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• How should I secure my webapp written using Wicket, Spring, and JPA?

  - by Martin

  So, I have an web-based application that is using the Wicket 1.4 framework, and it uses Spring beans, the Java Persistence API (JPA), and the OpenSessionInView pattern. I'm hoping to find a security model that is declarative, but doesn't require gobs of XML configuration -- I'd prefer annotations. Here are the options so far: Spring Security (guide) - looks complete, but every guide I find that combines it with Wicket still calls it Acegi Security, which makes me think it must be old. Wicket-Auth-Roles (guide 1 and guide 2) - Most guides recommend mixing this with Spring Security, and I love the declarative style of @Authorize("ROLE1","ROLE2",etc). I'm concerned about having to extend AuthenticatedWebApplication, since I'm already extending org.apache.wicket.protocol.http.WebApplication, and Spring is already proxying that behind org.apache.wicket.spring.SpringWebApplicationFactory. SWARM / WASP (guide) - This looks the newest (though the main contributor passed away years ago), but I hate all of the JAAS-styled text files that declare permissions for principals. I also don't like the idea of making an Action class for every single thing a user might want to do. Secure models also aren't immediately obvious to me. Plus, there isn't an Authn example. Additionally, it looks like lots of folks recommend mixing the first and second options. I can't tell what the best practice is at all, though.

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• Difference in BackgroundWorker thread access in VS2010 / .NET 4.0?

  - by Jonners

  Here's an interesting one - in VS2005 / VS2008 running against .NET 2.0 / .NET 3.0 / .NET 3.5, a BackgroundWorker thread may not directly update controls on a WinForms form that initiated that thread - you'll get a System.InvalidOperationException out of the BackgroundWorker stating "Cross-thread operation not valid: Control 'thecontrol' accessed from a thread other than the thread it was created on". I remember hitting this back in 2004 or so when I first started writing .NET WinForms apps with background threads. There are several ways around the problem - this is not a question asking for that answer. I've been told recently that this kind of operation is now allowed when written in VS2010 / .NET 4.0. This seems unlikely to me, since this kind of object access restriction has always been a fairly fundamental part of thread-safe programming. Allowing a BackgroundWorker thread direct access to objects owned not by itself but by its parent UI form seems contrary to that principle. A trawl through the .NET 4.0 docs hasn't revealed any obvious changes that could account for this behaviour. I don't have VS2010 / .NET 4.0 to test this out - does anyone who has access to that toolset know for sure whether the model has changed to allow that kind of thread interaction? I'd like to either take advantage of it in future, or deploy the cluestick. ;)

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• What VC++ compiler/linker does when building a C++ project with Managed Extension

  - by ???

  The initial problem is that I tried to rebuild a C++ project with debug symbols and copied it to test machine, The output of the project is external COM server(.exe file). When calling the COM interface function, there's a RPC call failre: COMException(0x800706BE): The remote procedure call failed. According to the COM HRESULT design, if the FACILITY code is 7, it's actually a WIN32 error, and the win32 error code is 0x6BE, which is the above mentioned "remote procedure call failed". All I do is replace the COM server .exe file, the origin file works well. When I checked into the project, I found it's a C++ project with Managed Extension. When I checking the DLL with reflector, it shows there's 2 additional .NET assembly reference. Then I checked the project setting and found nothing about the extra 2 assembly reference. I turned on the show includes option of compiler and verbose library of linker, and try to analyze whether the assembly is indirectly referenced via .h file. I've collect all the .h file and grep all the files with '#using' '#import' and the assembly file itself. There really is a '#using ' in one of the .h file but not-relevant to the referenced assembly. And about the linked .lib library files, only one of the .lib file is a side-product of another managed-extension-enabled C++ project, all others are produced by a pure, traditional C++ project. For the managed-extension-enabled C++ project, I checked the output DLL assembly, it did NOT reference to the 2 assembly. I even try to capture the access of the additional assembly file via sysinternal's filemon and procmon, but the rebuild process does NOT access these file. I'm very confused about the compile and linking process model of a VC++/CLI project, where the additional assembly reference slipped into the final assembly? Thanks in advance for any of your help.

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• Validations for a has_many/belongs_to relationship

  - by Craig Walker

  I have a Recipe model which has_many Ingredients (which in turn belongs_to Recipe). I want Ingredient to be existent dependent on Recipe; an Ingredient should never exist without a Recipe. I'm trying to enforce the presence of a valid Recipe ID in the Ingredient. I've been doing this with a validates :recipe, :presence => true (Rails 3) statement in Ingredient. This works fine if I save the Recipe before adding an Ingredient to it's ingredients collection. However, if I don't have explicit control over the saving (such as when I'm creating a Recipe and its Ingredients from a nested form) then I get an error: Ingredients recipe can't be blank I can get around this simply by dropping the presence validation on Ingredient.recipe. However, I don't particularly like this, as it means I'm working without a safety net. What is the best way to enforce existence-dependence in Rails? Things I'm considering (please comment on the wisdom of each): Adding a not-null constraint on the ingredients.recipe_id database column, and letting the database do the checking for me. A custom validation that somehow checks whether the Ingredient is in an unsaved recipe's ingredient collection (and thus can't have a recipe_id but is still considered valid).

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• Google app engine: Poor Performance with JDO + Datastore

  - by Bosh

  I have a simple data model that includes USERS: store basic information (key, name, phone # etc) RELATIONS: describe, e.g. a friendship between two users (supplying a relationship_type + two user keys) I'm getting very poor performance, for instance, if I try to print the first names of all of a user's friends. Say the user has 500 friends: I can fetch the list of friend user_ids very easily in a single query. But then, to pull out first names, I have to do 500 back-and-forth trips to the Datastore, each of which seems to take on the order of 30 ms. If this were SQL, I'd just do a JOIN and get the answer out fast. I understand there are rudimentary facilities for performing joins across un-owned relations in a relaxed implementation of JDO (as described at http://gae-java-persistence.blogspot.com) but they sound experimental and non-standard (e.g. my code won't work in any other JDO implementation). Is this really my best bet? Otherwise, how do people extract satisfactory performance from JDO/Datastore in this kind of (very common) situation? -Bosh

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• Why would ASP.NET MVC use session state?

  - by ray247

  Recommended by the ASP.NET team to use cache instead of session, we stopped using session from working with the WebForm model the last few years. So we normally have the session turned off in the web.config <sessionState mode="Off" /> But, now when I'm testing out a ASP.NET MVC application with this setting it throw an error in class SessionStateTempDataProvider inside the mvc framework, it asked me to turn on session state, I did and it worked. Looking at the source it uses session Dictionary<string, object> tempDataDictionary = httpContext.Session[TempDataSessionStateKey] as Dictionary<string, object>; // line 20 in SessionStateTempDataProvider.cs So, why would they use session here? What am I missing? Thanks, Ray. ======================================================== Edit Sorry didn't mean for this post to debate on session vs. cache, but rather in the context of the ASP.NET MVC, I was just wondering why session is used here. In this Scott Watermasysk blog post he mentioned on turning off session too as a good practice, so I'm just wondering do I have to turn it on to use MVC from here on?

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• Asp.net mvc retriev images from db and display on Page

  - by Trey Carroll

  //Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<FilmFestWeb.Models.ListVideosViewModel>" <h2>ListVideos</h2> <% foreach(BusinessObjects.Video vid in Model.VideoList){%> <div class="videoBox"> <%= Html.Encode(vid.Name) %> <img src="<% vid.ThumbnailImage; %>" /> </div> <%} %> //ListVideosViewModel public class ListVideosViewModel { public IList<Video> VideoList { get; set; } } //Video public class Video { public long VideoId { get; set; } public long TeamId { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public string Tags { get; set; } public string TeamMembers { get; set; } public string TranscriptFileName { get; set; } public string VideoFileName { get; set; } public int TotalNumRatings { get; set; } public int CumulativeTotalScore { get; set; } public string VideoUri { get; set; } public Image ThumbnailImage { get; set; } } I am getting the "red x" that I usually associate with image file not found. I have verified that my database table shows <binary data> after the stored proc that uploads the image executes. Any insight or advice would be greatly appreciated.

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• Testing ActionFilterAttributes with MSpec

  - by Tomas Lycken

  I'm currently trying to grasp MSpec, mainly to learn new ways of (T/B)DD to be able to make an educated decision on which technology to use. Previously, I've mostly (read: only) used the built-in MSTest framework with Moq, so BDD is quite new for me. I'm writing an ASP.NET MVC app, and I want to implement PRG. Last time I did this, I used action filters to export and import ModelState via TempData, so that I could return a RedirectResult and the validation errors would still be there when the user got the view. I tested that scenario by verifying two things: a) That the ExportModelStateAttribute I had written was applied (among tests for my controller) b) That the attribute worked (among tests for action filter attributes) However, in BDD I've understood I should be even more concerned with behavior, and even less with implementation. This means I should probably just verify that the model state is in tempdata when the action has finished executing - not necessarily that it's done via an attribute. To further complicate things, attributes are not run when calling the action directly in the test, so I can't just call the action and see if the job's been done. How should I spec/test this in MSpec?

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• C++ Switch won't compile with externally defined variable used as case

  - by C Nielsen

  I'm writing C++ using the MinGW GNU compiler and the problem occurs when I try to use an externally defined integer variable as a case in a switch statement. I get the following compiler error: "case label does not reduce to an integer constant". Because I've defined the integer variable as extern I believe that it should compile, does anyone know what the problem may be? Below is an example: test.cpp #include <iostream> #include "x_def.h" int main() { std::cout << "Main Entered" << std::endl; switch(0) { case test_int: std::cout << "Case X" << std::endl; break; default: std::cout << "Case Default" << std::endl; break; } return 0; } x_def.h extern const int test_int; x_def.cpp const int test_int = 0; This code will compile correctly on Visual C++ 2008. Furthermore a Montanan friend of mine checked the ISO C++ standard and it appears that any const-integer expression should work. Is this possibly a compiler bug or have I missed something obvious? Here's my compiler version information: Reading specs from C:/MinGW/bin/../lib/gcc/mingw32/3.4.5/specs Configured with: ../gcc-3.4.5-20060117-3/configure --with-gcc --with-gnu-ld --with-gnu-as --host=mingw32 --target=mingw32 --prefix=/mingw --enable-threads --disable-nls --enable-languages=c,c++,f77,ada,objc,java --disable-win32-registry --disable-shared --enable-sjlj-exceptions --enable-libgcj --disable-java-awt --without-x --enable-java-gc=boehm --disable-libgcj-debug --enable-interpreter --enable-hash-synchronization --enable-libstdcxx-debug Thread model: win32 gcc version 3.4.5 (mingw-vista special r3)

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• RSpec: Can't convert Image to String when using Nested Resource.

  - by darrint

  I'm having trouble with and RSpec view test. I'm using nested resources and the model with a belongs_to association. Here's what I have so far: describe "/images/edit.html.erb" do include ImagesHelper before(:each) do @image_pool = stub_model(ImagePool, :new_record => false, :base_path => '/') assigns[:image] = @image = stub_model(Image, :new_record? => false, :source_name => "value for source_name", :image_pool => @image_pool) end it "renders the edit image form" do render response.should have_tag("form[action=#{image_path(@image)}][method=post]") do with_tag('input#image_source_name[name=?]', "image[source_name]") end end end The error I'm receiving: ActionView::TemplateError in '/images/edit.html.erb renders the edit image form' can't convert Image into String On line #3 of app/views/images/edit.html.erb 1: <h1>Editing image</h1> 2: 3: <% form_for(@image) do |f| %> 4: <%= f.error_messages %> 5: 6: <p> app/views/images/edit.html.erb:3 /opt/dtcm/railstest/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rspec-rails-1.3.2/lib/spec/rails/extensions/action_view/base.rb:27:in `render_with_mock_proxy' /opt/dtcm/railstest/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rspec-rails-1.3.2/lib/spec/rails/example/view_example_group.rb:170:in `render' Looking at the rails code where the exception occurs is not very revealing. Any ideas on how I can narrow down what is going on here? One thing I tried was calling form_for directly from the example and I got a different error griping about lack of 'polymorphic_path' defined on Spec::Rails::Example::ViewExampleGroup::Subclass_4:0xblah. Not sure if that actually means anything.

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• Setting up relations/mappings for a SQLAlchemy many-to-many database

  - by Brent Ramerth

  I'm new to SQLAlchemy and relational databases, and I'm trying to set up a model for an annotated lexicon. I want to support an arbitrary number of key-value annotations for the words which can be added or removed at runtime. Since there will be a lot of repetition in the names of the keys, I don't want to use this solution directly, although the code is similar. My design has word objects and property objects. The words and properties are stored in separate tables with a property_values table that links the two. Here's the code: from sqlalchemy import Column, Integer, String, Table, create_engine from sqlalchemy import MetaData, ForeignKey from sqlalchemy.orm import relation, mapper, sessionmaker from sqlalchemy.ext.declarative import declarative_base engine = create_engine('sqlite:///test.db', echo=True) meta = MetaData(bind=engine) property_values = Table('property_values', meta, Column('word_id', Integer, ForeignKey('words.id')), Column('property_id', Integer, ForeignKey('properties.id')), Column('value', String(20)) ) words = Table('words', meta, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('name', String(20)), Column('freq', Integer) ) properties = Table('properties', meta, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('name', String(20), nullable=False, unique=True) ) meta.create_all() class Word(object): def __init__(self, name, freq=1): self.name = name self.freq = freq class Property(object): def __init__(self, name): self.name = name mapper(Property, properties) Now I'd like to be able to do the following: Session = sessionmaker(bind=engine) s = Session() word = Word('foo', 42) word['bar'] = 'yes' # or word.bar = 'yes' ? s.add(word) s.commit() Ideally this should add 1|foo|42 to the words table, add 1|bar to the properties table, and add 1|1|yes to the property_values table. However, I don't have the right mappings and relations in place to make this happen. I get the sense from reading the documentation at http://www.sqlalchemy.org/docs/05/mappers.html#association-pattern that I want to use an association proxy or something of that sort here, but the syntax is unclear to me. I experimented with this: mapper(Word, words, properties={ 'properties': relation(Property, secondary=property_values) }) but this mapper only fills in the foreign key values, and I need to fill in the other value as well. Any assistance would be greatly appreciated.

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• getting data from dynamic schema

  - by coure2011

  I am using mongoose/nodejs to get data as json from mongodb. For using mongoose I need to define schema first like this var mongoose = require('mongoose'); var Schema = mongoose.Schema; var GPSDataSchema = new Schema({ createdAt: { type: Date, default: Date.now } ,speed: {type: String, trim: true} ,battery: { type: String, trim: true } }); var GPSData = mongoose.model('GPSData', GPSDataSchema); mongoose.connect('mongodb://localhost/gpsdatabase'); var db = mongoose.connection; db.on('open', function() { console.log('DB Started'); }); then in code I can get data from db like GPSData.find({"createdAt" : { $gte : dateStr, $lte: nextDate }}, function(err, data) { res.writeHead(200, { "Content-Type": "application/json", "Access-Control-Allow-Origin": "*" }); var body = JSON.stringify(data); res.end(body); }); How to define scheme for a complex data like this, you can see that subSection can go to any deeper level. [ { 'title': 'Some Title', 'subSection': [{ 'title': 'Inner1', 'subSection': [ {'titile': 'test', 'url': 'ab/cd'} ] }] }, .. ]

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• EF Code First - Relationships

  - by CaffGeek

  I have these classes public class EntityBase : IEntity { public int Id { get; set; } public DateTime Created { get; set; } public string CreatedBy { get; set; } public DateTime Updated { get; set; } public string UpdatedBy { get; set; } } public class EftInterface : EntityBase { public string Name { get; set; } public Provider Provider { get; set; } public List<BusinessUnit> BusinessUnits { get; set; } } public class Provider : EntityBase, IEntity { public string Name { get; set; } public decimal DefaultDebitLimit { get; set; } public decimal DefaultCreditLimit { get; set; } public decimal TreasuryDebitLimit { get; set; } public decimal TreasuryCreditLimit { get; set; } } public class BusinessUnit : EntityBase { public string Name { get; set; } } An interface, is really a Provider, with a collection of Business Units. The issue is that while my db model ends up having a correct EftInterfaces table, with a FK to Provider_Id, the BusinessUnits table has a FK to EftInterface_Id. But, a BusinessUnit can be included in more than one EftInterface. I need a many to many relationship. A BusinessUnit can be part of many EftInterfaces, and an EftInterface can contain many BusinessUnits. How can I get CodeFirst to generate the many-to-many table?

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• Checking for nil in view in Ruby on Rails

  - by seaneshbaugh

  I've been working with Rails for a while now and one thing I find myself constantly doing is checking to see if some attribute or object is nil in my view code before I display it. I'm starting to wonder if this is always the best idea. My rationale so far has been that since my application(s) rely on user input unexpected things can occur. If I've learned one thing from programming in general it's that users inputting things the programmer didn't think of is one of the biggest sources of run-time errors. By checking for nil values I'm hoping to sidestep that and have my views gracefully handle the problem. The thing is though I typically for various reasons have similar nil or invalid value checks in either my model or controller code. I wouldn't call it code duplication in the strictest sense, but it just doesn't seem very DRY. If I've already checked for nil objects in my controller is it okay if my view just assumes the object truly isn't nil? For attributes that can be nil that are displayed it makes sense to me to check every time, but for the objects themselves I'm not sure what is the best practice. Here's a simplified, but typical example of what I'm talking about: controller code def show @item = Item.find_by_id(params[:id]) @folders = Folder.find(:all, :order => 'display_order') if @item == nil or @item.folder == nil redirect_to(root_url) and return end end view code <% if @item != nil %> display the item's attributes here <% if @item.folder != nil %> <%= link_to @item.folder.name, folder_path(@item.folder) %> <% end %> <% else %> Oops! Looks like something went horribly wrong! <% end %> Is this a good idea or is it just silly?

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• How do I keep my DataService up to date with ObservableCollection?

  - by joebeazelman

  I have a class called CustomerService which simply reads a collection of customers from a file or creates one and passes it back to the Main Model View where it is turned into an ObservableCollection. What the best practice for making sure the items in the CustomerService and ObservableCollection are in sync. I'm guessing I could hookup the CustomerService object to respond to RaisePropertyChanged, but isn't this only for use with WPF controls? Is there a better way? using System; public class MainModelView { public MainModelView() { _customers = new ObservableCollection<CustomerViewModel>(new CustomerService().GetCustomers()); } public const string CustomersPropertyName = "Customers" private ObservableCollection<CustomerViewModel> _customers; public ObservableCollection<CustomerViewModel> Customers { get { return _customers; } set { if (_customers == value) { return; } var oldValue = _customers; _customers = value; // Update bindings and broadcast change using GalaSoft.MvvmLight.Messenging RaisePropertyChanged(CustomersPropertyName, oldValue, value, true); } } } public class CustomerService { /// <summary> /// Load all persons from file on disk. /// </summary> _customers = new List<CustomerViewModel> { new CustomerViewModel(new Customer("Bob", "" )), new CustomerViewModel(new Customer("Bob 2", "" )), new CustomerViewModel(new Customer("Bob 3", "" )), }; public IEnumerable<LinkViewModel> GetCustomers() { return _customers; } }

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• What changes in Core Data after a save?

  - by Splash6

  I have a Core Data based mac application that is working perfectly well until I save a file. When I save a file it seems like something changes in core data because my original fetch request no longer fetches anything. This is the fetch request that works before saving but returns an empty array after saving. NSEntityDescription *outputCellEntityDescription = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"OutputCell" inManagedObjectContext:[[self document] managedObjectContext]]; NSFetchRequest *outputCellRequest = [[[NSFetchRequest alloc] init] autorelease]; [outputCellRequest setEntity:outputCellEntityDescription]; NSPredicate *outputCellPredicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"(cellTitle = %@)", outputCellTitle]; [outputCellRequest setPredicate:outputCellPredicate]; NSError *outputCellError = nil; NSArray *outputCellArray = [[[self document] managedObjectContext] executeFetchRequest:outputCellRequest error:&outputCellError]; I have checked with [[[self document] managedObjectContext] registeredObjects] to see that the object still exists after the save and nothing seems to have changed and the object still exists. It is probably something fairly basic but does anyone know what I might be doing wrong? If not can anyone give me any pointers to what might be different in the Core Data model after a save so I might have some clues why the fetch request stops working after saving?

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• Where do I put javaassist code?

  - by DutrowLLC

  I have an application running on google app engine. I'm using restlets and I have a couple of layers set up including the restlet layer, the model layer, the business layer, and the data layer. I'm attempting to use javaassist to modify some classes, but I'm unsure where to actually put the code. I tried to put the code in the static initialization block: public class Person { String firstName; String getFirstName(){return null;} static{ ClassPool pool = ClassPool.getDefault(); try { CtClass CtPerson = pool.get("Person"); CtMethod CtGetFirstName = CtPerson.getDeclaredMethod("GetFirstName"); CtGetFirstName.setBody("return firstName;"); CtPerson.toClass(); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } ...but that resulted in this error: javassist.CannotCompileException:.....attempted duplicate class definition...". I guess it makes sense that I can't edit the class file in the middle of its generation. I know the code works because I was able to run it correctly by simply putting it in a location that would run when I sent the program a command. (accessed a Restlet resource). The code ran fine if an instance of the class had not already been instantiated, however once I instantiated an instance of the affected class, the javaassist code failed. I assume I need to put this code somewhere that it will only run either: once after the program starts, directly before a class is instantiated for the first time, or even better, during compile time.

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• How to efficiently compare the sign of two floating-point values while handling negative zeros

  - by François Beaune

  Given two floating-point numbers, I'm looking for an efficient way to check if they have the same sign, given that if any of the two values is zero (+0.0 or -0.0), they should be considered to have the same sign. For instance, SameSign(1.0, 2.0) should return true SameSign(-1.0, -2.0) should return true SameSign(-1.0, 2.0) should return false SameSign(0.0, 1.0) should return true SameSign(0.0, -1.0) should return true SameSign(-0.0, 1.0) should return true SameSign(-0.0, -1.0) should return true A naive but correct implementation of SameSign in C++ would be: bool SameSign(float a, float b) { if (fabs(a) == 0.0f || fabs(b) == 0.0f) return true; return (a >= 0.0f) == (b >= 0.0f); } Assuming the IEEE floating-point model, here's a variant of SameSign that compiles to branchless code (at least with with Visual C++ 2008): bool SameSign(float a, float b) { int ia = binary_cast<int>(a); int ib = binary_cast<int>(b); int az = (ia & 0x7FFFFFFF) == 0; int bz = (ib & 0x7FFFFFFF) == 0; int ab = (ia ^ ib) >= 0; return (az | bz | ab) != 0; } with binary_cast defined as follow: template <typename Target, typename Source> inline Target binary_cast(Source s) { union { Source m_source; Target m_target; } u; u.m_source = s; return u.m_target; } I'm looking for two things: A faster, more efficient implementation of SameSign, using bit tricks, FPU tricks or even SSE intrinsics. An efficient extension of SameSign to three values.

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• Web development scheme for staging and production servers using Git Push

  - by ServAce85

  I am using git to manage a dynamic website (PHP + MySQL) and I want to send my files from my localhost to my staging and development servers in the most efficient and hassle-free way. I am currently convinced that the best way for me to approach this problem is to use this git branching model to organize my local git repo. From there, I will use the release branches to push to my staging server for testing. Once I am happy that the release code works on the staging server, I can then merge with my master branch and push that to my production server. Pushing to Staging Server: As noted in many introductory git posts, I could run into problems pushing into a non-bare repo, so, as suggested in this response, I plan to push the release branch to a bare repo on the server and have a post-receive hook that clones the bare repo to a non-bare repo that also acts as the web-hosted directory. Pushing to Production Server: Here's my newest source of confusion... In the response that I cited above, it made me curious as to why @Paul states that it's a completely different story when pushing to a live, development server. I guess I don't see the problem. Would it be safe and hassle-free to follow the same steps as above, but for the master branch? Where are the potential pit-falls? Config Files: With respect to configuration files that are unique to each environment (.htaccess, config.php, etc), it seems simplest to .gitignore each of those files in their respective repos on their respective servers. Can you see anything immediately wrong with this? Better solutions? Accessing Data: Finally, as I initially stated, the site uses MySQL databases to store data. How would you suggest I access that data (for testing purposes) from the staging server and localhost? I realize that I may have asked way too many questions for a single post, but since they're all related to the best way to set up this development scheme, I thought it was necessary.

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• Anchor as a Submit button

  - by griegs

  I have an MVC 2 application that has the following on it; <% using( Html.BeginForm("Results","Quote", FormMethod.Post, new { name="Results" })){ %> <% Html.RenderPartial("Needs", Model.needs); %> <div class="But green" style=""> <a href="." onclick="javascript:document.Results.submit();">Go</a> </div> <input type="submit" /> <%} %> Pressing the Submit button or the anchor both post back to the right ActionResult. However, when in the controller I return View(stuff..) only the Submit button will come back to the page. When the call finishes from pressing the anchor, I go to an error page informing me that the resource cannot be found. I suspect it has something to do with href="." but am unsure what to set it to.

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• jeditable table cell

  - by user666262

  Hi all, I am having an issue when using jeditable to edit a cell in a table. The project is the MVC 2 web application and the table has been put on the standard about page. How do i tell the script to call a specific method in the controller ? because it is currently just loading the entire page into the cell. This is the javascript: $(document).ready(function () { $('.editable').editable('http://localhost:2196/Home/About', { type: 'text', cancel: 'Cancel', event: 'dblclick', submit: 'OK', tooltip: 'double Click to edit...' }); }); This is the table : <% foreach (DataTableEditable.Models.Company item in (IEnumerable<DataTableEditable.Models.Company>)Model) {%> <tr id="<%= Html.Encode(item.ID) %>"> <td class="editable"><%= Html.Encode(item.Name) %> </td> <td><%= Html.Encode(item.Address) %> </td> <td><%= Html.Encode(item.Town) %> </td> </tr> <% }%> Thanks lots John

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• sql server mdf file database attachment

  - by jnsohnumr

  hello all i'm having a bear of a time getting visual studio 2010 (ultimate i think) to properly attach to my database. it was moved from original spot to #MYAPP#/#MYAPP#.Web/App_Data/#MDF_FILE#.mdf. I have three instances of sql server running on this machine. i have tried to replace the old mdf file with my new one and cannot get the connectionstring right for it. what i'm really wanting to do is to just open some DB instance, run a DB create script. Then I can have a DB that was generated via my edmx (generate database from model) in silverlight business application (c#) right now, when i go to server explorer in VS, choose add new connection, choose MS SQL Server Database FIle (SqlClient), choose my file location (app_data directory), use windows authentication, and hit the Test Connection button I get the following error: Unable to open the physical file "". Operating system error 5: "5(Access Denied.)". An attempt to attach to an auto-named database for file"" failed. A database with the same name exists, or specified file cannot be opened, or it is located on UNC share. The mdf file was created on the same machine by connecting to (local) on the sql server management studio, getting a new query, pasting in the SQL from the generated ddl file, adding a CREATE DATABASE [NcrCarDatabase]; GO before the pasted SQL, and executing the query. I then disconnected from the DB in management studio, closed management studio, navigated to the DATA directory for that instance, and copying the mdf and ldf files to my application's app_data folder. I am then trying to connect to the same file inside visual studio. I hope that gives more clarity to my problems :). Connection string is: Data Source=.\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=C:\SourceCode\NcrCarDatabase\NcrCarDatabase.Web\App_Data\NcrCarDatabase.mdf;Integrated Security=True;Connect Timeout=30;User Instance=True

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• android: consume key press, bypassing framework processing

  - by user360024

  What I want android to do: when user presses a single key, have the view respond, but do so without opening a text area and displaying the character associated with the key that was pressed, and without requiring that the Enter key be pressed, and without requiring that the user press Esc to make the text area go away. For example, when user presses "u" (and doesn't press Enter), that means "undo the last action", so the controller and model immediately undo the last action, then the view does an invalidate() and user sees that their last action has been undone. In other words the "u" key press should be silently processed, such that the only visual result is that user's last action has been undone. I've implemented OnKeyListener and provided an onKey() method: the class: public class MyGameView extends View implements OnKeyListener{ in the constructor: //2010jun06, phj: With onKey(), helps let this View consume key presses // before the framework gets a chance to consume the key press. setOnKeyListener((View.OnKeyListener)this); the onKey() method: public boolean onKey(View v, int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { if (keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_R) { Log.d("BWA", "In onKey received keycode associated with R."); } return true; // meaning the event (key press) has been consumed, so // the framework should not handle this event. } but when user presses "u" key on the emulator keypad, a textarea is opened at the bottom of the screen, the "u" charater is displayed there, and the onKey() method doesn't execute until user presses the Enter key. Is there a way to make android do what I want? Thanks,

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• EMF ecore and xsd out of sync, how to resolve ?

  - by SeB

  Hi there, My application is using a model base on an xsd that have been converted to an ecore before generation of the java classes. One of my team member modified the .ecore metamodel in a previous version ,one attribute that used to be generated. He modified the attribute name but not the Extended MetaData specifying the element name used for xml persistance. <eStructuralFeatures xsi:type="ecore:EReference" name="javaDocsAndUserApi" upperBound="-1" eType="#//JavaDocsAndUserApi" containment="true" resolveProxies="false"> <eAnnotations source="http:///org/eclipse/emf/ecore/util/ExtendedMetaData"> <details key="kind" value="element"/> <details key="name" value="docsAndUserApi"/> </eAnnotations> </eStructuralFeatures> so we have an attribute name which is javaDocsAndUserApi and the persisted element named docsAndUserApi, and of course if I create change the attribute in the xsd to be named javaDocsAndUserApi, the ecore transformation will generate a metadata name javaDocsAndUserApi as well, which will break compatibility with previously persisted models. I have looked at xsd authoring guide to find an ecore:som_attribute that would allow me to specify which key to use in the xsd to force the metadata to be named docsAndUserApi during the xsd to ecore transformation but did not find anything. Does anybody have an idea to help me? Thank you.

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• SystemStackError in Rails::ActiveSupport::Callbacks

  - by coreyward

  I'm building a Rails app that connects to Dropbox and syncs with a folder to update a personal site. I'm using Rails 3.0.3, Ruby 1.9.2, and the Dropbox gem. Right now I have a DropboxAccounts Controller, and two models: DropboxSession, which wraps calls to the gem with application-specific functionality, and DropboxAccount, which stores the session and settings in the database. After the user authorizes their account with Dropbox they're redirected back over and the DropboxAccount is saved with the authorized session. That all works just fine. My problem is that when I try to call Dropbox::API#create_folder(any path) I end up with a SystemStackError in lib/activesupport/callbacks.rb:421 which refers to the code below. If I remove the call to create the folder, it works. If I call create folder from another request, it works. I doubled the stack size to 16K to no avail. # This is called the first time a callback is called with a particular # key. It creates a new callback method for the key, calculating # which callbacks can be omitted because of per_key conditions. # def __create_keyed_callback(name, kind, object, &blk) #:nodoc: @_keyed_callbacks ||= {} @_keyed_callbacks[name] ||= begin str = send("_#{kind}_callbacks").compile(name, object) class_eval <<-RUBY_EVAL, __FILE__, __LINE__ + 1 def #{name}() #{str} end # THIS IS LINE 421 protected :#{name} RUBY_EVAL true end end I'm not very familiar with Rails yet, and I'm not sure what the intention of the code above is or why it would cause a stack overflow. I'm not using any method_missing/ghost method magic in my code. I suspected it was something with a callback serialize :files but commenting it out did nothing. My DropboxAccount model contains only a call to belongs_to :user, and DropboxSession is just a handful of methods, none of which contain callbacks. Bypassing them and using the Dropbox::Session methods directly doesn't help. I hope someone on StackOverflow can help me with this stack overflow. ;)

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