Search Results

Search found 16467 results on 659 pages for 'request filtering'.

Page 560/659 | < Previous Page | 556 557 558 559 560 561 562 563 564 565 566 567  | Next Page >

  • Best pratice: How do I implement a list similar to Stackoverflow's Users List?

    - by André Pena
    Technologies involved: ASP.NET Web-forms Javascript (jQuery for instance) Case To make it clearer let's give the Stackoverflow Users list as an example. This list can be manipulated at client-side. I can search, page and so forth. So obviously we would need to call jQuery.ajax to retrieve the HTML of each page given a search. Alright. Now this leaves me with the first question: What is the best way to render the response for the jQuery.ajax at server-side? I can't use templates I suppose, so the most obvious solution I think is to create the HTML tags as server-controls and render them as the result of an ASHX request? Is this is best approach? Nice. That solved we have yet another problem: When the user first enters the Authors List the first list page should already come from the server completely rendered alright? Of course we could render the first page as well as an ajax call but I don't think it's better. This time I CAN use templates to render the list but this template couldn't be reused in case 1. What do I do? Now the final question: Now we have 2 rendering strategies: 1) Client and 2) Server. How do I reuse code for the 2 renderings? What are the best pratices for solving these problems?

    Read the article

  • Semaphore race condition?

    - by poindexter12
    I have created a "Manager" class that contains a limited set of resources. The resources are stored in the "Manager" as a Queue. I initialize the Queue and a Semaphore to the same size, using the semaphore to block a thread if there are no resources available. I have multiple threads calling into this class to request a resource. Here is the psuedo code: public IResource RequestResource() { IResource resource = null; _semaphore.WaitOne(); lock (_syncLock) { resource = _resources.Dequeue(); } return resource; } public void ReleaseResource(IResource resource) { lock (_syncLock) { _resources.Enqueue(resource); } _semaphore.Release(); } While running this application, it seems to run fine for a while. Then, it seems like my Queue is giving out the same object. Does this seem like its possible? I'm pulling my hair out over here, and any help would be greatly appreciated. Feel free to ask for more information if you need it. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Debugging mono assembly load error

    - by Will I Am
    I am running asp.net/mono on Ubuntu with lighthttpd/fastcgi. Somehow I suspect an assembly reference sneaked in that I cannot track down, and it's causing my application to fail (it works fine on windows under MS.NET). When I try it under mono, I get: Failed to create shadow copy (CopyFile). Description: HTTP 500. Error processing request. Stack Trace: System.ExecutionEngineException: Failed to create shadow copy (CopyFile). at (wrapper managed-to-native) System.Reflection.Assembly:LoadFrom (string,bool) at System.Reflection.Assembly.LoadFrom (System.String assemblyFile) [0x00000] at System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.LoadAssembly (System.String path, System.Collections.Generic.List`1 al) [0x00000] at System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.GetReferencedAssemblies () [0x00000] at System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.GenerateAssembly (System.Web.Compilation.AssemblyBuilder abuilder, System.Collections.Generic.List`1 buildItems, System.Web.VirtualPath virtualPath, BuildKind buildKind) [0x00000] at System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.BuildAssembly (System.Web.VirtualPath virtualPath) [0x00000] at System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.GetCompiledType (System.String virtualPath) [0x00000] at System.Web.HttpApplicationFactory.InitType (System.Web.HttpContext context) [0x00000] Version information: Mono Version: 2.0.50727.1433; ASP.NET Version: 2.0.50727.1433 I am at a loss to how to debug this, as it's not giving me a hint of what assembly it's having problem with. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Moving a ASP.NET application to the cloud

    - by user102533
    I am new to cloud computing, so please bear with me here. I have an existing ASP.NET application with SQL Server 2008 hosted on a Virtual Private Server. Here's what it briefly does: The front end accepts user's requests and adds them to a DB table A Windows Service running in the background picks up the request, processes it and sets a flag. The Windows Services also creates a file for the user to download. User downloads file I'd like to move this web application with the service to the cloud. The architecture I envision is that I'll have 1 Web server in which I will install the front end and the windows service. I'll also have a cloud files server for file storage. The windows service should somehow create a file and transfer it to the cloud file server (I assume this is possible?) My questions: Does the architecture look like I am going in the right direction? I know Amazon has been providing cloud services for a long time. If I want to do minimal changes to my application, should I go with Amazon, Rackspace, Azure or some other provider? I understand that I would not only pay for file storage and web server but also for the bandwidth of users downloading the file and the windows servic uploading the file to the cloud server. Can I assume these costs are negligible? Should I go with VPS + Cloud Files combination to begin with? Any other thoughts/suggestions?

    Read the article

  • asynchronous pages

    - by lockedscope
    I have just read the multi-threading and custom threading in asp.net articles. http://www.williablog.net/williablog/post/2008/12/16/Custom-Threading-in-ASPNET.aspx http://www.williablog.net/williablog/post/2008/12/16/Multi-Threading-in-ASPNET.aspx I have couple of questions. What does he mean by returning a thread to the pool? Is that thread completely removed from memory or put in to a state that it does not scheduled to CPU(is it in sleep state or whatever)? If that thread is removed from memory how could it survive after async point? How this mechanism works? Are every objects(pages class, request,response etc.) are copied to somewhere else before they are disposed? (Or, is it just waiting in a sleep state and then its waked when async call ends?) He is saying that; "Having said that, making pages asynchronous is not really about improving performance, it is about improving scalability" then he is saying; "I'm sorry to say that it will do nothing for scalability or performance." So which one is true? or for which case(s) are they true?

    Read the article

  • Why does my Perl CGI script complain about "Can't locate CGI/Simple.pm"?

    - by dexter
    For more information see this Example use strict; use warnings; use CGI::Simple; use DBI; my $cgi = CGI::Simple->new; my $dsn = sprintf( 'DBI:mysql:database=%s;host=%s', 'cdcol', 'localhost' ); my $dbh = DBI->connect($dsn, root => '', { AutoCommit => 0, RaiseError => 0 } ); my $status = $dbh ? 'Connected' : 'Failed to connect'; print $cgi->header, <<HTML; <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head><title>Test</title></head> <body> <h1>Perl CGI Script</h1> <p>$status</p> </body> </html> HTML This code gives me error: The server encountered an internal error and was unable to complete your request. Error message: Can't locate CGI/Simple.pm in @INC (@INC contains: C:/xampp/perl/site/lib/ C:/xampp/perl/lib C:/xampp/perl/site/lib C:/xampp/apache) at C:/xampp/htdocs/perl/index.pl line 4. BEGIN failed--compilation aborted at C:/xampp/htdocs/perl/index.pl line 4. , Error 500 localhost 3/25/2010 11:19:19 AM Apache/2.2.14 (Win32) DAV/2 mod_ssl/2.2.14 OpenSSL/0.9.8l mod_autoindex_color PHP/5.3.1 mod_apreq2-20090110/2.7.1 mod_perl/2.0.4 Perl/v5.10.1 What does this mean and how can I resolve it?

    Read the article

  • EPIPE blocks server

    - by timn
    I have written a single-threaded asynchronous server in C running on Linux: The socket is non-blocking and as for polling, I am using epoll. Benchmarks show that the server performs fine and according to Valgrind, there are no memory leaks or other problems. The only problem is that when a write() command is interrupted (because the client closed the connection), the server will encounter a SIGPIPE. I am doing the interrupted artifically by running the benchmarking utility "siege" with the parameter -b. It does lots of requests in a row which all work perfectly. Now I press CTRL-C and restart the "siege". Sometimes I am lucky and the server does not manage to send the full response because the client's fd is invalid. As expected errno is set to EPIPE. I handle this situation, execute close() on the fd and then free the memory related to the connection. Now the problem is that the server blocks and does not answer properly anymore. Here is the strace output: accept(3, {sa_family=AF_INET, sin_port=htons(50611), sin_addr=inet_addr("127.0.0.1")}, [16]) = 5 fcntl64(5, F_GETFD) = 0 fcntl64(5, F_SETFL, O_RDONLY|O_NONBLOCK) = 0 epoll_ctl(4, EPOLL_CTL_ADD, 5, {EPOLLIN|EPOLLERR|EPOLLHUP|EPOLLET, {u32=158310248, u64=158310248}}) = 0 epoll_wait(4, {{EPOLLIN, {u32=158310248, u64=158310248}}}, 128, -1) = 1 read(5, "GET /user/register HTTP/1.1\r\nHos"..., 4096) = 161 write(5, "HTTP/1.1 200 OK\r\nContent-Type: t"..., 106) = 106 <<<<< write(5, "00001000\r\n", 10) = -1 EPIPE (Broken pipe) <<<<< Why did the previous write() work fine but not this one? --- SIGPIPE (Broken pipe) @ 0 (0) --- As you can see, the client establishes a new connection which consequently is accepted. Then, it's added to the EPOLL queue. epoll_wait() signalises that the client sent data (EPOLLIN). The request is parsed and and a response is composed. Sending the headers works fine but when it comes to the body, write() results in an EPIPE. It is not a bug in "siege" because it blocks any incoming connections, no matter from which client.

    Read the article

  • Retrieve JSON with stackoverflow API

    - by ArtWorkAD
    Hi, I want to retrieve the information of my stackoverflow profile as JSON using the api. So I use this link http:/api.stackoverflow.com/1.0/users/401025/. But when I make the request I get a file containing the JSON data. How do I deal with that file using javascript? Here is my code (http://jsfiddle.net/hJhfU/2/): <html> <head> <script> var req; getReputation(); function getReputation(){ req = new XMLHttpRequest(); req.open('GET', 'http://api.stackoverflow.com/1.0/users/401025/'); req.onreadystatechange = processUser; req.send(); } function processUser(){ var res = JSON.parse(req.responseText); alert('test'); } </script> </head> The alert is never fired and req.responseText seems to be empty. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • What can be a cookie? How to set with OUTPUT? RETURNVALUE?

    - by Ronnie Chester Lynwood
    hello. i think i got some problems with setting a cookie data. for this code: Set cmdDB = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Command") With cmdDB .ActiveConnection = ADOConM .CommandText = "usp_jaljava_member_select" .CommandType = adCmdStoredProc .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("RETURN_VALUE", adInteger, adParamReturnValue, 0) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@TLoginName", adVarChar, adParamInput, 15,lcase(TLoginName)) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@TPassword", adVarChar, adParamInput, 20,TPassword) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@retval", adVarChar, adParamOutput, 50) ' .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@TPinCode", adVarChar, adParamInput, 15,TPinCode) .Execute,,adExecuteNoRecords RetVal = .Parameters("@retval") Ret = Trim(.Parameters("RETURN_VALUE")) 'Set .ActiveConnection = Nothing End With Set cmdDB = Nothing UTid = RetVal if Ret = 100 then deleteInvalidLogin(TLoginName) SetDomainCookie "UTid",UTid SetDomainCookie "Uid", TLoginName if redirect_domain <> "" then Response.Write "<form name=frm action=" & urlserver & " method=post><input type=hidden name=loginname value='" & TLoginName & "'><input type=hidden name=id value=""" & Request.Cookies("UTID") & """></form><script>frm.submit();</script>" Response.End else%> <% Response.Redirect ("kologin.asp?id=OK") Response.End end if RETURN_VALUE is returns as 100. But I don't know.. UTID! What is UTID have to be? If I set UTID same as UID will it work? thanks..

    Read the article

  • delphi post 'illegal access' error

    - by paul
    hello all im making some delphi simple software which using Idhttp module in indy. i want to access ' http://mybuddy.buddybuddy.co.kr/userinfo/UserInfo.asp ' this page by use idhttp's post function. to open this webpage firstly have to login(http://user.buddybuddy.co.kr/Login/Login.asp), so i was logged in but problem is after logged in webpage i can see another login page but when try to login(http://user.buddybuddy.co.kr/usercheck/UserCheckPWExec.asp) , i encountered some error message 'illegal access'. if anyone help me much appreciate! begin sl.Clear; sl.Add('ID=ph896011'); sl.add('PWD=pk1089'); sl.add('SECCHK=0'); IdHTTP1.HandleRedirects := True; IdHTTP1.Request.ContentType := 'application/x-www-form-urlencoded'; memo1.Text:=idhttp1.Post('http://user.buddybuddy.co.kr/Login/Login.asp',sl); if pos('top.location =',Memo1.Text)> 0 then begin application.ProcessMessages; sleep(1000); Memo1.Text:= ''; sleep(300); sl2.Clear; sl2.Add('PASSWD=pk1089' ); Memo2.Text := IdHTTP1.Post('http://user.buddybuddy.co.kr/usercheck/UserCheckPWExec.asp', sl2); result.Caption := 'login success' ; sleep(300); Memo1.Text := ''; //memo1.Text := IdHTTP1.Get('https://user.buddybuddy.co.kr/Login/Logout.asp'); //Sleep(1000); end;

    Read the article

  • Datastore performance, my code or the datastore latency

    - by fredrik
    I had for the last month a bit of a problem with a quite basic datastore query. It involves 2 db.Models with one referring to the other with a db.ReferenceProperty. The problem is that according to the admin logs the request takes about 2-4 seconds to complete. I strip it down to a bare form and a list to display the results. The put works fine, but the get accumulates (in my opinion) way to much cpu time. #The get look like this: outputData['items'] = {} labelsData = Label.all() for label in labelsData: labelItem = label.item.name if labelItem not in outputData['items']: outputData['items'][labelItem] = { 'item' : labelItem, 'labels' : [] } outputData['items'][labelItem]['labels'].append(label.text) path = os.path.join(os.path.dirname(__file__), 'index.html') self.response.out.write(template.render(path, outputData)) #And the models: class Item(db.Model): name = db.StringProperty() class Label(db.Model): text = db.StringProperty() lang = db.StringProperty() item = db.ReferenceProperty(Item) I've tried to make it a number of different way ie. instead of ReferenceProperty storing all Label keys in the Item Model as a db.ListProperty. My test data is just 10 rows in Item and 40 in Label. So my questions: Is it a fools errand to try to optimize this since the high cpu usage is due to the problems with the datastore or have I just screwed up somewhere in the code? ..fredrik

    Read the article

  • onmouseover problems with JavaScript (rendered using django and django-imagekit)

    - by Michael Moreno
    I'm using Imagekit. View.py includes: def pics(request): p = Photo.objects.all() return render_to_response('Shots.html', {'p': p}) The following simple code in the template will generate associated images: {% for p in p %} <img src = "{{ p.display.url }}"> <img src = "{{ p.thumbnail_image.url }}"> {% endfor %} I'm attempting to generate a series of thumbnails {{ p.thumbnail_image.url }} which, when mouseover'd, will generate the slightly larger version of the image, {{ p.display.url }} via Javascript. The following code in the template attempts to do so: <html> <head> <HEAD> <script language="Javascript"> { image1 = new Image image2 = new Image image1.src = {{ p.thumbnail_image.url }} image2.src = {{ p.display.url }} </script> </head> <body> {% for p in p %} <a href="" onMouseOver="document.rollover.src= image2.src onMouseOut="document.rollover.src= image1.src"> <img src="{{ p.thumbnail_image.url }}" border=0 name="rollover"></a> {% endfor %} </body> </html> This will display the series of thumbnails, but the larger image will not display when mouseover'd. I believe it has to do with how I'm specifying the variable {{ p.display.url }}.

    Read the article

  • JavaScript access parent window from popup windows

    - by user359472
    I am trying to code this for hours and still couldn't do it. It keep tell me "Permission Denied". Here is what I am trying to accomplish. This pretty hard to explain please follow the example below. For example. domain111.com and domain222.com. When I am on domain111.com i click on the popup link , it will pop-up the domain111.com/popup.html then it redirect me to domain222.com. On this domain222.com it will redirect to couple pages before it redirect back to domain111.com with the result. I want to send the result from domain111.com to domain111.com. The process is like below. Domain111-popup to--Domain111-redirect--Domain222-redirect xxx Domain222 pages then redirect to---Domain111---SEND to parent window-Domain11 Here is my code. File name 1.hml on domain111.com <script type="text/javascript"> function IamParent() { alert('I am the parent of this window') } function PopUP() { window.open("http://domain222.com/2.htm", 'ALpop').focus(); } </script> <body> <a href="#void(0);" onclick="PopUP();" >Click</a> </body> File name 2.html on domain222.com <head> <title></title> <meta http-equiv="refresh" content="1;url=http://domain111.com/3.htm?Result=Yes" /> </head> Filename 2.htm on domain111.com <script type="text/javascript"> parent.IamParent(); //execute the function from the same domain111.com/1.htm </script> Please don't suggest AJAX or web request because it will not work with this case. Thanks for reading.

    Read the article

  • CPU friendly infinite loop

    - by Adi
    Writing an infinite loop is simple: while(true){ //add whatever break condition here } But this will trash the CPU performance. This execution thread will take as much as possible from CPU's power. What is the best way to lower the impact on CPU? Adding some Thread.Sleep(n) should do the trick, but setting a high timeout value for Sleep() method may indicate an unresponsive application to the operating system. Let's say I need to perform a task each minute or so in a console app. I need to keep Main() running in an "infinite loop" while a timer will fire the event that will do the job. I would like to keep Main() with the lowest impact on CPU. What methods do you suggest. Sleep() can be ok, but as I already mentioned, this might indicate an unresponsive thread to the operating system. LATER EDIT: I want to explain better what I am looking for: I need a console app not Windows service. Console apps can simulate the Windows services on Windows Mobile 6.x systems with Compact Framework. I need a way to keep the app alive as long as the Windows Mobile device is running. We all know that the console app runs as long as its static Main() function runs, so I need a way to prevent Main() function exit. In special situations (like: updating the app), I need to request the app to stop, so I need to infinitely loop and test for some exit condition. For example, this is why Console.ReadLine() is no use for me. There is no exit condition check. Regarding the above, I still want Main() function as resource friendly as possible. Let asside the fingerprint of the function that checks for the exit condition.

    Read the article

  • How do I fix my "Stream closed" error in spring-ws?

    - by mcherm
    I have working code using the spring-ws library to respond to soap requests. I moved this code to a different project (I'm merging projects) and now it is failing. I would like to figure out the reason for the failure. The symptom I get is this: when the HTTP request arrives, spring begins handling the call. Then I get the following exception: org.springframework.ws.soap.saaj.SaajSoapEnvelopeException: Could not access envelope: java.io.IOException: Stream closed; nested exception is javax.xml.soap.SOAPException: java.io.IOException: Stream closed at org.springframework.ws.soap.saaj.SaajSoapMessage.getEnvelope(SaajSoapMessage.java:109) <<more lines that don't matter>> Caused by: java.io.IOException: Stream closed at java.io.PushbackInputStream.ensureOpen(PushbackInputStream.java:57) at java.io.PushbackInputStream.read(PushbackInputStream.java:116) at org.apache.xerces.impl.XMLEntityManager$RewindableInputStream.read(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.impl.XMLEntityManager.setupCurrentEntity(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.impl.XMLVersionDetector.determineDocVersion(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.parsers.XML11Configuration.parse(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.parsers.XML11Configuration.parse(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.parsers.XMLParser.parse(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.parsers.AbstractSAXParser.parse(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.jaxp.SAXParserImpl$JAXPSAXParser.parse(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.jaxp.SAXParserImpl.parse(Unknown Source) at org.apache.axis.encoding.DeserializationContext.parse(DeserializationContext.java:227) at org.apache.axis.SOAPPart.getAsSOAPEnvelope(SOAPPart.java:696) ... 30 more Examining it in a debugger, it appears that spring successfully handles HTTP headers, but then when it begins to process the contents of the SOAP message itself, it chokes when reading the very first character of the body. Some googling for the error message suggests that the problem is that a PushbackInputStream which is apparently used for reading from the socket is read twice or perhaps has close() called and then is read afterward. It is happening inside of spring-ws, not my code, and since it worked fine before I moved the code to a new project it must have something to do with versions of spring, or something it uses like axis or xerces. But I can't find any differences in versions of these! Has anyone encountered this error before? Or do you have any suggestions of approaches I could take in troubleshooting this?

    Read the article

  • how to verify browser IP for server-side web service

    - by Anthony
    I have a web service that needs to be able to verify the end-user's IP that called the server-script that is requesting the web service. Simple layout: Person A goes to Webpage B. Webpage B calls Web Service C to get some info on Person A. Web Service C won't give Webpage B the requested information without confirmation that the request originated from Person A's IP and not someone who has stolen Person A's session. I'm thinking that for a browser-based solution, the original site (Webpage B) can open an iframe that goes to the Web Service's authentication page. A key of some kind is passed to the browser which will some how indicate both the user's IP and Web Page B's IP, so that the Web Service can confirm that no one has nabbed anything. I have two challenges, but I'll stick to the more immediate one first: I'm not sure if my browser-based plan really makes sense. If someone steals the session cookie, how is the Web Service going to know? Would this cookie be held be Web Page B and thus be harder to steal? Is it a sound assumption that a cookie or key held by the server only and not the browser is safe? Also, would the web service, based on the iframe initial connection, be expecting the server/user-ip combo? What I mean is, does the session key provided via the iframe get stored by the web service and the Web Site B shows it has a match? Or is the session key more generic, meaning the web service is passed the key by Website B and the Web Service verifies that this is a valid session key based on what a valid session key should look like?

    Read the article

  • HttpServerUtility.UrlTokenDecode fails "sometimes" (Invalid length for a Base-64 char array.)

    - by Josef
    We have an IHttpHandler for stylesheets and add a <link/> tag to the page like this: HtmlGenericControl link = new HtmlGenericControl("link"); link.Attributes.Add("rel", "stylesheet"); link.Attributes.Add("href", "stylesheet.axd?d=" + HttpServerUtility.UrlTokenEncode(token)); head.Controls.Add(link); In the stylesheet.axd handler, we UrlTokenDecode the d query string parameter like this: var token = HttpServerUtility.UrlTokenDecode(Request.QueryString["d"]); This works most of the time but every now and then we find one of the following two exceptions in our log: [FormatException: Invalid character in a Base-64 string.] System.Convert.FromBase64CharArray(Char[] inArray, Int32 offset, Int32 length) System.Web.HttpServerUtility.UrlTokenDecode(String input) ... [FormatException: Invalid length for a Base-64 char array.] System.Convert.FromBase64CharArray(Char[] inArray, Int32 offset, Int32 length) System.Web.HttpServerUtility.UrlTokenDecode(String input) System.Web.HttpServerUtilityWrapper.UrlTokenDecode(String input) ... Any ideas what would cause this phenomenon? Remarks: the resulting URL is < 1500, so below any known URL limits (e.g. IE: 2083) seems to be independent of user agent (we have these exceptions for IE6,7,8, FF & Chrome) our (unconfirmed) suspicions include AntiVirus products, HTTP proxies, browser addons found this remotely related question, but it's about a viewstate issue

    Read the article

  • Asp.net web forms, Asp Identity - how to store claims from Facebook, Twitter, etc

    - by user2959352
    This request is based upon the new Visual Studio 2013 integration of Asp.net Identity stuff. I have seen some of the posts regarding this question for MVC, but for the life of me cannot get it to work for standard Web Forms. What I'm trying to do is populate the AspNetUserClaims table from the claims that I get back from Facebook (or other service). I actually can see the values coming back in the OnAuthenticated below, but cannot for the life of me figure out how to add these claims to the context of the currently logged in user? There are literally hundreds of MVC examples surrounding this, but alas no Web Forms examples. This should be completely straightforward, but for some reason I cannot match up the context of the currently logged in user to the claims and credentials coming back from Facebook. Currently after the OnAuthenticated fires, it obviously returns me to the page (RegisterExternalLogin.aspx) as the built-in example provides. However, the claims are gone, the context of the login to Facebook is gone, and I can't do anything else at this point. So the ultimate question is, HOW does one populate the claims FROM Facebook into the AspNetUserClaims table based upon the context of the currently logged in user WITHOUT using MVC? var fboptions = new FacebookAuthenticationOptions(); fboptions.AppId = "xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx"; fboptions.AppSecret = "yyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyy"; fboptions.Scope.Add("email"); fboptions.Scope.Add("friends_about_me"); fboptions.Scope.Add("friends_photos"); fboptions.Provider = new FacebookAuthenticationProvider() { OnAuthenticated = (context) => { foreach (var v in context.User) { context.Identity.AddClaim(new System.Security.Claims.Claim(v.Key, v.Value.ToString())); } context.Identity.AddClaim(new System.Security.Claims.Claim("FacebookAccessToken", context.AccessToken)); return Task.FromResult(0); }, }; app.UseFacebookAuthentication(fboptions);

    Read the article

  • What does "active directory integration" mean in your .NET app?

    - by flipdoubt
    Our marketing department comes back with "active directory integration" being a key customer request, but our company does not seem to have the attention span to (1) decide on what functional changes we want to make toward this end, (2) interview a broad range of customer to identify the most requested functional changes, and (3) still have this be the "hot potato" issue next week. To help me get beyond the broad topic of "active directory integration," what does it mean in your .NET app, both ASP.NET and WinForms? Here are some sample changes I have to consider: When creating and managing users in your app, are administrators presented with a list of all AD users or just a group of AD users? When creating new security groups within your app (we call them Departments, like "Human Resources"), should this create new AD groups? Do administrators assign users to security groups within your app or outside via AD? Does it matter? Is the user signed on to your app by virtue of being signed on to Windows? If not, do you track users with your own user table and some kind of foreign key into AD? What foreign key do you use to link app users to AD users? Do you have to prove your login process protects user passwords? What foreign key do you use to link app security groups to AD security groups? If you have a WinForms component to your app (we have both ASP.NET and WinForms), do you use the Membership Provider in your WinForms app? Currently, our Membership and Role management predates the framework's version, so we do not use the Membership Provider. Am I missing any other areas of functional changes? Followup question Do apps that support "active directory integration" have the ability to authenticate users against more than one domain? Not that one user would authenticate to more than one domain but that different users of the same system would authenticate against different domains.

    Read the article

  • Flex through Flash Builder 4; Connecting to a dynamic XML feed: "The response is not a valid XML or

    - by jtromans
    I am learning how to use Flex with Adobe Flash Builder 4 standalone. I am working my through the Adobe Flash Build 4 Bible by David Gassner. This has led me to create my own micro problems to try and solve. I am trying to connect to a dynamix XML feed created by the following aspx page: generate_xml.aspx When I create the data connection through the Data/Service panel, I can pick between XML and HTTP. I figured because the generate_xml.aspx has to generate the XML file first, I should use the HTTP service as opposed to the XML. The HTTP service offers GET, which seems to be the kinda thing I want. However, I am really struggling to do this. I keep getting: "The response is not a valid XML or a JSON string" The actual STATIC generated XML file that is created by this page works perfectly when I save it and manually connect with the XML service. Therefore I know my XML code is properly formatted and contains no other HTML of JavaScript. I figure my problem occurs because the page itself is .aspx, but I cannot work out how to successfully ask Flex to request the output of this page, rather than the page itself.

    Read the article

  • Google's Oauth for Installed apps vs. Oauth for Web Apps

    - by burgerguy
    So I'm having trouble understanding something... If you do Oauth for Web Apps, you register your site with a callback URL and get a unique consumer secret key. But once you've obtained an Oauth for Web Apps token, you don't have to generate Oauth calls to the google server from your registered domain. I regularly use my key and token from scripts running via an apache server at localhost on my laptop and Google never says "you're not sending this request from the registered domain." It just sends me the data. Now, as I understand it, if you do Oauth for Installed Apps, you use "anonymous" instead of a secret key you got from Google. I've been thinking of just using the OAuth for Web Apps auth method, then passing that token to an installed app that has my secret code embedded in its innards. The worry is that the code could be discovered by bad people. But what's more secure... making them work for the secret code or letting them default to anonymous? What really goes bad if the "secret" is discovered when the alternative is using "anonymous" as the secret?

    Read the article

  • Jquery getJSON to external PHP page

    - by Pmarcoen
    I've been trying to make an ajax request to an external server. I've learned so far that I need to use getJSON to do this because of security reasons ? Now, I can't seem to make a simple call to an external page. I've tried to simplify it down as much as I can but it's still not working. I have 2 files, test.html & test.php my test.html makes a call like this, to localhost for testing : $.getJSON("http://localhost/OutVoice/services/test.php", function(json){ alert("JSON Data: " + json); }); and I want my test.php to return a simple 'test' : $results = "test"; echo json_encode($results); I'm probably making some incredible rookie mistake but I can't seem to figure it out. Also, if this works, how can I send data to my test.php page, like you would do like test.php?id=15 ? The test.html page is calling the test.php page on localhost, same directory I don't get any errors, just no alert ..

    Read the article

  • exception message getting lost in IIOP between glassfish domains

    - by Michael Borgwardt
    I'm running two glassfish v2 domains containing stateless session EJBs. In a few cases, an EJB in one domain has to call one in the other. My problem is that when the called EJB aborts with an exception, the caller does not receive the message of the exception and instead reports an internal error that is not helpful at all in diagnosing the problem. What happens seems to be this: At the transport layer, a org.omg.CORBA.portable.ApplicationException is created,which already loses all detail information about the exception except its class. Inside com.sun.jts.CosTransactions.TopCoordinator.get_txcontext(), the status of the transaction ass rolled back causes a org.omg.CosTransactions.Unavailable to be thrown, which gets wrapped and passed around a few times and eventually results into this error being displayed to the user: org.omg.CORBA.INVALID_TRANSACTION: vmcid: 0x0 minor code: 0 completed: No at com.sun.jts.CosTransactions.CurrentTransaction.sendingRequest(CurrentTransaction.java:807) at com.sun.jts.CosTransactions.SenderReceiver.sending_request(SenderReceiver.java:139) at com.sun.jts.pi.InterceptorImpl.send_request(InterceptorImpl.java:344) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.interceptors.InterceptorInvoker.invokeClientInterceptorStartingPoint(InterceptorInvoker.java:271) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.interceptors.PIHandlerImpl.invokeClientPIStartingPoint(PIHandlerImpl.java:348) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.protocol.CorbaClientRequestDispatcherImpl.beginRequest(CorbaClientRequestDispatcherImpl.java:284) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.protocol.CorbaClientDelegateImpl.request(CorbaClientDelegateImpl.java:184) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.presentation.rmi.StubInvocationHandlerImpl.privateInvoke(StubInvocationHandlerImpl.java:186) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.presentation.rmi.StubInvocationHandlerImpl.invoke(StubInvocationHandlerImpl.java:152) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.presentation.rmi.bcel.BCELStubBase.invoke(BCELStubBase.java:225) Is there anything I can do here to preserve information about the actual cause of the problem?

    Read the article

  • Save has_and_belongs_to_many link in basic RoR app

    - by Stéphane V
    I try to learn the has_and_belongs_to_many relationship between my 2 fresh new and simple models Product and Author, where a Product can have many authors and where author can have a lots of products. I wrote this : class Author < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :products end class Product < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :authors end In the partial form of view for the products, I have : <p>Products</p> <%= collection_select(:product, :author_ids, @authors, :id, :name, :prompt => " ", :multiple => true) %> but when I hit the update button, I get this strange message I can't resolve myself : NoMethodError in ProductsController#update undefined method `reject' for "1":String Rails.root: /home/stephane/www/HABTM Application Trace | Framework Trace | Full Trace app/controllers/products_controller.rb:63:in block in update' app/controllers/products_controller.rb:62:inupdate' Request Parameters: {"utf8"="✓", "_method"="put", "authenticity_token"="2GlTssOFjTVZ9BikrIFgx22cdTOIJuAB70liYhhLf+4=", "product"={"title"="Le trésor des Templiers", "original_title"="", "number"="1", "added_by"="", "author_ids"="1"}, "commit"="Update Product", "id"="1"} What's wrong ? Is there a problem with :product_ids... I saw on internet I had to pu a "s" but I'm not sure of what it represents.... How can I link the table authors_products to the key which is given back by the drop-down menu ? (here "author_ids"="1") Thx !

    Read the article

  • Handling dependencies with IoC that change within a single function call

    - by Jess
    We are trying to figure out how to setup Dependency Injection for situations where service classes can have different dependencies based on how they are used. In our specific case, we have a web app where 95% of the time the connection string is the same for the entire Request (this is a web application), but sometimes it can change. For example, we might have 2 classes with the following dependencies (simplified version - service actually has 4 dependencies): public LoginService (IUserRepository userRep) { } public UserRepository (IContext dbContext) { } In our IoC container, most of our dependencies are auto-wired except the Context for which I have something like this (not actual code, it's from memory ... this is StructureMap): x.ForRequestedType().Use() .WithCtorArg("connectionString").EqualTo(Session["ConnString"]); For 95% of our web application, this works perfectly. However, we have some admin-type functions that must operate across thousands of databases (one per client). Basically, we'd want to do this: public CreateUserList(IList<string> connStrings) { foreach (connString in connStrings) { //first create dependency graph using new connection string ???? //then call service method on new database _loginService.GetReportDataForAllUsers(); } } My question is: How do we create that new dependency graph for each time through the loop, while maintaining something that can easily be tested?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 556 557 558 559 560 561 562 563 564 565 566 567  | Next Page >