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  • Possible uncommitted transactions causing "System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired" erro

    - by Michael
    My application requires a user to log in and allows them to edit a list of things. However, it seems that if the same user always logs in and out and edits the list, this user will run into a "System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired." error. I've read comments about increasing the timeout period but I've also read a comment about it possibly caused by uncommitted transactions. And I do have one going in the application. I'll provide the code I'm working with and there is an IF statement in there that I was a little iffy about but it seemed like a reasonable thing to do. I'll just go over what's going on here, there is a list of objects to update or add into the database. New objects created in the application are given an ID of 0 while existing objects have their own ID's generated from the DB. If the user chooses to delete some objects, their IDs are stored in a separate list of Integers. Once the user is ready to save their changes, the two lists are passed into this method. By use of the IF statement, objects with ID of 0 are added (using the Add stored procedure) and those objects with non-zero IDs are updated (using the Update stored procedure). After all this, a FOR loop goes through all the integers in the "removal" list and uses the Delete stored procedure to remove them. A transaction is used for all this. Public Shared Sub UpdateSomethings(ByVal SomethingList As List(Of Something), ByVal RemovalList As List(Of Integer)) Using DBConnection As New SqlConnection(conn) DBConnection.Open() Dim MyTransaction As SqlTransaction MyTransaction = DBConnection.BeginTransaction() Try For Each SomethingItem As Something In SomethingList Using MyCommand As New SqlCommand() MyCommand.Connection = DBConnection If SomethingItem.ID > 0 Then MyCommand.CommandText = "UpdateSomething" Else MyCommand.CommandText = "AddSomething" End If MyCommand.Transaction = MyTransaction MyCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure With MyCommand.Parameters If MyCommand.CommandText = "UpdateSomething" Then .Add("@id", SqlDbType.Int).Value = SomethingItem.ID End If .Add("@stuff", SqlDbType.Varchar).Value = SomethingItem.Stuff End With MyCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() End Using Next For Each ID As Integer In RemovalList Using MyCommand As New SqlCommand("DeleteSomething", DBConnection) MyCommand.Transaction = MyTransaction MyCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure With MyCommand.Parameters .Add("@id", SqlDbType.Int).Value = ID End With MyCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() End Using Next MyTransaction.Commit() Catch ex As Exception MyTransaction.Rollback() 'Exception handling goes here End Try End Using End Sub There are three stored procedures used here as well as some looping so I can see how something can be holding everything up if the list is large enough. Other users can log in to the system at the same time just fine though. I'm using Visual Studio 2008 to debug and am using SQL Server 2000 for the DB.

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  • should I ever put a major version number into a C#/Java namespace?

    - by Andrew Patterson
    I am designing a set of 'service' layer objects (data objects and interface definitions) for a WCF web service (that will be consumed by third party clients i.e. not in-house, so outside my direct control). I know that I am not going to get the interface definition exactly right - and am wanting to prepare for the time when I know that I will have to introduce a breaking set of new data objects. However, the reality of the world I am in is that I will also need to run my first version simultaneously for quite a while. The first version of my service will have URL of http://host/app/v1service.svc and when the times comes by new version will live at http://host/app/v2service.svc However, when it comes to the data objects and interfaces, I am toying with putting the 'major' version of the interface number into the actual namespace of the classes. namespace Company.Product.V1 { [DataContract(Namespace = "company-product-v1")] public class Widget { [DataMember] string widgetName; } public interface IFunction { Widget GetWidgetData(int code); } } When the time comes for a fundamental change to the service, I will introduce some classes like namespace Company.Product.V2 { [DataContract(Namespace = "company-product-v2")] public class Widget { [DataMember] int widgetCode; [DataMember] int widgetExpiry; } public interface IFunction { Widget GetWidgetData(int code); } } The advantages as I see it are that I will be able to have a single set of code serving both interface versions, sharing functionality where possible. This is because I will be able to reference both interface versions as a distinct set of C# objects. Similarly, clients may use both interface versions simultaneously, perhaps using V1.Widget in some legacy code whilst new bits move on to V2.Widget. Can anyone tell why this is a stupid idea? I have a nagging feeling that this is a bit smelly.. notes: I am obviously not proposing every single new version of the service would be in a new namespace. Presumably I will do as many non-breaking interface changes as possible, but I know that I will hit a point where all the data modelling will probably need a significant rewrite. I understand assembly versioning etc but I think this question is tangential to that type of versioning. But I could be wrong.

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  • Git repo planning questions

    - by masonk
    At work, development uses perforce to handle code sharing. I won't say "revision control", because we aren't allowed to check in changes until they are ready for regression testing. In order to get my personal change sets under revision control, I've been given the go-ahead to build my own git and initialize the client view of the perforce depot as a git repo. There are some difficulties in doing this, however. The client view lives in a subfolder of ~, (~/p4), and I want to put ~ under revision control as well, with its own separate history. I can't figure out how to keep the history for ~ separate from ~/p4 without using a submodule. The problem with a submodule is that it looks like I have to go make a repository that will become the submodule and then git submodule add <repo> <path>. But there is nowhere to make the submodule's repository except in ~. There seems to be no safe place to create the initial client view of the depot with git p4 clone. (I'm working off of the assumption that initing or cloning a repo into a subdirectory of a git repo is not supported. At least, I can find nothing authoritative on nested git repos.) edit: Is merely ignoring ~/p4 in the repo rooted at ~ enough to allow me to init a nested repo in ~/p4? My __git_ps1 function still thinks I'm in a git repository when I visit an ignored subdirectory of a git repo, so I'm inclined to think not. I need the "remote" repository created by git p4 sync to be a branch in ~/p4. We are required to keep all of our code in ~/p4 so that it doesn't get backed up. Can I pull from a "remote" branch that is really a local branch? This one is just for convenience, but I thought I could learn something by asking it. For 99% of the project, I just want to start the with the p4 head revision as the inital commit object. For the other 1%, I would like to suck down the entire p4 history so that I can browse it in git. IOW, after I'm done initalizing it, the initial commit of remotes/p4/master branch will contain: revision 1 of //depot/prod/Foo/Bar/* revision X of other files in //depot/prod/*, where X is the head revision and the remotes/p4/master branch contains Y commits, where Y is the number of changelists that had a file in //depot/prod/Foo/Bar/*, with each commit in the history corresponding to one of those p4 changelists, and HEAD looking like p4's head.

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  • TFS CM resource recommendations / some questions

    - by John
    I am working with a small development shop that consists of a group of 5 developers and 1 QA person. We are using TFS and need to get more sophisticated on how we use this tool. Currently the development team checks in their code each evening. A nightly build runs and pushes the output out on a network share. Our QA person uses this build for testing the next day. Sometimes the build off the trunk codebase has issues/bugs that hinder the QA process, and it hasn’t been a giant issue in the past, but we now want to get to a state where we have our QA person testing on a stable QA build. So I believe we need to create a branch (call it QA), and the developers will continue to develop off the trunk, but the QA person will use builds created from code in the QA branch. Seems simple enough, but we have started doing code reviews as well. So we have another desire in that only code that has been code reviewed can be promoted to the QA branch. Each developer works off a TFS item, and when they check in a changeset, they do it against a TFS item which creates a link between a checked in code file and a TFS item. Eventually the TFS item becomes complete and ready for code review. All code attached to the TFS item is reviewed. How can the versions of these files get promoted to the QA branch? In the QA branch, if a bug is found, we want to fix it in the QA branch and have the changes migrated back to the trunk. I believe TFS has a way to automatically do this doesn’t it? Long story short, we want to get to a build and CM environment that I believe is pretty standard, but we are unaware of how to make this happen with TFS. Given our situation above, can someone point out a book or website(s) that would address our specific needs? We would like to make this happen without having to get too deep in CM theory or TFS. I very much appreciate any and all suggestions! Thanks, John

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  • ASP.NET - working with GridView Programmatically

    - by JMSA
    I am continuing from this post. After much Googling, I have come up with this code to edit cells programmatically: using System; using System.Data; using System.Configuration; using System.Collections; using System.Web; using System.Web.Security; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Web.UI.WebControls.WebParts; using System.Web.UI.HtmlControls; using Ice_Web_Portal.BO; namespace GridView___Test { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { GridView1.DataSource = Course.GetCourses(); GridView1.DataBind(); } protected void GridView1_RowEditing(object sender, GridViewEditEventArgs e) { GridViewRow row = GridView1.Rows[e.NewEditIndex]; GridView1.EditIndex = e.NewEditIndex; GridView1.DataSource = Course.GetCourses(); GridView1.DataBind(); } protected void GridView1_RowUpdating(object sender, GridViewUpdateEventArgs e) { TextBox txtID = (TextBox)GridView1.Rows[e.RowIndex].Cells[1].Controls[0]; TextBox txtCourseCode = (TextBox)GridView1.Rows[e.RowIndex].Cells[2].Controls[0]; TextBox txtCourseName = (TextBox)GridView1.Rows[e.RowIndex].Cells[3].Controls[0]; TextBox txtCourseTextBookCode = (TextBox)GridView1.Rows[e.RowIndex].Cells[4].Controls[0]; Course item = new Course(); item.ID = Convert.ToInt32(txtID.Text); item.CourseCode = txtCourseCode.Text; item.CourseName = txtCourseName.Text; item.TextBookCode = txtCourseTextBookCode.Text; bool success = Course.Update(item); labMessage.Text = success.ToString(); GridView1.EditIndex = -1; GridView1.DataSource = Course.GetCourses(); GridView1.DataBind(); } } } But 2 problems are happening. (1) I need to press command buttons twice to Edit/Update. (2) Changes in the cell values are not updated in the database. I.e. edited cell values are not committing. Can anyone give me a solution?

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  • .net ViewState in page lifecycle

    - by caltrop
    I have a page containing a control called PhoneInfo.ascx. PhoneInfo is dynamically created using LoadControl() and then the initControl() function is called passing in an initialization object to set some initial textbox values within PhoneInfo. The user then changes these values and hits a submit button on the page which is wired up to the "submit_click" event. This event invokes the GetPhone() function within PhoneInfo. The returned value has all of the new user entered values except that the phoneId value (stored in ViewState and NOT edited by the user) always comes back as null. I believe that the viewstate is responsible for keeping track of user entered data across a postback, so I can't understand how the user values are coming back but not the explicitly set ViewState["PhoneId"] value! If I set the ViewState["PhoneId"] value in PhoneInfo's page_load event, it retrieves it correctly after the postback, but this isn't an option because I can only initialize that value when the page is ready to provide it. I'm sure I am just messing up the page lifecycle somehow, any suggestion or questions would really help! I have included a much simplified version of the actual code below. Containing page's codebehind protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Phone phone = controlToBind as Phone; PhoneInfo phoneInfo = (PhoneInfo)LoadControl("phoneInfo.ascx"); //Create phoneInfo control phoneInfo.InitControl(phone); //use controlToBind to initialize the new control Controls.Add(phoneInfo); } protected void submit_click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Phone phone = phoneInfo.GetPhone(); } PhoneInfo.ascx codebehind protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } public void InitControl(Phone phone) { if (phone != null) { ViewState["PhoneId"] = phone.Id; txt_areaCode.Text = SafeConvert.ToString(phone.AreaCode); txt_number.Text = SafeConvert.ToString(phone.Number); ddl_type.SelectedValue = SafeConvert.ToString((int)phone.Type); } } public Phone GetPhone() { Phone phone = new Phone(); if ((int)ViewState["PhoneId"] >= 0) phone.Id = (int)ViewState["PhoneId"]; phone.AreaCode = SafeConvert.ToInt(txt_areaCode.Text); phone.Number = SafeConvert.ToInt(txt_number.Text); phone.Type = (PhoneType)Enum.ToObject(typeof(PhoneType), SafeConvert.ToInt(ddl_type.SelectedValue)); return phone; } }

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  • Update time descriptions every minute using jquery/javascript

    - by Amy Neville
    I have created the following code to update the text contents of all spans like this every minute. There are numerous of these spans on the page which all need to be updated every minute: <span unix="1372263005" class="time_ago">4 minutes ago</span> The code is as follows: window.setInterval(function(){ var unix = $(".time_ago").text(); var now = new Date().getTime(); var amount = 0; var difference = 0; difference = now - parseInt(unix); if (difference < 60) { $(".time_ago").text('<span unix="' + unix + '" class="time_ago">a few seconds ago</span>'); } else if (difference < 120) { $(".time_ago").text('<span unix="' + unix + '" class="time_ago">a minute ago</span>'); } else if (difference < 3600) { amount = floor(difference / 60); $(".time_ago").text('<span unix="' + unix + '" class="time_ago">' + amount + ' minutes ago</span>'); } else if (difference < 7200) { $(".time_ago").text('<span unix="' + unix + '" class="time_ago">an hour ago</span>'); } else if (difference < 86400) { amount = floor(difference / 3600); $(".time_ago").text('<span unix="' + unix + '" class="time_ago">' + amount + ' hours ago</span>'); } else if (difference < 172800) { $(".time_ago").text('<span unix="' + unix + '" class="time_ago">a day ago</span>'); } else if (difference < 2635200) { amount = floor(difference / 86400); $(".time_ago").text('<span unix="' + unix + '" class="time_ago">' + amount + ' days ago</span>'); } else if (difference < 5270400) { $(".time_ago").text('<span unix="' + unix + '" class="time_ago">a month ago</span>'); } else if (difference < 31622400) { amount = floor(difference / 2635200); $(".time_ago").text('<span unix="' + unix + '" class="time_ago">' + amount + ' months ago</span>'); } else if (difference < 63244800) { $(".time_ago").text('<span unix="' + unix + '" class="time_ago">a year ago</span>'); } else (difference >= 63244800) { amount = floor(difference / 31622400); $(".time_ago").text('<span unix="' + unix + '" class="time_ago">' + amount + ' years ago</span>'); } return false; }, 60); EDIT) Ok, now I have made some changes on your advice but it's changing the span texts to 43351 years. Any ideas why it is doing that?

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  • input type="text" not clickable in a jcarousel (jQuery based carousel) element

    - by AkaiKen
    Hello ! I work on a website where almost all objects are in a jCarousel element : <div> <ul id="mycarousel"> <li>object 1</li> <li>object 2</li> </ul> </div> is the "written" code, and : <div class=" jcarousel-skin-tango"> <div class="jcarousel-container jcarousel-container-horizontal" style="display: block;"> <div class="jcarousel-prev jcarousel-prev-horizontal jcarousel-prev-disabled jcarousel-prev-disabled-horizontal" style="display: block;" disabled="true"></div> <div class="jcarousel-next jcarousel-next-horizontal" style="display: block;" disabled="false"></div> <div class="jcarousel-clip jcarousel-clip-horizontal"> <ul class=" jcarousel-list jcarousel-list-horizontal" id="mycarousel" style="width: 2853px; left: 0px;"> <li class="jcarousel-item jcarousel-item-horizontal jcarousel-item-1 jcarousel-item-1-horizontal" jcarouselindex="1" style="width: 307px;"> object 1 </li> <li class="jcarousel-item jcarousel-item-horizontal jcarousel-item-1 jcarousel-item-1-horizontal" jcarouselindex="1" style="width: 307px;"> object 2 </li> </ul> </div> </div> is the generated code (here it lacks the ultimate </div>, maybe a number of rows limitation ?). I'm sorry I can't provide a link, I work on a local server currently. It works perfectly =) but... my problem is : an <input type="text" /> won't be clickable in this environment. I tried the others type of input, radio, checkbox, file : works. But text does not. I can specify a value on my input (it's its purpose on my work : a search in a database for datas to be modified and reinjected in database). In fact, I can access to the text input by clicking-right in then left. But it's pretty 'unergonomic', and in my project it's unthinkable. Ah, and I tried to style this input with a style="z-index:1000;", no changes, I think it's not a CSS problem. Does anybody have an idea ? Thank you very much in advance.

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  • IIS doing unexpected redirect

    - by user2967489
    I have website abc.com and abc.co.in.I have two webservers also. The following issue happens only in abc.co.in with same application deployed on same. We have written a custom IHttpModule and do a rewrite to abc.co.in?some=data. Expected behavior: When user enters some.abc.co.in the expected behavior is browser still display some.abc.co.in but internally call abc.co.in?some=data Actual behavior: The page is rendered properly but in browser the URL changes to some.abc.co.in?some=data I checked what is happening 1.First the server receives the request and does a 301 redirect. 2.The redirect location is some.abc.co.in?some=data I am stuck in this for a day and critical to fix to make our site up and running. How to debug this issue further ?.Any one can think of possible cause? ETW Trace shows <ApplicationData> <TraceData> <DataItem> <OldUrl>/</OldUrl> <NewUrl>/fp?&id=hazzel&params=</NewUrl> </DataItem> </TraceData> </ApplicationData> <ApplicationData> <TraceData> <DataItem> <ModuleName>DefaultDocumentModule</ModuleName> <Notification>128</Notification> <HttpStatus>301</HttpStatus> <HttpReason>Moved Permanently</HttpReason> </DataItem> </TraceData> </ApplicationData> <ApplicationData> <TraceData> <DataItem> <Headers>Content-Type: text/html; charset=UTF-8 Location: http://some.abc.co.in/fp/?id=data Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.5 X-Powered-By: ASP.NET </Headers> </DataItem> </TraceData> </ApplicationData>

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  • RESTful issue with data access when using HTTP DELETE method ...

    - by Wilhelm Murdoch
    I'm having an issue accessing raw request information from PHP when accessing a script using the HTTP DELETE directive. I'm using a JS front end which is accessing a script using Ajax. This script is actually part of a RESTful API which I am developing. The endpoint in this example is: http://api.site.com/session This endpoint is used to generate an authentication token which can be used for subsequent API requests. Using the GET method on this URL along with a modified version of HTTP Basic Authentication will provide an access token for the client. This token must then be included in all other interactions with the service until it expires. Once a token is generated, it is passed back to the client in a format specified by an 'Accept' header which the client sends the service; in this case 'application/json'. Upon success it responds with an HTTP 200 Ok status code. Upon failure, it throws an exception using the HTTP 401 Authorization Required code. Now, when you want to delete a session, or 'log out', you hit the same URL, but with the HTTP DELETE directive. To verify access to this endpoint, the client must prove they were previously authenticated by providing the token they want to terminate. If they are 'logged in', the token and session are terminated and the service should respond with the HTTP 204 No Content status code, otherwise, they are greeted with the 401 exception again. Now, the problem I'm having is with removing sessions. With the DELETE directive, using Ajax, I can't seem to access any parameters I've set once the request hits the service. In this case, I'm looking for the parameter entitled 'token'. I look at the raw request headers using Firebug and I notice the 'Content-Length' header changes with the size of the token being sent. This is telling me that this data is indeed being sent to the server. The question is, using PHP, how the hell to I access parameter information? It's not a POST or GET request, so I can't access it as you normally would in PHP. The parameters are within the content portion of the request. I've tried looking in $_SERVER, but that shows me limited amount of headers. I tried 'apache_request_headers()', which gives me more detailed information, but still, only for headers. I even tried 'file_get_contents('php://stdin');' and I get nothing. How can I access the content portion of a raw HTTP request? Sorry for the lengthy post, but I figured too much information is better than too little. :)

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  • XPathNavigator in Silverlight

    - by vladimir
    I have a code library that makes heavy use of XPathNavigator to parse some specific xml document. The xml document is cross-referenced, meaning that an element can reference another which has not yet been encountered during parsing: <ElementA ...> <DependentElementX id="1234"> </ElementA> <ElementX id="1234" .../> The document doesn't really look like this, but the point is that 1) there is an xml schema that enforces the overall document structure, 2) elements inside the document can reference each other using some IDs, and 3) there is quite a few such cross references between different elements in the document. The document is parsed in two phases. In the first pass I walk through the document XPathDocument doc = ...; XPathNavigator nav = doc.CreateNavigator(); nav.MoveToRoot(); nav.MoveToFirstChild()... and occasionally 'bookmark' the current position (element) in the document using XPathNavigator.Clone() method. This gives me a lightweight instance of an XPathNavigator which I can store somewhere and use later to jump back to a particular place (element) in my document. Once I have enough information collected in the first pass (for example, I have made sure there is indeed an ElementX with an id='1234'), I jump back to saved bookmarks (using those saved XPathNavigators) and complete the parsing. Well, now I'm about to use this library in Silverlight 3.0 and to my horror the XPathNavigator is not in the System.Xml assembly. Questions: 1) Am I missing something obvious (i.e. XPathNavigator does exist in some shape or form, for example in a toolkit or a freeware library)? 2) If I do have to make modifications in the code, what would be the best way to go? Ideally, I would like to make minimal changes, not to rewrite 80% of the code just to be able to use something like XLinq. To resume, in case I have to give up XPathNavigator, all I need is a way to bookmark places in my document and to get back to them so that I can continue to iterate from where I left off. Thanks in advance for any help/ideas.

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  • Qt - Calling widget parent's slots

    - by bullettime
    I wrote a small program to test accessing a widget parent's slot. Basically, it has two classes: Widget: namespace Ui { class Widget; } class Widget : public QWidget { Q_OBJECT public: Widget(QWidget *parent = 0); ~Widget(); QLabel *newlabel; QString foo; public slots: void changeLabel(); private: Ui::Widget *ui; }; Widget::Widget(QWidget *parent) : QWidget(parent), ui(new Ui::Widget) { ui->setupUi(this); customWidget *cwidget = new customWidget(); newlabel = new QLabel("text"); foo = "hello world"; this->ui->formLayout->addWidget(newlabel); this->ui->formLayout->addWidget(cwidget); connect(this->ui->pushButton,SIGNAL(clicked()),cwidget,SLOT(callParentSlot())); connect(this->ui->pb,SIGNAL(clicked()),this,SLOT(changeLabel())); } void Widget::changeLabel(){ newlabel->setText(this->foo); } and customWidget: class customWidget : public QWidget { Q_OBJECT public: customWidget(); QPushButton *customPB; public slots: void callParentSlot(); }; customWidget::customWidget() { customPB = new QPushButton("customPB"); QHBoxLayout *hboxl = new QHBoxLayout(); hboxl->addWidget(customPB); this->setLayout(hboxl); connect(this->customPB,SIGNAL(clicked()),this,SLOT(callParentSlot())); } void customWidget::callParentSlot(){ ((Widget*)this->parentWidget())->changeLabel(); } in the main function, I simply created an instance of Widget, and called show() on it. This Widget instance has a label, a QString, an instance of customWidget class, and two buttons (inside the ui class, pushButton and pb). One of the buttons calls a slot in its own class called changeLabel(), that, as the name suggests, changes the label to whatever is set in the QString contained in it. I made that just to check that changeLabel() worked. This button is working fine. The other button calls a slot in the customWidget instance, named callParentSlot(), that in turn tries to call the changeLabel() slot in its parent. Since in this case I know that its parent is in fact an instance of Widget, I cast the return value of parentWidget() to Widget*. This button crashes the program. I made a button within customWidget to try to call customWidget's parent slot as well, but it also crashes the program. I followed what was on this question. What am I missing?

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  • NHibernate - I have many, but I only want one!

    - by MartinF
    Hello, I have a User which can have many Emails. This is mapped through a List collection (exposed by IEnumerable Emails on the User). For each User one of the Emails will be the Primary one ("Boolean IsPrimary" property on Email). How can I get the primary Email from User without NHibernate loads every email for the User ? I have the following two entities, with a corresponding table for each public class User { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual IEnumerable<Email> Emails { get; set; } // public virtual Email PrimaryEmail { get; set; } - Possible somehow ? } public class Email { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual String Address { get; set; } public virtual Boolean IsPrimary { get; set; } public virtual User User { get; set; } } Can I map a "Email PrimaryEmail" property etc. on the User to the Email which have "IsPrimary=1" set somehow ? Maybe using a Sql Formula ? a View ? a One-To-One relationship ? or another way ? It should be possible to change the primary email to be one of the other emails, so i would like to keep them all in 1 table and just change the IsPrimary property. Using a Sql Formula, is it be possible to keep the "PrimaryEmail" property on the User up-to-date, if I set the IsPrimary property on the current primary email to false, and then afterwards set the PrimaryEmail property to the email which should be the new primary email and set IsPrimary to true ? Will NHibernate track changes on the "old/current" primary Email loaded by the Sql Formula ? What about the 1 level cache and the 2 level cache when using SqlFormula ? I dont know if it could work by using a View ? Then i guess the Email could be mapped like a Component ? Will it work when updating the Email data when loaded from the View ? Is there a better way ? As I have a bi-directional relationship between User and Email I could in many cases of course query the primary Email and then use the "User" property on the Email to get the User (instead of the other way around - going from User to the primary Email) Hope someone can help ?

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  • Strange behavior with Powershell scriptblock variable scope and modules, any suggestions?

    - by DanMan
    NOTE: I'm using PowerShell 2.0 on Windows Vista. I'm trying to add support for specifying build arguments to psake, but I've run into some strange PowerShell variable scoping behavior dealing specifically with calling functions that have been exported using Export-ModuleMember (which is how psake exposes it's main method). Following is a simple PowerShell module to illustrate (named repoCase.psm1): function Test { param( [Parameter(Position=0,Mandatory=0)] [scriptblock]$properties = {} ) $defaults = {$message = "Hello, world!"} Write-Host "Before running defaults, message is: $message" . $defaults #At this point, $message is correctly set to "Hellow, world!" Write-Host "Aftering running defaults, message is: $message" . $properties #At this point, I would expect $message to be set to whatever is passed in, #which in this case is "Hello from poperties!", but it isn't. Write-Host "Aftering running properties, message is: $message" } Export-ModuleMember -Function "Test" To test the module, run the following sequence of commands (be sure you're in the same directory as the repoCase.psm1): Import-Module .\repoCase.psm1 #Note that $message should be null Write-Host "Before execution - In global scope, message is: $message" Test -properties { "Executing properties, message is $message"; $message = "Hello from properties!"; } #Now $message is set to the value from the script block. The script block affected only the global scope. Write-Host "After execution - In global scope, message is: $message" Remove-Module repoCase The behavior I expected was for the script block I passed to Test to affect the local scope of Test. It is being 'dotsourced' in, so any changes it makes should be within the scope of the caller. However, that's not what's happening, it seems to be affecting the scope of where it was declared. Here's the output: Before execution - In global scope, message is: Before running defaults, message is: Aftering running defaults, message is: Hello, world! Executing properties, message is Aftering running properties, message is: Hello, world! After execution - In global scope, message is: Hello from properties! Interestingly, if I don't export Test as a module and instead just declare the function and invoke it, everything works just like I would expect it to. The script block affects only Test's scope, and does not modify the global scope. I'm not a PowerShell guru, but can someone explain this behavior to me?

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  • Phantomjs creating black output from SVG using page.render

    - by Neil Young
    I have been running PhantomJS 1.9.6 happily on a turnkey Linux server for about 4 months now. Its purpose is to take an SVG file and create different sizes using the page.render function. This has been doing this but since a few days ago has started to generate a black mono output. Please see below: The code: var page = require('webpage').create(), system = require('system'), address, output, ext, width, height; if ( system.args.length !== 4 ) { console.log("{ \"result\": false, \"message\": \"phantomjs.rasterize: error need address, output, extension arguments\" }"); //console.log('phantomjs.rasterize: error need address, output, extension arguments'); phantom.exit(1); } else if( system.args[3] !== "jpg" && system.args[3] !== "png"){ console.log("{ \"result\": false, \"message\": \"phantomjs.rasterize: error \"jpg\" or \"png\" only please\" }"); //console.log('phantomjs.rasterize: error "jpg" or "png" only please'); phantom.exit(1); } else { address = system.args[1]; output = system.args[2]; ext = system.args[3]; width = 1044; height = 738; page.viewportSize = { width: width, height: height }; //postcard size page.open(address, function (status) { if (status !== 'success') { console.log("{ \"result\": false, \"message\": \"phantomjs.rasterize: error loading address ["+address+"]\" }"); //console.log('phantomjs.rasterize: error loading address ['+address+'] '); phantom.exit(); } else { window.setTimeout(function () { //--> redner full size postcard page.render( output + "." + ext ); //--> redner smaller postcard page.zoomFactor = 0.5; page.clipRect = {top:0, left:0, width:width*0.5, height:height*0.5}; page.render( output + ".50." + ext); //--> redner postcard thumb page.zoomFactor = 0.25; page.clipRect = {top:0, left:0, width:width*0.25, height:height*0.25}; page.render( output + ".25." + ext); //--> exit console.log("{ \"result\": true, \"message\": \"phantomjs.rasterize: success ["+address+"]>>["+output+"."+ext+"]\" }"); //console.log('phantomjs.rasterize: success ['+address+']>>['+output+'.'+ext+']'); phantom.exit(); }, 100); } }); } Does anyone know what can be causing this? There have been no server configuration changes that I know of. Many thanks for your help.

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  • file.createNewFile() creates files with last-modified time before actual creation time

    - by Kaleb Pederson
    I'm using JPoller to detect changes to files in a specific directory, but it's missing files because they end up with a timestamp earlier than their actual creation time. Here's how I test: public static void main(String [] files) { for (String file : files) { File f = new File(file); if (f.exists()) { System.err.println(file + " exists"); continue; } try { // find out the current time, I would hope to assume that the last-modified // time on the file will definitely be later than this System.out.println("-----------------------------------------"); long time = System.currentTimeMillis(); // create the file System.out.println("Creating " + file + " at " + time); f.createNewFile(); // let's see what the timestamp actually is (I've only seen it <time) System.out.println(file + " was last modified at: " + f.lastModified()); // well, ok, what if I explicitly set it to time? f.setLastModified(time); System.out.println("Updated modified time on " + file + " to " + time + " with actual " + f.lastModified()); } catch (IOException e) { System.err.println("Unable to create file"); } } } And here's what I get for output: ----------------------------------------- Creating test.7 at 1272324597956 test.7 was last modified at: 1272324597000 Updated modified time on test.7 to 1272324597956 with actual 1272324597000 ----------------------------------------- Creating test.8 at 1272324597957 test.8 was last modified at: 1272324597000 Updated modified time on test.8 to 1272324597957 with actual 1272324597000 ----------------------------------------- Creating test.9 at 1272324597957 test.9 was last modified at: 1272324597000 Updated modified time on test.9 to 1272324597957 with actual 1272324597000 The result is a race condition: JPoller records time of last check as xyz...123 File created at xyz...456 File last-modified timestamp actually reads xyz...000 JPoller looks for new/updated files with timestamp greater than xyz...123 JPoller ignores newly added file because xyz...000 is less than xyz...123 I pull my hair out for a while I tried digging into the code but both lastModified() and createNewFile() eventually resolve to native calls so I'm left with little information. For test.9, I lose 957 milliseconds. What kind of accuracy can I expect? Are my results going to vary by operating system or file system? Suggested workarounds? NOTE: I'm currently running Linux with an XFS filesystem. I wrote a quick program in C and the stat system call shows st_mtime as truncate(xyz...000/1000).

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  • Model-View-Controller in JavaScript

    - by Casey Hope
    tl;dr: How does one implement MVC in JavaScript in a clean way? I'm trying to implement MVC in JavaScript. I have googled and reorganized with my code countless times but have not found a suitable solution. (The code just doesn't "feel right".) Here's how I'm going about it right now. It's incredibly complicated and is a pain to work with (but still better than the pile of code I had before). It has ugly workarounds that sort of defeat the purpose of MVC. And behold, the mess, if you're really brave: // Create a "main model" var main = Model0(); function Model0() { // Create an associated view and store its methods in "view" var view = View0(); // Create a submodel and pass it a function // that will "subviewify" the submodel's view var model1 = Model1(function (subview) { view.subviewify(subview); }); // Return model methods that can be used by // the controller (the onchange handlers) return { 'updateModel1': function (newValue) { model1.update(newValue); } }; } function Model1(makeSubView) { var info = ''; // Make an associated view and attach the view // to the parent view using the passed function var view = View1(); makeSubView(view.__view); // Dirty dirty // Return model methods that can be used by // the parent model (and so the controller) return { 'update': function (newValue) { info = newValue; // Notify the view of the new information view.events.value(info); } }; } function View0() { var thing = document.getElementById('theDiv'); var input = document.getElementById('theInput'); // This is the "controller", bear with me input.onchange = function () { // Ugly, uses a global to contact the model main.updateModel1(this.value); }; return { 'events': {}, // Adds a subview to this view. 'subviewify': function (subview) { thing.appendChild(subview); } }; } // This is a subview. function View1() { var element = document.createElement('div'); return { 'events': { // When the value changes this is // called so the view can be updated 'value': function (newValue) { element.innerHTML = newValue; } }, // ..Expose the DOM representation of the subview // so it can be attached to a parent view '__view': element }; } How does one implement MVC in JavaScript in a cleaner way? How can I improve this system? Or is this the completely wrong way to go, should I follow another pattern?

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  • Revision control for writing programming lessons

    - by Dietrich Epp
    I'd like to write a series programming lessons that guide programmers to build a certain kind of program. After each lesson, I'd like to provide sample code that implements what that lesson covered, and the next lesson would use that code as a starting point. Right now I'm using Git to keep track of the code from lesson to lesson. Each lesson has its own branch. lesson1: A--B--C \ lesson2: D--E--F \ lesson3: G--H--I However, suppose that now I want to make it easier on the Windows programmers using my lessons, so I add a Visual Studio project to lesson 1 and then merge it into lessons 2 and 3. lesson1: A--B--C--------------J \ \ lesson2: D--E--F--------K \ \ lesson3: G--H--I--L And then someone points out a bug in lesson 2 that causes crashes on certain systems. (This diagram is where I am right now, and I'm having doubts about continuing along this path.) lesson1: A--B--C--------------J \ \ lesson2: D--E--F--------K--M \ \ \ lesson3: G--H--I--L--N Here are the problems I imagine having: If I had many lessons, and I fix something in lesson 1, am I going to have to spend fifteen minutes or more just merging that one simple change? I know I'll probably have to test all of those lessons again, but I can put that off. When I make a bunch of changes to various lessons on one computer, how do I pull all of the branches at the same time? If I decide to publish these lessons, I'd like a way to tag all of the branches to correspond with what I publish. I figure I'll just need to tag each branch separately, but it would be nice if there were a better way. When I look at the history, I imagine becoming terribly confused about what I've done. Compare the above diagram to a hypothetical diagram below, where I use rebase instead of merge (and rebase has its own problems): lesson1: A--B--C--J \ lesson2: D2--E2--F2--M \ lesson3: G2--H2--I2 Do any of you have experience working with a project like this? Should I consider using a different VCS, such as Darcs? (Note: it would be a real pain to use centralized VCS, so don't suggest one of those unless the benefits are clear.) Should I consider writing plugins or extra tools for a VCS (such as a "meta tag" which tags several branches)?

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  • Historical / auditable database

    - by Mark
    Hi all, This question is related to the schema that can be found in one of my other questions here. Basically in my database I store users, locations, sensors amongst other things. All of these things are editable in the system by users, and deletable. However - when an item is edited or deleted I need to store the old data; I need to be able to see what the data was before the change. There are also non-editable items in the database, such as "readings". They are more of a log really. Readings are logged against sensors, because its the reading for a particular sensor. If I generate a report of readings, I need to be able to see what the attributes for a location or sensor was at the time of the reading. Basically I should be able to reconstruct the data for any point in time. Now, I've done this before and got it working well by adding the following columns to each editable table: valid_from valid_to edited_by If valid_to = 9999-12-31 23:59:59 then that's the current record. If valid_to equals valid_from, then the record is deleted. However, I was never happy with the triggers I needed to use to enforce foreign key consistency. I can possibly avoid triggers by using the extension to the "PostgreSQL" database. This provides a column type called "period" which allows you to store a period of time between two dates, and then allows you to do CHECK constraints to prevent overlapping periods. That might be an answer. I am wondering though if there is another way. I've seen people mention using special historical tables, but I don't really like the thought of maintainling 2 tables for almost every 1 table (though it still might be a possibility). Maybe I could cut down my initial implementation to not bother checking the consistency of records that aren't "current" - i.e. only bother to check constraints on records where the valid_to is 9999-12-31 23:59:59. Afterall, the people who use historical tables do not seem to have constraint checks on those tables (for the same reason, you'd need triggers). Does anyone have any thoughts about this? PS - the title also mentions auditable database. In the previous system I mentioned, there is always the edited_by field. This allowed all changes to be tracked so we could always see who changed a record. Not sure how much difference that might make. Thanks.

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  • Supplying a callback to Jeditable

    - by pjmorse
    Summary: When I try supplying a onsubmit or onreset callback to Jeditable, I get Object [function] has no method 'apply' errors. How I got here: I've been working on a rails plugin to supply Jeditable and jWYSIWYG for in-place WYSIWYG editing. Development is driven by a Rails project I'm working on which asks for specific functions. One of the options I added was the ability to trigger Jeditable's edit mode using a button instead of clicking on the editable text itself, following the pattern suggested in this answer. The next step, though, is to hide the button while in edit mode, and reveal it again when leaving edit mode. The hide is easy enough; I just added a line to the triggering function which sends .toggle() to the button. Reveal is trickier. I figure I need to .toggle() again on submit or cancel, and helpfully, Jeditable offers onsubmit and onreset callbacks. However, when I try using those callbacks, I get this Object [something] has no method 'apply' errors. What I'm trying: Because this is in the context of a Rails helper, the actual mechanics are a little more involved than this, but the upshot is that I'm trying to follow this pattern, handing Jeditable this in the args: "onsubmit":"showTrigger", and then including this script: function showTrigger(settings, original) { $(".edit_trigger[id='element_id']").toggle(); } However, on submitting changes or canceling an edit, I get the error Object showTrigger has no method 'apply' ...as described above. I also tried sending in a function directly as the "onsubmit" argument (i.e. "onsubmit": "function(settings, original){$(\".edit_trigger[id='element_id']\").toggle();}" and then I just get Object function(settings, original){$(\".edit_trigger[id='element_id']\").toggle();} has no method 'apply' instead. There must be something wrong with how I'm handing in this callback. Any ideas? ETA: This answer suggests to me that somehow I'm providing a string to Jeditable when it expects a function instead. However, because I'm working within the context of a Rails helper, I'm not at all sure how to fix that - the "showTrigger" bit is set as a Ruby variable in the helper, and although window.showTrigger() is defined when the window is loaded, I don't know how to designate that function within a Ruby variable such that it will be recognized as a function at page load time.

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  • Using Jquery.Form Plugin + MultiFile to automatically upload a single file

    - by Alan Neal
    I wanted to find a way to upload a single file*, in the background, have it start automatically after file selection, and not require a flash uploader, so I am trying to use two great mechanisms (jQuery.Form and JQuery MultiFile) together. I haven't succeeded, but I'm pretty sure it's because I'm missing something fundamental. Just using MultiFile, I define the form as follows... <form id="photoForm" action="image.php" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data"> The file input button is defined as... <input id="photoButton" "name="sourceFile" class="photoButton max-1 accept-jpg" type="file"> And the Javascript is... $('#photoButton').MultiFile({ afterFileSelect: function(){ document.getElementById("photoForm").submit(); } }); This works perfectly. As soon as the user selects a single file, MultiFile submits the form to the server. If instead of using MultiFile, as shown above, let's say I include a Submit button along with the JQuery Form plugin defined as follows... var options = { success: respondToUpload }; $('#photoForm').ajaxForm(options); ... this also works perfectly. When the Submit button is clicked, the form is uploaded in the background. What I don't know how to do is get these two to work together. If I use Javascript to submit the form (as shown in the MultiFile example above), the form is submitted but the JQuery.Form function is not called, so the form does not get submitted in the background. I thought that maybe I needed to change the form registration as follows... $('#photoForm').submit(function() { $('#photoForm').ajaxForm(options); }); ...but that didn't solve the problem. The same is true when I tried .ajaxSubmit instead of .ajaxForm. What am I missing? BTW: I know it might sound strange to use MultiFile for single-file uploads, but the idea is that the number of files will be dynamic based on the user's account. So, I'm starting with one but the number changes depending on conditions.

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  • LINQ aggregate left join on SQL CE

    - by P Daddy
    What I need is such a simple, easy query, it blows me away how much work I've done just trying to do it in LINQ. In T-SQL, it would be: SELECT I.InvoiceID, I.CustomerID, I.Amount AS AmountInvoiced, I.Date AS InvoiceDate, ISNULL(SUM(P.Amount), 0) AS AmountPaid, I.Amount - ISNULL(SUM(P.Amount), 0) AS AmountDue FROM Invoices I LEFT JOIN Payments P ON I.InvoiceID = P.InvoiceID WHERE I.Date between @start and @end GROUP BY I.InvoiceID, I.CustomerID, I.Amount, I.Date ORDER BY AmountDue DESC The best equivalent LINQ expression I've come up with, took me much longer to do: var invoices = ( from I in Invoices where I.Date >= start && I.Date <= end join P in Payments on I.InvoiceID equals P.InvoiceID into payments select new{ I.InvoiceID, I.CustomerID, AmountInvoiced = I.Amount, InvoiceDate = I.Date, AmountPaid = ((decimal?)payments.Select(P=>P.Amount).Sum()).GetValueOrDefault(), AmountDue = I.Amount - ((decimal?)payments.Select(P=>P.Amount).Sum()).GetValueOrDefault() } ).OrderByDescending(row=>row.AmountDue); This gets an equivalent result set when run against SQL Server. Using a SQL CE database, however, changes things. The T-SQL stays almost the same. I only have to change ISNULL to COALESCE. Using the same LINQ expression, however, results in an error: There was an error parsing the query. [ Token line number = 4, Token line offset = 9,Token in error = SELECT ] So we look at the generated SQL code: SELECT [t3].[InvoiceID], [t3].[CustomerID], [t3].[Amount] AS [AmountInvoiced], [t3].[Date] AS [InvoiceDate], [t3].[value] AS [AmountPaid], [t3].[value2] AS [AmountDue] FROM ( SELECT [t0].[InvoiceID], [t0].[CustomerID], [t0].[Amount], [t0].[Date], COALESCE(( SELECT SUM([t1].[Amount]) FROM [Payments] AS [t1] WHERE [t0].[InvoiceID] = [t1].[InvoiceID] ),0) AS [value], [t0].[Amount] - (COALESCE(( SELECT SUM([t2].[Amount]) FROM [Payments] AS [t2] WHERE [t0].[InvoiceID] = [t2].[InvoiceID] ),0)) AS [value2] FROM [Invoices] AS [t0] ) AS [t3] WHERE ([t3].[Date] >= @p0) AND ([t3].[Date] <= @p1) ORDER BY [t3].[value2] DESC Ugh! Okay, so it's ugly and inefficient when run against SQL Server, but we're not supposed to care, since it's supposed to be quicker to write, and the performance difference shouldn't be that large. But it just doesn't work against SQL CE, which apparently doesn't support subqueries within the SELECT list. In fact, I've tried several different left join queries in LINQ, and they all seem to have the same problem. Even: from I in Invoices join P in Payments on I.InvoiceID equals P.InvoiceID into payments select new{I, payments} generates: SELECT [t0].[InvoiceID], [t0].[CustomerID], [t0].[Amount], [t0].[Date], [t1].[InvoiceID] AS [InvoiceID2], [t1].[Amount] AS [Amount2], [t1].[Date] AS [Date2], ( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM [Payments] AS [t2] WHERE [t0].[InvoiceID] = [t2].[InvoiceID] ) AS [value] FROM [Invoices] AS [t0] LEFT OUTER JOIN [Payments] AS [t1] ON [t0].[InvoiceID] = [t1].[InvoiceID] ORDER BY [t0].[InvoiceID] which also results in the error: There was an error parsing the query. [ Token line number = 2, Token line offset = 5,Token in error = SELECT ] So how can I do a simple left join on a SQL CE database using LINQ? Am I wasting my time?

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  • Override variables while testing a standalone Perl script

    - by BrianH
    There is a Perl script in our environment that I now need to maintain. It is full of bad practices, including using (and re-using) global variables throughout the script. Before I start making changes to the script, I was going to try to write some test scripts so I can have a good regression base. To do this, I was going to use a method described on this page. I was starting by writing tests for a single subroutine. I put this line somewhat near the top of the script I am testing: return 1 if ( caller() ); That way, in my test script, I can require 'script_to_test.pl'; and it won't execute the whole script. The first subroutine I was going to test makes a lot of use of global variables that are set throughout the script. My thought was to try to override these variables in my test script, something like this: require_ok('script_to_test.pl'); $var_from_other_script = 'Override Value'; ok( sub_from_other_script() ); Unfortunately (for me), the script I am testing has a massive "my" block at the top, where it declares all variables used in the script. This prevents my test script from seeing/changing the variables in the script I'm running tests against. I've played with Exporter, Test::Mock..., and some other modules, but it looks like if I want to be able to change any variables I am going to have to modify the other script in some fashion. My goal is to not change the other script, but to get some good tests running so when I do start changing the other script, I can make sure I didn't break anything. The script is about 10,000 lines (3,000 of them in the main block), so I'm afraid that if I start changing things, I will affect other parts of the code, so having a good test suite would help. Is this possible? Can a calling script modify variables in another script declared with "my"? And please don't jump in with answers like, "Just re-write the script from scratch", etc. That may be the best solution, but it doesn't answer my question, and we don't have the time/resources for a re-write.

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  • No norwegian characters in LaTeX

    - by DreamCodeR
    Hi, I have translated a document from English to Norwegian in the LaTeX format, and while using norwegian special characters, I get an error using \usepackage[utf8x]{inputenc} to try and display the norwegian (scandinavian) special characters in PostScript/PDF/DVI format, saying Package utf8x Error: MalformedUTF-8sequence. So while that didn't work, I tried out another possible solution: \usepackage{ucs} \usepackage[norsk]babel And when I tried to save that in Emacs I get this message: These default coding systems were tried to encode text in the buffer `lol.tex': (utf-8-unix (905 . 4194277) (916 . 4194245) (945 . 4194278) (950 . 4194277) (954 . 4194296) (990 . 4194277) (1010 . 4194277) (1013 . 4194278) (1051 . 4194277) (1078 . 4194296) (1105 . 4194296)) However, each of them encountered characters it couldn't encode: utf-8-unix cannot encode these: \345 \305 \346 \345 \370 \345 \345 \346 \345 \370 ... Thanks to Emacs I have the possibility to check out the properties of those characters and the first one tells me: character: \345 (4194277, #o17777745, #x3fffe5) preferred charset: eight-bit (Raw bytes 128-255) code point: 0xE5 syntax: w which means: word buffer code: #xE5 file code: not encodable by coding system utf-8-unix display: not encodable for terminal Which doesn't tell me much. When I try to build this with texi2dvi --dvipdf filename.text I get a perfectly fine PDF, all without the special norwegian characters. When I am about to save Emacs also ask me: "Select coding system (default raw-text):" And I type in utf-8 to choose its coding system. I have also tried to choose default raw-text to see if I get some different result. But nothing. At last I tried \lstset{inputencoding=utf8x, extendedchars=\true} ... a code I came over while trying to google the solution to this problem. Which gives me this error: Undefined control sequence. So basically, I have tried every encoding option I have been able to find and nothing works. I am desperately trying to make this work since the norwegian translation must be published before the deadline. As an additional information I may add that I found out later on that I only had the en_US.UTF-8 in my locale, so I added nb_NO.UTF-8 and nb_NO.ISO-8859-15 and ran locale-gen + reboot without any changes. I hope I provided enough information to get some assistance, the characters in question is æ ø å.

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  • INSERT OR IGNORE in a trigger

    - by dan04
    I have a database (for tracking email statistics) that has grown to hundreds of megabytes, and I've been looking for ways to reduce it. It seems that the main reason for the large file size is that the same strings tend to be repeated in thousands of rows. To avoid this problem, I plan to create another table for a string pool, like so: CREATE TABLE AddressLookup ( ID INTEGER PRIMARY KEY AUTOINCREMENT, Address TEXT UNIQUE ); CREATE TABLE EmailInfo ( MessageID INTEGER PRIMARY KEY AUTOINCREMENT, ToAddrRef INTEGER REFERENCES AddressLookup(ID), FromAddrRef INTEGER REFERENCES AddressLookup(ID) /* Additional columns omitted for brevity. */ ); And for convenience, a view to join these tables: CREATE VIEW EmailView AS SELECT MessageID, A1.Address AS ToAddr, A2.Address AS FromAddr FROM EmailInfo LEFT JOIN AddressLookup A1 ON (ToAddrRef = A1.ID) LEFT JOIN AddressLookup A2 ON (FromAddrRef = A2.ID); In order to be able to use this view as if it were a regular table, I've made some triggers: CREATE TRIGGER trg_id_EmailView INSTEAD OF DELETE ON EmailView BEGIN DELETE FROM EmailInfo WHERE MessageID = OLD.MessageID; END; CREATE TRIGGER trg_ii_EmailView INSTEAD OF INSERT ON EmailView BEGIN INSERT OR IGNORE INTO AddressLookup(Address) VALUES (NEW.ToAddr); INSERT OR IGNORE INTO AddressLookup(Address) VALUES (NEW.FromAddr); INSERT INTO EmailInfo SELECT NEW.MessageID, A1.ID, A2.ID FROM AddressLookup A1, AddressLookup A2 WHERE A1.Address = NEW.ToAddr AND A2.Address = NEW.FromAddr; END; CREATE TRIGGER trg_iu_EmailView INSTEAD OF UPDATE ON EmailView BEGIN UPDATE EmailInfo SET MessageID = NEW.MessageID WHERE MessageID = OLD.MessageID; REPLACE INTO EmailView SELECT NEW.MessageID, NEW.ToAddr, NEW.FromAddr; END; The problem After: INSERT OR REPLACE INTO EmailView VALUES (1, '[email protected]', '[email protected]'); INSERT OR REPLACE INTO EmailView VALUES (2, '[email protected]', '[email protected]'); The updated rows contain: MessageID ToAddr FromAddr --------- ------ -------- 1 NULL [email protected] 2 [email protected] [email protected] There's a NULL that shouldn't be there. The corresponding cell in the EmailInfo table contains an orphaned ToAddrRef value. If you do the INSERTs one at a time, you'll see that Alice's ID in the AddressLookup table changes! It appears that this behavior is documented: An ON CONFLICT clause may be specified as part of an UPDATE or INSERT action within the body of the trigger. However if an ON CONFLICT clause is specified as part of the statement causing the trigger to fire, then conflict handling policy of the outer statement is used instead. So the "REPLACE" in the top-level "INSERT OR REPLACE" statement is overriding the critical "INSERT OR IGNORE" in the trigger program. Is there a way I can make it work the way that I wanted?

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