Search Results

Search found 16467 results on 659 pages for 'request filtering'.

Page 564/659 | < Previous Page | 560 561 562 563 564 565 566 567 568 569 570 571  | Next Page >

  • help with javamail api

    - by bobby
    import javax.servlet.*; import javax.servlet.http.*; import java.io.*; import javax.mail.*; import javax.mail.internet.*; import javax.mail.event.*; import java.net.*; import java.util.*; public class servletmail extends HttpServlet { public void doPost(HttpServletRequest request,HttpServletResponse response)throws ServletException,IOException { PrintWriter out=response.getWriter(); response.setContentType("text/html"); try { Properties props=new Properties(); props.put("mail.transport.protocol", "smtp"); props.put("mail.smtp.host","smtp.gmail.com"); props.put("mail.smtp.port", "25"); props.put("mail.smtp.auth", "true"); Authenticator authenticator = new Authenticator() { protected PasswordAuthentication getPasswordAuthentication() { return new PasswordAuthentication("user", "pass"); } }; Session sess=Session.getDefaultInstance(props,authenticator); Message msg=new MimeMessage(sess); msg.setFrom(new InternetAddress("[email protected]")); msg.addRecipient(Message.RecipientType.TO, new InternetAddress("[email protected]")); msg.setSubject("Hello JavaMail"); msg.setText("Welcome to JavaMail"); Transport.send(msg); out.println("mail has been sent"); } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println("err"+e); } } } im working with above im gettin d following error servletmail.java:22: reference to Authenticator is ambiguous, both class java.ne t.Authenticator in java.net and class javax.mail.Authenticator in javax.mail mat ch Authenticator authenticator = new Authenticator() ^ servletmail.java:22: reference to Authenticator is ambiguous, both class java.ne t.Authenticator in java.net and class javax.mail.Authenticator in javax.mail mat ch Authenticator authenticator = new Authenticator() ^ 2 errors i have followed the example in http://java.sun.com/developer/onlineTraining/JavaMail/contents.html how should i get the output..will the above code...work what are the changes that need to be made..im using thunderbird smtp server

    Read the article

  • jQuery aspx error function always called, even with apparently valid return data

    - by M Katz
    I am making an ajax call using jQuery (jquery-1.5.2.min.js). The server receives the call. fiddler shows the response text coming back apparently correct. But back in javascript my error: function is called instead of my success: function, and the data of the parameters to the error function don't give much clue as to the problem. Here's the function where I make the initial call: function SelectCBGAtClickedPoint() { $.ajax( { type: "GET", dataType: "text", url: "http://localhost/ajax/SelectCBGAtPoint/1/2", success: function( msg ) { alert( "success: " + msg ); }, error: function( jqXHR, textStatus, errorThrown ) { alert( "error: " + jqXHR + textStatus + errorThrown ); } } ); } Here's the function where I handle the call in my cherrypy server code: def ajax( ajax, *args ): with lock: print "ajax request received: " + str( args ) cherrypy.response.headers[ "Content-Type" ] = "application/text" return "{ x: 0 }" Cherrypy is an odd beast, and I was thinking the problem must lie there. But as I say, I see both the query go out and the response come back in Fiddler. Here is what Fiddler shows as the raw view of the response: HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Mon, 11 Apr 2011 17:49:25 GMT Content-Length: 8 Content-Type: application/text Server: CherryPy/3.2.0 { x: 0 } Looks good, but then back in javascript, I get into the error: function, with the following values for the parameters (as shown in firebug): errorThrown = "" jqXHR = Object { readyState=0, status=0, statusText="error"} statusText = "error" I don't know where that word "error" is coming from. That string does not appear anywhere in my cherrypy server code. Note that even though I'm returning a JSON string I've set the send and receive types to "text" for now, just to simplify in order to isolate the problem. Any ideas why I'm getting this "error" reply, even when errorThrown is empty? Could it be that I haven't properly "initialized" either jQuery or jQuery.ajax?

    Read the article

  • tabs on web page and seo

    - by GaVrA
    I know there is a lot of js plugins to do "tabs", but also i can do it my self. Just have some elements with display:none and when you click some other element display changes to block, or something like that. Now, i have a one site i am developing, where i am giving specific users(all within one usergroup) access to edit only one page which i have created. That part is done. Now i have a request to give those users ability to edit 2 more sub pages, but since its all gonna be the same, like text with some pictures, i was thinking to put 3 textarea's so they will have 1 page where they can edit content of all those 3 pages. What i also thought was to only have one page and on it to have 3 tabs. Each tab for each possible page. When i started thinking about that the only concern was seo. How does seo works regarding elements with display:none? What jquery tabs plugin do you recommend that has the ability to access tabs via id of the element in url? I was looking at jquery ui demo but there when you get the url of one of those tabs and try to open it in new window, that tab is not opened. For example this link: http://jqueryui.com/demos/tabs/#tabs-2 It does not open tab #2... Any help is appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Best way for launching html/jsp to communicate with GWT module

    - by h2g2java
    I asked this at the GWT forum but I'm impatient for the answer and I seem to get rather good responses here. A html or jsp file is used to launch the xxx.nocache.js, which then decides which browser "permutation" to use. <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html;charset=UTF-8"> <title>xxx</title> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" src="xxx.nocache.js"></script> </head> In my case, I am using a jsp. When the JSP is executed, it discovers some conditions. I wish to pass these conditions as values to the GWT module being launched. The "elegant" GWT way to pass these values would be to persist them as request/memcache attributes and then have the GWT module perform RPC to retrieve those values. For example, the JSP discovers that the current user is Whoopy. Shouldn't I simply have the JSP generate javascript to store user = "Whoopy" as a top or namedframe level javascript variable and use JSNI within the module to retrieve the value for user? I have not tried it yet, but I would like to know how anyone might have done it without having to use RPC.

    Read the article

  • Refresh a Div that has a Google ad inside it

    - by Abs
    Hello all, I have a div that holds a google ad. My website is mostly AJAX and there is no need for a browser refresh. That means my ads will not refresh either, which isnt ideal, a user staring at one ad all day. So I wanted a way to refresh a particular div on a page. I found many solutions but they didnt work. For example, using JQuery's html function: $("#ads").html("google ad script here"); This managed to refresh the whole page no idea how. I can also make an AJAX request to a HTML page that contains the google ad but I am guessing it will have the same effect as the above attempt. I do not want to use iFrames. Is there any other option open to me? My pea brain can not think of anymore. :) Thanks you for any help. EDIT: It is allowed since I will be initiating the refresh only when a user clicks a link. A prime example is Yahoo Mail - their new AJAX mailbox uses this same method, when a user clicks a link then a new ad is shown.

    Read the article

  • What is causing my HTTP server to fail with "exit status -1073741819"?

    - by Keeblebrox
    As an exercise I created a small HTTP server that generates random game mechanics, similar to this one. I wrote it on a Windows 7 (32-bit) system and it works flawlessly. However, when I run it on my home machine, Windows 7 (64-bit), it always fails with the same message: exit status -1073741819. I haven't managed to find anything on the web which references that status code, so I don't know how important it is. Here's code for the server, with redundancy abridged: package main import ( "fmt" "math/rand" "time" "net/http" "html/template" ) // Info about a game mechanic type MechanicInfo struct { Name, Desc string } // Print a mechanic as a string func (m MechanicInfo) String() string { return fmt.Sprintf("%s: %s", m.Name, m.Desc) } // A possible game mechanic var ( UnkillableObjects = &MechanicInfo{"Avoiding Unkillable Objects", "There are objects that the player cannot touch. These are different from normal enemies because they cannot be destroyed or moved."} //... Race = &MechanicInfo{"Race", "The player must reach a place before the opponent does. Like \"Timed\" except the enemy as a \"timer\" can be slowed down by the player's actions, or there may be multiple enemies being raced against."} ) // Slice containing all game mechanics var GameMechanics []*MechanicInfo // Pseudorandom number generator var prng *rand.Rand // Get a random mechanic func RandMechanic() *MechanicInfo { i := prng.Intn(len(GameMechanics)) return GameMechanics[i] } // Initialize the package func init() { prng = rand.New(rand.NewSource(time.Now().Unix())) GameMechanics = make([]*MechanicInfo, 34) GameMechanics[0] = UnkillableObjects //... GameMechanics[33] = Race } // serving var index = template.Must(template.ParseFiles( "templates/_base.html", "templates/index.html", )) func randMechHandler(w http.ResponseWriter, req *http.Request) { mechanics := [3]*MechanicInfo{RandMechanic(), RandMechanic(), RandMechanic()} if err := index.Execute(w, mechanics); err != nil { http.Error(w, err.Error(), http.StatusInternalServerError) } } func main() { http.HandleFunc("/", randMechHandler) if err := http.ListenAndServe(":80", nil); err != nil { panic(err) } } In addition, the unabridged code, the _base.html template, and the index.html template. What could be causing this issue? Is there a process for debugging a cryptic exit status like this?

    Read the article

  • Servlet requests are executed sequentially for no apparent reason in Glassfish v3

    - by Fabien Benoit
    Hi, I'm using Glassfish 3 Web profile and can't get http workers to execute concurrently requests on a servlet. This is how i observed the problem. I've made a very simple servlet, that writes the current thread name to the standard output and sleep for 10 seconds : protected void doGet(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { System.out.println(Thread.currentThread().getName()); try { Thread.sleep(10000); // 10 sec } catch (InterruptedException ex) {} } } And when i'm running several simultaneous requests, I clearly see in the logs that the requests are sequentially executed (one trace every 10 seconds). INFO: http-thread-pool-8080-(2) (10 seconds later...) INFO: http-thread-pool-8080-(1) (10 seconds later...) INFO: http-thread-pool-8080-(2) etc. All my GF settings are untouched - it's the out-of-the-box config (the default thread pool is 2 threads min, 5 max if I recall properly). ...I really don't understand why the sleep() block all the others worker threads. Any insight would be greatly appreciated ! Thanks, Fabien

    Read the article

  • YUI "Get" utility to parse JSON response?

    - by Sean
    The documentation page for the YUI "Get" utility says: Get Utility is ideal for loading your own scripts or CSS progressively (lazy-loading) or for retrieving cross-domain JSON data from sources in which you have total trust. ...but doesn't have any actual examples for how to do so. Their one example doesn't actually request a JSON document from a remote server, but instead a document containing actual JavaScript along with the JSON data. I'm just interested in the JSON response from the Google Maps API HTTP (REST) interface. Because I can't do cross-site scripting with the "Connect" utility, I am trying the "Get" utility. But merely inserting some JSON data into the page isn't going to do anything, of course. I have to assign it to a variable. But how? Also, just inserting JSON data into the page makes Firefox complain that there's a JavaScript error. And understandably! Plain ol' JSON data isn't going to parse as valid JavaScript. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • file upload working in one and not the other help

    - by rod
    Hi All, I have a web application which has 2 different versions deployed. 1 is a ASP.Net web forms version and the other is an ASP.Net MVC version I have a File Upload page which dynamically creates a directory folder for the target location of the file to be uploaded to. The application is using Forms Authentication for outside users and Integrated Windows Authentication for inside the network users. I have an issue where a user can upload a file in the ASP.Net Web Forms version fine. But when the same user tries to upload the file in the MVC version the user gets a File.IO permission error. Here's a kicker: I can upload the same file in both versions. The user is in a remote location but I believe they're still inside the network because they can work on the other parts of the application just fine. Possible clues: In the event log there's an info that says Event code:4005 Forms authentication failed for the request. Reason: Ticket supplied was invalid. What would be your initial thoughts on why this is happening? Thanks, Rod.

    Read the article

  • Uploading UIImage to server using UIImageJPEGRepresentation

    - by Thomas Joos
    hi all, I'm writing an app which uploads a UIImage to my server. This works perfect, as I see the pictures being added. I use the UIImageJPEGRepresentation for the image data and configure an NSMutableRequest. ( setting url, http method, boundary, content types and parameters ) I want to display an UIAlertView when the file is being uploaded and I wrote this code: //now lets make the connection to the web NSData *returnData = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:nil error:nil]; NSString *returnString = [[NSString alloc] initWithData:returnData encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; NSLog(@"return info: %@", returnString); if (returnString == @"OK") { NSLog(@"you are snapped!"); // Show message image successfully saved UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc]initWithTitle:@"You are snapped!" message:@"BBC snapped your picture and will send it to your email adress!" delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"OK!" otherButtonTitles:nil]; [alert show]; [alert release]; } [returnString release]; The returnString outputs: 2010-04-22 09:49:56.226 bbc_iwh_v1[558:207] return info: OK The problem is that my if statements does not say returnstring == @"OK" as I don't get the AlertView. How should I check this returnstring value?

    Read the article

  • google maps api v2 - dynamic load (tens of thousands of) markers

    - by Adam
    Hello, how made with JavaScript+PHP+MYSQL and Google Maps API v2 dynamic load of markers? atm I have map follow example http://googlemapsapi.martinpearman.co.uk/infusions/google_maps_api/basic_page.php?map_id=8 but my marker_data_01.php (where are all markers listed - look code of example) have atm 4MB and will only have more, and more. So the question is: how load only this markers to marker_data_01.php (of some other modification of it, can be on same file as map, meaningless, I load it all from MySQL atm) what I look now: so for example (I dont know what number will good but I write this only for show what I wanna made OR JUST something like it), so top left corner for example have position: 10, top right corner for example have position: 30, bottom left corner for example have position: 5, bottom right corner for example have position: 15. -- so load only this markers what are in this box 10-30-5-15 with for example GET, and when I move map for example to 17-12-48-20 box then made next GET request and with this mysql quote and download next markers that what I see now, with this I can have map with unlimited markers, and when will be a lot of markers then clustering can link them, so with this ppl dont will need do "preload" of all markers DB (what have 4mb now and will have more), but only download that what they see at the moment, I know that is possible because a lot sites have it but I am not master of code langs, I know only a bit php and mysql (and html) :) // sorry for my english

    Read the article

  • Avoiding GC thrashing with WSE 3.0 MTOM service

    - by Leon Breedt
    For historical reasons, I have some WSE 3.0 web services that I cannot upgrade to WCF on the server side yet (it is also a substantial amount of work to do so). These web services are being used for file transfers from client to server, using MTOM encoding. This can also not be changed in the short term, for reasons of compatibility. Secondly, they are being called from both Java and .NET, and therefore need to be cross-platform, hence MTOM. How it works is that an "upload" WebMethod is called by the client, sending up a chunk of data at a time, since files being transferred could potentially be gigabytes in size. However, due to not being able to control parts of the stack before the WebMethod is invoked, I cannot control the memory usage patterns of the web service. The problem I am running into is for file sizes from 50MB or so onwards, performance is absolutely killed because of GC, since it appears that WSE 3.0 buffers each chunk received from the client in a new byte[] array, and by the time we've done 50MB we're spending 20-30% of time doing GC. I've played with various chunk sizes, from 16k to 2MB, with no real great difference in results. Smaller chunks are killed by the latency involved with round-tripping, and larger chunks just postpone the slowdown until GC kicks in. Any bright ideas on cutting down on the garbage created by WSE? Can I plug into the pipeline somehow and jury-rig something that has access to the client's request stream and streams it to the WebMethod? I'm aware that it is possible to "stream" responses to the client using WSE (albeit very ugly), but this problem is with requests from the client.

    Read the article

  • unable to implement HTTP Tunneling correctly in order to enable Java rmi calls over internet(and und

    - by Lokesh Kumar
    in my previous question :-How to Setup RMI Server under(NAT/ISP) Now,i m able to start my RMI server by Installing apache Tomcat 6.0 server. i have also installed servlet programs into apache Tomcat server in order to enable HTTP tunneling. my servlet codes:- (1) [SimplifiedServletHandler.java][2] (2) [ServletForwardCommand.java][3] these servlets resides inside :- C:\Program Files\Apache Software Foundation\Tomcat 6.0\webapps\examples\WEB-INF\classes\ one more thing that i hv added to my CalcultorClient.java program:- try { RMISocketFactory. setSocketFactory(new sun.rmi.transport.proxy .RMIHttpToCGISocketFactory( )); }catch (IOException ignored) { System.out.println("Error :- ignored.getMessage()"); } But,when i try to make client connect with server(under ISP/NAT) i get the following Exception :- RemoteException java.rmi.UnmarshalException: Error unmarshaling return header; nested exception is: java.io.IOException: HTTP request failed i don't know the correct reason behind this Exception.. but,i think that i haven't installed or invoke my servlet programs properly on server side. so,can anybody tell me the correct reason behind this error/Exception????? and if u think that it is servlet problem then tell me the correct procedure to run my serlvet program inside tomcat server.

    Read the article

  • SQL to get list of dates as well as days before and after without duplicates

    - by Nathan Koop
    I need to display a list of dates, which I have in a table SELECT mydate AS MyDate, 1 AS DateType FROM myTable WHERE myTable.fkId = @MyFkId; Jan 1, 2010 - 1 Jan 2, 2010 - 1 Jan 10, 2010 - 1 No problem. However, I now need to display the date before and the date after as well with a different DateType. Dec 31, 2009 - 2 Jan 1, 2010 - 1 Jan 2, 2010 - 1 Jan 3, 2010 - 2 Jan 9, 2010 - 2 Jan 10, 2010 - 1 Jan 11, 2010 - 2 I thought I could use a union SELECT MyDate, DateType FROM ( SELECT mydate - 1 AS MyDate, 2 AS DateType FROM myTable WHERE myTable.fkId = @MyFkId; UNION SELECT mydate + 1 AS MyDate, 2 AS DateType FROM myTable WHERE myTable.fkId = @MyFkId; UNION SELECT mydate AS MyDate, 1 AS DateType FROM myTable WHERE myTable.fkId = @MyFkId; ) AS myCombinedDateTable This however includes duplicates of the original dates. Dec 31, 2009 - 2 Jan 1, 2009 - 2 Jan 1, 2010 - 1 Jan 2, 2010 - 2 Jan 2, 2010 - 1 Jan 3, 2010 - 2 Jan 9, 2010 - 2 Jan 10, 2010 - 1 Jan 11, 2010 - 2 How can I best remove these duplicates? I am considering a temporary table, but am unsure if that is the best way to do it. This also appears to me that it may provide performance issues as I am running the same query three separate times. What would be the best way to handle this request?

    Read the article

  • asp.net mvc and portal like functionality

    - by richard-heesbeen
    fHi, I need to build an site with some portal like functionality where an param in the request will indentify the portal. like so http:/domain/controller/action/portal Now my problem is if an portal doesn't exists there must be an redirect to an other site/page and an user can login in to one portal but if the user comes to an other portal the user must be redirected back to the login page for that portal. I have something working now, but i feel like there must be an central place in the pipeline to handle this. My current solution uses an custom action filter which checks the portal param and sees if the portal exists and checks if the user logged on in that portal (the portal the user logged on for is in the authentication cookie). I make my own IIndentiy and IPrincipal in the application_postauthentication event. I have 2 problems with my current approach: 1: It's not really enforced, i have to add the attributes to all controllers and/or actions. 2: The isauthenticated on an user isn't really working, i would like that to work. But for that i need to have access to the params of the route when i create my IPrincipal/IIndenty and i can't seem to find an correct place to do that. Hope someone can give me some pointers, Richard.

    Read the article

  • HttpURLConnection: What's the deal with having to read the whole response?

    - by stormin986
    My current problem is very similar to this one. I have a downloadFile(URL) function that creates a new HttpURLConnection, opens it, reads it, returns the results. When I call this function on the same URL multiple times, the second time around it almost always returns a response code of -1 (But throws no exception!!!). The top answer in that question is very helpful, but there are a few things I'm trying to understand. So, if setting http.keepAlive to false solves the problem, it indicates what exactly? That the server is responding in a way that violates the http protocol? Or more likely, my code is violating the protocol in some way? What will the trace tell me? What should I look for? And what's the deal with this: You need to read everything from error stream. Otherwise, it's going to confuse next connection and that's the cause of -1. Does this mean if the response is some type of error (which would be what response code(s)?), the stream HAS to be fully read? Also, every time I am attempting an http request I am basically creating a new connection, and then disconnect()ing it at the end. However, in my case I'm not getting a 401 or whatever. It's always a 200. But my second connection almost always fails. Does this mean there's some other data I should be reading that I'm not (in a similar manner that the error stream must be fully read)? Please help shed some light on this? I feel like there's some fundamental http protocol understanding I'm missing.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET RadioButton messing with the name (groupname)

    - by Hojou
    I got a templated control (a repeater) listing some text and other markup. Each item has a radiobutton associated with it, making it possible for the user to select ONE of the items created by the repeater. The repeater writes the radiobutton setting its id and name generated with the default asp.net naming convention making each radiobutton a full 'group'. This means all radiobuttons are independant on each other, which again unfortunately means i can select all radiobuttons at the same time. The radiobutton has the clever attribute 'groupname' used to set a common name so they get grouped together and thus should be dependant (so i can only select one at a time). The problem is - this doesn't work - the repeater makes sure the id and thus the name (which controls the grouping) are different. Since i use a repeater (could have been a listview or any other templated databound control) i can't use the RadioButtonList. So where does that leave me? I know i've had this problem before and solved it. I know almost every asp.net programmer must have had it too, so why can't i google and find a solid solution to the problem? I came across solutions to enforce the grouping by javascript (ugly!) or even to handle the radiobuttons as non-server controls, forcing me to do a Request.Form[name] to read the status. I also tried experimenting with overriding the name attribute on the PreRender event - unfortunately the owning page and masterpage again overrides this name to reflect the full id/name so i end up with the same wrong result. If you have no better solution than i posted, you are still very welcome to post your thoughts - atleast i'll know that my friend 'jack' is right about how messed up 'asp.net' is sometimes ;)

    Read the article

  • Test multiple domains using ASP.NET development server

    - by Pete Lunenfeld
    I am developing a single web application that will dynamically change its content depending on which domain name is used to reach the site. Multiple domains will point to the same application. I wish to use the following code (or something close) to detect the domain name and perform the customizations: string theDomainName = Request.Url.Host; switch (theDomainName) { case "www.clientone.com": // do stuff break; case "www.clienttwo.com": // do other stuff break; } I would like to test the functionality of the above using the ASP.NET development server. I created mappings in the local HOSTS file to map www.clientone.com to 127.0.0.1, and www.clienttwo.com to 127.0.0.1. I then browse to the application with the browser using www.clinetone.com (etc). When I try to test this code using the ASP.net development server the URL always says localhost. It does NOT capture the host entered in the browser, only localhost. Is there a way to test the URL detection functionality using the development server? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • IntegrityError: foreign key violation upon delete

    - by Lukasz Korzybski
    I have Order and Shipment model. Shipment has a foreign key to Order. class Order(...): ... class Shipment() order = m.ForeignKey('Order') ... Now in one of my views I want do delete order object along with all related objects. So I invoke order.delete(). I have Django 1.0.4, PostgreSQL 8.4 and I use transaction middleware, so whole request is enclosed in single transaction. The problem is that upon order.delete() I get: ... File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/__init__.py", line 28, in _commit return self.connection.commit() IntegrityError: update or delete on table "main_order" violates foreign key constraint "main_shipment_order_id_fkey" on table "main_shipment" DETAIL: Key (id)=(45) is still referenced from table "main_shipment". I checked in connection.queries that proper queries are executed in proper order. First shipment is deleted, after that django executes delete on order row: {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_shipment" WHERE "id" IN (17)'}, {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_order" WHERE "id" IN (45)'} Foreign key have ON DELETE NO ACTION (default) and is initially deferred. I don't know why I get foreign key constraint violation. I also tried to register pre_delete signal and manually delete shipment objects before delete on order is called, but it resulted in the same error. I can change ON DELETE behaviour for this key in Postgres but it would be just a hack, I wonder if anyone has a better idea what's going on here. There is also a small detail, my Order model inherits from Cart model, so it actually doesn't have id field but cart_ptr_id and after DELETE on order is executed there is also DELETE on cart, but it seems unrelated? to the shipment-order problem so I simplified it in the example.

    Read the article

  • WCF and ASP.NET - Server.Execute throwing object reference not set to an instance of an object

    - by user208662
    Hello, I have an ASP.NET page that calls to a WCF service. This WCF service uses a BackgroundWorker to asynchronously create an ASP.NET page on my server. Oddly, when I execute the WCF Service [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.WrappedRequest, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] public void PostRequest(string comments) { // Do stuff // If everything went o.k. asynchronously render a page on the server. I do not want to // block the caller while this is occurring. BackgroundWorker myWorker = new BackgroundWorker(); myWorker.DoWork += new DoWorkEventHandler(myWorker_DoWork); myWorker.RunWorkerAsync(HttpContext.Current); } private void myWorker_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { // Set the current context so we can render the page via Server.Execute HttpContext context = (HttpContext)(e.Argument); HttpContext.Current = context; // Retrieve the url to the page string applicationPath = context.Request.ApplicationPath; string sourceUrl = applicationPath + "/log.aspx"; string targetDirectory = currentContext.Server.MapPath("/logs/"); // Execute the other page and load its contents using (StringWriter stringWriter = new StringWriter()) { // Write the contents out to the target url // NOTE: THIS IS WHERE MY ERROR OCCURS currentContext.Server.Execute(sourceUrl, stringWriter); // Prepare to write out the result of the log targetPath = targetDirectory + "/" + DateTime.Now.ToShortDateString() + ".aspx"; using (StreamWriter streamWriter = new StreamWriter(targetPath, false)) { // Write out the content to the file sb.Append(stringWriter.ToString()); streamWriter.Write(sb.ToString()); } } } Oddly, when the currentContext.Server.Execute method is executed, it throws an "object reference not set to an instance of an object" error. The reason this is so strange is because I can look at the currentContext properties in the watch window. In addition, Server is not null. Because of this, I have no idea where this error is coming from. Can someone point me in the correct direction of what the cause of this could be? Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Django: Serving Media Behind Custom URL

    - by TheLizardKing
    So I of course know that serving static files through Django will send you straight to hell but I am confused on how to use a custom url to mask the true location of the file using Django. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2681338/django-serving-a-download-in-a-generic-view but the answer I accepted seems to be the "wrong" way of doing things. urls.py: url(r'^song/(?P<song_id>\d+)/download/$', song_download, name='song_download'), views.py: def song_download(request, song_id): song = Song.objects.get(id=song_id) fsock = open(os.path.join(song.path, song.filename)) response = HttpResponse(fsock, mimetype='audio/mpeg') response['Content-Disposition'] = "attachment; filename=%s - %s.mp3" % (song.artist, song.title) return response This solution works perfectly but not perfectly enough it turns out. How can I avoid having a direct link to the mp3 while still serving through nginx/apache? EDIT 1 - ADDITIONAL INFO Currently I can get my files by using an address such as: http://www.example.com/music/song/1692/download/ But the above mentioned method is the devil's work. How can I accomplished what I get above while still making nginx/apache serve the media? Is this something that should be done at the webserver level? Some crazy mod_rewrite? http://static.example.com/music/Aphex%20Twin%20-%20Richard%20D.%20James%20(V0)/10%20Logon-Rock%20Witch.mp3

    Read the article

  • java script - Cant send parameter to function from info window in google map marker info window

    - by drdigital
    I'm showing up some markers on a map. when clicked, an info window appear. this window contains 2 button each send ajax request. the problem is that when I send any thing (Except a marker parameter below) to the button onClick event it does not work. and I get the error "adminmap.html:1 Uncaught SyntaxError: Unexpected token ILLEGAL" on the first line of the HTML page not the script file at all. function handleButtonApprove(id) { //error happens here when I send any parameter except marker8(defined below) //console.log(id); $(document).ready(function () { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: VERIFY_OBSTACLES_URL, //data: { markerID:sentID , approved:0 }, success: function (data) { alert(data); } }); }); } function handleButtonReject() { $(document).ready(function () { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: VERIFY_OBSTACLES_URL, //data: { markerID:marker.id , approved:0 }, success: function (data) { alert(data); } }); }); } function attachInfo(marker8, num) { //var markerID = marker.get("id"); //console.log(markerID); var infowindow = new google.maps.InfoWindow({ //Here is the error , if I sent num.toString, num or any string , it does not work. If send marker8.getPosition() for example it works. May I know the reason ? content: '<div id="info_content">Matab Info</div> <button onclick="handleButtonApprove(' + num.toString() + ')">Verify</button> </br> <button onclick="handleButtonReject()">Remove</button>' }); google.maps.event.addListener(marker8, 'click', function () { infowindow.open(marker8.get('map'), marker8); }); }

    Read the article

  • How can I display an ASP.NET MVC html part from one application in another

    - by Frank Sessions
    We have several asp.net MVC apps in the following setup SecurityApp (root application - handles forms auth for SSO and has a profile edit page) Application1 (virtual directory) Application2 (virtual directory) Application3 (virtual directory) so that domain.com points to SecurityApp and domain.com/Application1 etc point to their associated virtual directories. All of our Single Sign On (SSO) is working properly using forms authentication. Based on the users permissions when logging in a menu that lists their available applications and a logout link will be generated and saved in the cache - this menu displays fine whenever the user is in the SecurityApp (editing their profile) but we cannot figure out how to get the Applications in the virtual directories to display the same application menu. We have tried: 1) Using JSONP to do an request that will return the html for the menu. The ajax call returns the HTML with the html; however, because User.IsAuthenticated is false the menu comes back empty. 2) We created a user control and include it along with the dll's for the SecurityApp project and this works; however, we dont want to have to include all the dlls for the SecurityApp project in every application that we create (along with all the app settings in the web.config) We would like this to be as simple as possible to implement so that anyone creating a new app can add the menu to their application in as few steps as possible... Any ideas? To Clarify - we are using ASP.NET MVC 1.0 since these apps are in production and we do not have the okay to go to ASP.NET MVC 2.0 (unfortunately)

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC 2.0 + Implementation of a IRouteHandler does not fire

    - by Peter
    Can anybody please help me with this as I have no idea why public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) is not executing. In my Global.asax.cs I have public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); routes.Add("ImageRoutes", new Route("Images/{filename}", new CustomRouteHandler())); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } //CustomRouteHandler implementation is below public class CustomRouteHandler : IRouteHandler { public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) { // IF I SET A BREAK POINT HERE IT DOES NOT HIT FOR SOME REASON. string filename = requestContext.RouteData.Values["filename"] as string; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(filename)) { // return a 404 HttpHandler here } else { requestContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.ContentType = GetContentType(requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Url.ToString()); // find physical path to image here. string filepath = requestContext.HttpContext.Server.MapPath("~/logo.jpg"); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.WriteFile(filepath); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.End(); } return null; } } Can any body tell me what I'm missing here. Simply public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) does not fire. I havn't change anything in the web.config either. What I'm missing here? Please help.

    Read the article

  • oData/ADO.NET Data Services using LINQ-to-SQL with a decryption layer

    - by Program.X
    I have written an application using LINQ-to-SQL that submits a web form into a database. I absact the LINQ-to-SQL away using a Repository pattern. This repository has the basic methods: Get(), Save(), etc. As a development of the project, I needed to encrypt certain fields in the form. This was trivial, as I just added the encryption calls to the Get(), Save() methods in the Repository. Now, I want to put an oData layer over it, to allow RESTful extraction from MS Excel 2010 (when it comes out). I have this working, after a few stumbles on useless error messages, etc. However, obviously, those encrypted fields are still encrypted. My repository pattern would have decrypted these for me. As far as I know, I have to directly bind my oData service to the LINQ-to-SQL context for the schema, etc. to work - unless I enter a whole world of pain (any URLs appreciated). Is there a way I can insert my encryption/decryption layer into the request so decryption is done "on the fly"? I looked at the OnStartProcessingRequest() overload of DataService but this doesn't seem that useful.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 560 561 562 563 564 565 566 567 568 569 570 571  | Next Page >