using VS2010 under windows 32 or 64 bit. Our C# app calls a 3rd party DLL (managed) that interfaces to an unmanaged DLL. The 3rd party DLL API appears identical in 32 or 64 bit although underneath it links to a 32 or 64 bit unmanaged DLL. We want our C# app to run on either 32 or 64 bit OS, ideally it will auto detect the OS and load the appropriate 32rd party DLL - via a simple factory class which tests the Enviroment. So the neatest solution would be a runtime folder containing: OurApp.exe 3rdParty32.DLL 3rdPartyUnmanaged32.DLL 3rdParty64.DLL 3rdPartyUnmanaged64.DLL However, the interface for the managed 3rdParty 32 and 64 dll is identical so both cannot be referenced within the same VS2010 project: when adding the second the warning triangle is shown and it does not get referenced. Is my only answer to create two extra library DLL projects to reference the 3rdParty 32 and 64 Dlls? So I would end up with this project arrangement: Project 1: Builds OurApp.exe, dynamically creates an object for project2 or project3. Project 2: Builds OurApp32.DLL which references 3rdParty32.dll Project 3: Builds OurApp64.DLL which references 3rdParty64.dll

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• How do I fix the alpha value after calling GDI text functions?

  - by Daniel Stutzbach

  I have a application that uses the Aero glass effect, so each pixel has an alpha value in addition to red, green, and blue values. I have one custom-draw control that has a solid white background (alpha = 255). I would like to draw solid text on the control using the GDI text functions. However, these functions set the alpha value to an arbitrary value, causing the text to translucently show whatever window is beneath my application's. After calling rendering the text, I would like to go through all of the pixels in the control and set their alpha value back to 255. What's the best way to do that? I haven't had any luck with the BitBlt, GetPixel, and SetPixel functions. They appear to be oblivious to the alpha value. Here are other solutions that I have considered and rejected: Draw to a bitmap, then copy the bitmap to the device: With this approach, the text rendering does not make use of the characteristics of the monitor (e.g., ClearText). Use GDI+ for text rendering: This application originally used GDI+ for text rendering (before I started working on Aero support). I switched to GDI because of difficulties I encountered trying to accurately measure strings with GDI+. I'd rather not switch back. Set the Aero region to avoid the control in question: My application's window is actually a child window of a different application running in a different process. I don't have direct control over the Aero settings on the top-level window. The application is written in C# using Windows Forms, though I'm not above using Interop to call Win32 API functions.

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• Attempting to calculate width of Map Overlays on the fly

  - by Bloudermilk

  Hey all- I am working on an Android app that utilizes the Google Maps API MapView, MapController, MapActivity, and ItemizedOverlay. I am basically trying to recreate certain functionalities of the Maps app (damn Google for not providing speech bubbles—for lack of a better name—for items!), particularly those speech bubbles. I have an invisible XML structure for the speech bubble in the XML layout file containing my MapView. The first time I show a speech bubble I grab that XML and remove it from it's current parent, applying some ItemizedOverlay.LayoutParams to it, and add it to the MapView as an Overlay. I position it above the item that was selected, fill it with the proper text, then set it to visible. This all works great. The goal here, though, is to also automatically animate the map to reveal any parts of a speech bubble that may be off-screen when it opens. So I'm trying popup.getWidth() (popup is the instance of my LinearLayout that is the speech bubble) after I do all the manipulation to the bubble, even after I display it to the user. Problem is, popup.getWidth() is returning me the width of the previously displayed popup, not the currently displayed one. I can't figure out why this would be happening if I'm fetching the width after I set it to visible with its new dimensions (which, by the way, are relative when I'm setting them with LayoutParams: fill_content for both width and height).. I have even tried forcing both the MapView and the "popup" to invalidate() before trying to fetch the width. Any ideas why this may be happening? How can I force the View to settle into its new dimensions before trying to fetch them? Thanks! Nick

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• How to get a nicely formatted PHP Web Service response?

  - by Bruno

  I called an API like this: $service = new Class_Service(); $parameters = new GetClasses(); $parameters->Request = new GetClassesRequest(); $parameters->Request->SourceCredentials = new SourceCredentials(); $parameters->Request->SourceCredentials->SourceName = "Name"; $parameters->Request->SourceCredentials->Password = "Pass"; $parameters->Request->SourceCredentials->SiteIDs = array( 12 ); $classes = $service->GetClasses($parameters); var_dump($classes); And received a response like this: object(GetClassesResponse)#7 (1) { ["GetClassesResult"]=> object(GetClassesResult)#8 (6 { ["Classes"]=> object(stdClass)#9 (1) { ["Class"]=> array(25) { [0]=> object(Mi_Class)#10 (21) { ["ClassScheduleID"]=> int(15) ["Visits"]=> NULL ["Clients"]=> NULL ["Location"]=> object(Location)#11 (30) { ["BusinessID"]=> NULL ["SiteID"]=> int(12) ["BusinessDescription"]=> NULL ["AdditionalImageURLs"]=> object(stdClass)#12 (0) { } ["FacilitySquareFeet"]=> NULL Does a response normally look like this? How do I go about getting the data in a formatted manner?

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• C++ struct, public data members and inheritance

  - by Marius

  Is it ok to have public data members in a C++ class/struct in certain particular situations? How would that go along with inheritance? I've read opinions on the matter, some stated already here http://stackoverflow.com/questions/952907/practices-on-when-to-implement-accessors-on-private-member-variables-rather-than http://stackoverflow.com/questions/670958/accessors-vs-public-members or in books/articles (Stroustrup, Meyers) but I'm still a little bit in the shade. I have some configuration blocks that I read from a file (integers, bools, floats) and I need to place them into a structure for later use. I don't want to expose these externally just use them inside another class (I actually do want to pass these config parameters to another class but don't want to expose them through a public API). The fact is that I have many such config parameters (15 or so) and writing getters and setters seems an unnecessary overhead. Also I have more than one configuration block and these are sharing some of the parameters. Making a struct with all the data members public and then subclassing does not feel right. What's the best way to tackle that situation? Does making a big struct to cover all parameters provide an acceptable compromise (I would have to leave some of these set to their default values for blocks that do not use them)?

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• Efficient (basic) regular expression implementation for streaming data

  - by Brendan Dolan-Gavitt

  I'm looking for an implementation of regular expression matching that operates on a stream of data -- i.e., it has an API that allows a user to pass in one character at a time and report when a match is found on the stream of characters seen so far. Only very basic (classic) regular expressions are needed, so a DFA/NFA based implementation seems like it would be well-suited to the problem. Based on the fact that it's possible to do regular expression matching using a DFA/NFA in a single linear sweep, it seems like a streaming implementation should be possible. Requirements: The library should try to wait until the full string has been read before performing the match. The data I have really is streaming; there is no way to know how much data will arrive, it's not possible to seek forward or backward. Implementing specific stream matching for a couple special cases is not an option, as I don't know in advance what patterns a user might want to look for. For the curious, my use case is the following: I have a system which intercepts memory writes inside a full system emulator, and I would like to have a way to identify memory writes that match a regular expression (e.g., one could use this to find the point in the system where a URL is written to memory). I have found (links de-linkified because I don't have enough reputation): stackoverflow.com/questions/1962220/apply-a-regex-on-stream stackoverflow.com/questions/716927/applying-a-regular-expression-to-a-java-i-o-stream www.codeguru.com/csharp/csharp/cs_data/searching/article.php/c14689/Building-a-Regular-Expression-Stream-Search-with-the-NET-Framework.htm But all of these attempt to convert the stream to a string first and then use a stock regular expression library. Another thought I had was to modify the RE2 library, but according to the author it is architected around the assumption that the entire string is in memory at the same time. If nothing's available, then I can start down the unhappy path of reinventing this wheel to fit my own needs, but I'd really rather not if I can avoid it. Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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• Basic user authentication with records in AngularFire

  - by ajkochanowicz

  Having spent literally days trying the different, various recommended ways to do this, I've landed on what I think is the most simple and promising. Also thanks to the kind gents from this SO question: Get the index ID of an item in Firebase AngularFire Curent setup Users can log in with email and social networks, so when they create a record, it saves the userId as a sort of foreign key. Good so far. But I want to create a rule so twitter2934392 cannot read facebook63203497's records. Off to the security panel Match the IDs on the backend Unfortunately, the docs are inconsistent with the method from is firebase user id unique per provider (facebook, twitter, password) which suggest appending the social network to the ID. The docs expect you to create a different rule for each of the login method's ids. Why anyone using 1 login method would want to do that is beyond me. (From: https://www.firebase.com/docs/security/rule-expressions/auth.html) So I'll try to match the concatenated auth.provider with auth.id to the record in userId for the respective registry item. According to the API, this should be as easy as In my case using $registry instead of $user of course. { "rules": { ".read": true, ".write": true, "registry": { "$registry": { ".read": "$registry == auth.id" } } } } But that won't work, because (see the first image above), AngularFire sets each record under an index value. In the image above, it's 0. Here's where things get complicated. Also, I can't test anything in the simulator, as I cannot edit {some: 'json'} To even authenticate. The input box rejects any input. My best guess is the following. { "rules": { ".write": true, "registry": { "$registry": { ".read": "data.child('userId').val() == (auth.provider + auth.id)" } } } } Which both throws authentication errors and simultaneously grants full read access to all users. I'm losing my mind. What am I supposed to do here?

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• When using Direct3D, how much math is being done on the CPU?

  - by zirgen

  Context: I'm just starting out. I'm not even touching the Direct3D 11 API, and instead looking at understanding the pipeline, etc. From looking at documentation and information floating around the web, it seems like some calculations are being handled by the application. That, is, instead of simply presenting matrices to multiply to the GPU, the calculations are being done by a math library that operates on the CPU. I don't have any particular resources to point to, although I guess I can point to the XNA Math Library or the samples shipped in the February DX SDK. When you see code like mViewProj = mView * mProj;, that projection is being calculated on the CPU. Or am I wrong? If you were writing a program, where you can have 10 cubes on the screen, where you can move or rotate cubes, as well as viewpoint, what calculations would you do on the CPU? I think I would store the geometry for the a single cube, and then transform matrices representing the actual instances. And then it seems I would use the XNA math library, or another of my choosing, to transform each cube in model space. Then get the coordinates in world space. Then push the information to the GPU. That's quite a bit of calculation on the CPU. Am I wrong? Am I reaching conclusions based on too little information and understanding? What terms should I Google for, if the answer is STFW? Or if I am right, why aren't these calculations being pushed to the GPU as well?

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