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• (mySQL) Unable to query 2 tables properly for data

  - by Devner

  I have 2 tables. One is 'page_links' and the other is 'rpp'. Table page_links is the superset of table rpp. The following is the schema of my tables: -- Table structure for table `page_links` -- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `page_links` ( `page` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `page_link` varchar(100) NOT NULL, `heading_id` tinyint(3) unsigned NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`page`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; -- -- Dumping data for table `page_links` -- INSERT INTO `page_links` (`page`, `page_link`, `heading_id`) VALUES ('a1.php', 'A1', 8), ('b1.php', 'B1', 8), ('c1.php', 'C1', 5), ('d1.php', 'D1', 5), ('e1.php', 'E1', 8), ('f1.php', 'F1', 8), ('g1.php', 'G1', 8), ('h1.php', 'H1', 1), ('i1.php', 'I1', 1), ('j1.php', 'J1', 8), ('k1.php', 'K1', 8), ('l1.php', 'L1', 8), ('m1.php', 'M1', 8), ('n1.php', 'N1', 8), ('o1.php', 'O1', 8), ('p1.php', 'P1', 4), ('q1.php', 'Q1', 5), ('r1.php', 'R1', 4); -- Table structure for table `rpp` -- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `rpp` ( `role_id` tinyint(3) unsigned NOT NULL, `page` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `is_allowed` tinyint(1) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`role_id`,`page`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; -- -- Dumping data for table `rpp` -- INSERT INTO `rpp` (`role_id`, `page`, `is_allowed`) VALUES (3, 'a1.php', 1), (3, 'b1.php', 1), (3, 'c1.php', 1), (3, 'd1.php', 1), (3, 'e1.php', 1), (3, 'f1.php', 1), (3, 'h1.php', 1), (3, 'i1.php', 1), (3, 'l1.php', 1), (3, 'm1.php', 1), (3, 'n1.php', 1), (4, 'a1.php', 1), (4, 'b1.php', 1), (4, 'q1.php', 1), (5, 'r1.php', 1); WHAT I AM TRYING TO DO: I am trying to query both the above tables (in a single query) in such a way that all the pages from page_links are displayed along with the is_allowed value from rpp for a particular role. For example, I want to get the is_allowed value of all the pages from rpp for role_id = 3 and at the same time, list all the available pages from page_links. A clear example of my expected result would be: page is_allowed role_id ---------------------------------------- a1.php 1 3 b1.php 1 3 c1.php 1 3 d1.php 1 3 e1.php 1 3 f1.php 1 3 g1.php NULL NULL h1.php 1 3 i1.php 1 3 j1.php NULL NULL k1.php NULL NULL l1.php 1 3 m1.php 1 3 n1.php 1 3 o1.php NULL NULL p1.php NULL NULL q1.php NULL NULL r1.php NULL NULL One more example of my desired result could be achieved by doing a LEFT JOIN rpp ON page_links.page = rpp.page but we need to omit using role_id = 3 (or any value) to be able to get that. But I do want to specify the role_id as well and get the results. I need the query to be able to get this result. I would appreciate any replies that could help me with this. If you can suggest me any changes as well to the table(s) design to be able to achieve the desired result, that's good as well. Thanks in advance.

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• Urgent help needed on How to update NSMutableDictionary. My code doesn't work.

  - by dawatson833

  I've populated an array using. arrSettings = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:[self settingsPath]]; The file is a plist with the root as an array and then a dictionary with three three keys defined as number. I've also tried setting the keys to string. I display the values in the plist file on a view using. diaper = [[arrSettings objectAtIndex:0] objectForKey:@"Diaper Expenses"]; oil = [[arrSettings objectAtIndex:0] objectForKey:@"Oil Used"]; tree = [[arrSettings objectAtIndex:0] objectForKey:@"Wood Used"]; This code works fine, the values in the dictionary are assigned to the variables and they are displayed. The user can make changes and then press a save button. I use this code to extract the dictionary part of the array so I can update it. The assignment to editDictionary works. I've double checked the key names including case and that is correct. editDictionary = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; editDictionary = [arrSettings objectAtIndex:0]; NSNumber *myNumber = [NSNumber numberWithFloat:diaperAmount]; [editDictionary setValue:myNumber forKey:@"Diaper Expenses"]; myNumber = [NSNumber numberWithFloat:oilAmount]; [editDictionary setValue:myNumber forKey:@"Oil Used"]; myNumber = [NSNumber numberWithFloat:treeAmount]; [editDictionary setValue:myNumber forKey:@"Wood Used"]; In this example I've used a nsnumber. But I've also tried the xxxAmount field as part of SetValue instead of creating a NSNumber. Neither implementation works. Several strange things happen. Sometimes the first two setvalue statements work, but the last setvalue fails with a EXC_BAD_ACCESS failure. Other times the first setValue fails with the same error. I have no idea why the first two sometimes work. I'm at a loss of what to do next. I've tried several implentations and none of them work. Also, in the debugger how can I display the editDictionary elements. I can see editDictionary, but I don't know how to display the individual elements.

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• Issues querying Access '07 database in C#

  - by Kye

  I'm doing a .NET unit as part of my studies. I've only just started, with a lecturer that as kinda failed to give me the most solid foundation with .NET, so excuse the noobishness. I'm making a pretty simple and generic database-driven application. I'm using C# and I'm accessing a Microsoft Access 2007 database. I've put the database-ish stuff in its own class with the methods just spitting out OleDbDataAdapters that I use for committing. I feed any methods which preform a query a DataSet object from the main program, which is where I'm keeping the data (multiple tables in the db). I've made a very generic private method that I use to perform SQL SELECT queries and have some public methods wrapping that method to get products, orders.etc (it's a generic retail database). The generic method uses a separate Connect method to actually make the connection, and it is as follows: private static OleDbConnection Connect() { OleDbConnection conn = new OleDbConnection( @"Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0; Data Source=C:\Temp\db.accdb"); return conn; } The generic method is as follows: private static OleDbDataAdapter GenericSelectQuery( DataSet ds, string namedTable, String selectString) { OleDbCommand oleCommand = new OleDbCommand(); OleDbConnection conn = Connect(); oleCommand.CommandText = selectString; oleCommand.Connection = conn; oleCommand.CommandType = CommandType.Text; OleDbDataAdapter adapter = new OleDbDataAdapter(); adapter.SelectCommand = oleCommand; adapter.MissingSchemaAction = MissingSchemaAction.AddWithKey; adapter.Fill(ds, namedTable); return adapter; } The wrapper methods just pass along the DataSet that they received from the main program, the namedtable string is the name of the table in the dataset, and you pass in the query you wish to make. It doesn't matter which query I give it (even something simple like SELECT * FROM TableName) I still get thrown an OleDbException, stating that there was en error with the FROM clause of the query. I've just resorted to building the queries with Access, but there's still no use. Obviously there's something wrong with my code, which wouldn't actually surprise me. Here are some wrapper methods I'm using. public static OleDbDataAdapter GetOrderLines(DataSet ds) { OleDbDataAdapter adapter = GenericSelectQuery( ds, "orderlines", "SELECT OrderLine.* FROM OrderLine;"); return adapter; } They all look the same, it's just the SQL that changes.

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• How to Fix my jQuery code in IE?? Works in Firefox..

  - by scott jarvis

  I am using jQuery to show/hide a div container (#pluginOptionsContainer), and load a page (./plugin_options.php) inside it with the required POST vars sent. What POST data is sent is based on the value of a select list (#pluginDD) and the click of a button (#pluginOptionsBtn)... It works fine in Firefox, but doesn't work in IE.. The '$("#pluginOptionsContainer").load()' request never seems to finish in IE - I only see the loading message forever... bind(), empty() and append() all seem to work fine in IE.. But not load().. Here is my code: // wait for the DOM to be loaded $(document).ready(function() { // hide the plugin options $('#pluginOptionsContainer').hide(); // This is the hack for IE if ($.browser.msie) { $("#pluginDD").click(function() { this.blur(); this.focus(); }); } // set the main function $(function() { // the button shows hides the plugin options page (and its container) $("#pluginOptionsBtn") .click(function() { // show the container of the plugin options page $('#pluginOptionsContainer').empty().append('<div style="text-align:center;width:99%;">Loading...</div>'); $('#pluginOptionsContainer').toggle(); }); // set the loading message if user changes selection with either the dropdown or button $("#pluginDD,#pluginOptionsBtn").bind('change', function() { $('#pluginOptionsContainer').empty().append('<div style="text-align:center;width:99%;">Loading...</div>'); }); // then update the page when the plugin is changed when EITHER the plugin button or dropdown or clicked or changed $("#pluginDD,#pluginOptionsBtn").bind('change click', function() { // set form fields as vars in js var pid = <?=$pid;?>; var cid = <?=$contentid;?>; var pDD = $("#pluginDD").val(); // add post vars (must use JSON) to be sent into the js var 'dataString' var dataString = {plugin_options: true, pageid: pid, contentid: cid, pluginDD: pDD }; // include the plugin option page inside the container, with the required values already added into the query string $("#pluginOptionsContainer").load("/admin/inc/edit/content/plugin_options.php#pluginTop", dataString); // add this to stop page refresh return false; }); // end submit function }); // end main function }); // on DOM load Any help would be GREATLY appreciated! I hate IE!

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• Rails, Edit page update in a window

  - by Mike

  I have my code working so that I have a table of businesses. There's a pencil icon you can click on the edit the business information. The edit information comes up in a partial inside of a modal pop up box. The only problem is that once they make the changes they want and click update, it sends them to the 'show' page for that business. What I want to happen is have the pop up box close and have it update the information. This is my update function in my controller. def update @business = Business.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| if @business.update_attributes(params[:business]) flash[:notice] = 'Business was successfully updated.' format.html { redirect_to(business_url(@business)) } format.js else format.html { render :action => "edit" } format.xml { render :xml => @business.errors, :status => :unprocessable_entity } end end end I tried following railscast 43 and i created an .rjs file but I couldn't get that to work at all. My update was still taking me to the show page. Any help would be appreciated. EDIT: Added some more code. <% form_for(@business) do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <p> <%= f.label :name %><br /> <%= f.text_field :name %> </p> ... <%= f.label :business_category %><br /> <%= f.select :business_category_id, @business_categories_map, :selected => @business.business_category_id %> </p> <p> <%= f.label :description %><br /> <%= f.text_area :description %> </p> <p> <%= f.submit 'Update' %> </p> <% end %> This is my form inside of my edit page which is being called through the index in a pop up by: <div id="popupEdit<%=h business.id %>" class="popupContact"> <a class="popupClose<%=h business.id %>" id="popupClose">x</a> <% if business.business_category_id %> <% @business = business %> <%= render "business/edit" %> <% end %> </div>

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• git: setting a single tracking remote from a public repo.

  - by Gauthier

  I am confused with remote branches. My local repo: (local) ---A---B---C-master My remote repo (called int): (int) ---A---B---C---D---E-master What I want to do is to setup the local repo's master branch to follow that of int. Local repo: (local) ---A---B---C---D---E-master-remotes/int/master So that when int changes to: (int) ---A---B---C---D---E---F-master I can run git pull from the local repo's master and get (local) ---A---B---C---D---E---F-master-remotes/int/master Here's what I have tried: git fetch int gets me all the branches of int into remote branches. This can get messy since int might have hundreds of branches. git fetch int master gets me the commits, but no ref to it, only FETCH_HEAD. No remote branch either. git fetch int master:new_master works but I don't want a new name every time I update, and no remote branch is setup. git pull int master does what I want, but there is still no remote branch setup. I feel that it is ok to do so (that's the best I have now), but I read here and there that with the remote setup it is enough with git pull. git branch --track new_master int/master, as per http://www.gitready.com/beginner/2009/03/09/remote-tracking-branches.html . I get "not a valid object name: int/master". git remote -v does show me that int is defined and points at the correct location (1. worked). What I miss is the int/master branch, which is precisely what I want to get. git fetch in master:int/master. Well, int/master is created, but is no remote. So to summarize, I've tried some stuff with no luck. I would expect 2 to give me the remote branch to master in the repo int. The solution I use now is option 3. I read somewhere that you could change some config file by hand, but isn't that a bit cumbersome? The "cumbersome" way of editting the config file did work: [branch "master"] remote = int merge = master It can be done from command line: $ git config branch.master.remote int $ git config branch.master.merge master Any reason why option 2 above wouldn't do that automatically? Even in that case, git pull fetches all branches from the remote.

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• Problems with MYSQL database

  - by shinjuo

  I have a database that worked fine until I decided to add a log onto the page. here is what I have now: <body> <?php if($_SERVER['REQUEST_METHOD'] == 'POST') { require("serverInfo.php"); mysql_query("UPDATE `cardLists` SET `AmountLeft` = `AmountLeft` + ".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['Add'])." WHERE `cardID` = '".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['Cards'])."'"); echo "\"" .$_POST['Add'] ."\" has been added to the inventory amount for the card \"". $_POST['Cards']. "\""; mysql_query("INSERT INTO `log` (`changes`, `amount`, `cardID`, `person`, Date)VALUES('ADDED','$_POST['Add']','$_POST['Cards']', '$_POST['Person']', NOW())"); mysql_close($link); } ?> <form action="<?php echo $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; ?>" method="post"> <?php require("serverInfo.php"); ?> <?php $res = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM cardLists order by cardID") or die(mysql_error()); echo "<select name = 'Cards'>"; while($row=mysql_fetch_assoc($res)) { echo "<option value=\"$row[cardID]\">$row[cardID]</option>"; } echo "</select>"; ?> Amount to Add: <input type="text" name="Add" maxlength="8" /> Changes Made By: <select name="Person"> <option value="justin">Justin</option> <option value="chris">Chris</option> <option value="matt">Matt</option> <option value="dan">Dan</option> <option value="tim">Tim</option> <option value="amanda">Amanda</option> </select> <input type="submit" name ="submit" onClick= "return confirm( 'Are you sure you want to add this amount?');"> </form> <br /> <input type="button" name="main" value="Return To Main" onclick="window.location.href='index.php';" /> </body> </html> it works fine until I added the: mysql_query("INSERT INTO `log` (`changes`, `amount`, `cardID`, `person`, Date)VALUES('ADDED','$_POST['Add']','$_POST['Cards']', '$_POST['Person']', NOW())"); mysql_close($link); Can anyone see what is going on?

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• How to cache queries in EJB and return result efficient (performance POV)

  - by Maxym

  I use JBoss EJB 3.0 implementation (JBoss 4.2.3 server) At the beginning I created native query all the time using construction like Query query = entityManager.createNativeQuery("select * from _table_"); Of couse it is not that efficient, I performed some tests and found out that it really takes a lot of time... Then I found a better way to deal with it, to use annotation to define native queries: @NamedNativeQuery( name = "fetchData", value = "select * from _table_", resultClass=Entity.class ) and then just use it Query query = entityManager.createNamedQuery("fetchData"); the performance of code line above is two times better than where I started from, but still not that good as I expected... then I found that I can switch to Hibernate annotation for NamedNativeQuery (anyway, JBoss's implementation of EJB is based on Hibernate), and add one more thing: @NamedNativeQuery( name = "fetchData2", value = "select * from _table_", resultClass=Entity.class, readOnly=true) readOnly - marks whether the results are fetched in read-only mode or not. It sounds good, because at least in this case of mine I don't need to update data, I wanna just fetch it for report. When I started server to measure performance I noticed that query without readOnly=true (by default it is false) returns result with each iteration better and better, and at the same time another one (fetchData2) works like "stable" and with time difference between them is shorter and shorter, and after 5 iterations speed of both was almost the same... The questions are: 1) is there any other way to speed query using up? Seems that named queries should be prepared once, but I can't say it... In fact if to create query once and then just use it it would be better from performance point of view, but it is problematic to cache this object, because after creating query I can set parameters (when I use ":variable" in query), and it changes query object (isn't it?). well, is here any way to cache them? Or named query is the best option I can use? 2) any other approaches how to make results retrieveng faster. I mean, for instance I don't need those Entities to be attached, I won't update them, all I need is just fetch collection of data. Maybe readOnly is the only available way, so I can't speed it up, but who knows :) P.S. I don't ask about DB performance, all I need now is how not to create query all the time, so use it efficient, and to "allow" EJB to do less job with the same result concerning data returning.

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• How to use Mozilla ActiveX Control without registry

  - by Andrew McKinlay

  I've been using the IE Browser component that is part of Windows. But I'm running into problems with security settings. For example, users get security warnings on pages with Javascript. So I'm looking at using the Mozilla ActiveX control instead. It's especially nice because it has a compatible interface. It works well if I let it install the control in the registry. But my users don't always have administrator rights to install things in the registry. So I'm trying to figure out how to use the control without registry changes. I'm using DllGetClassObject to get the class factory (IID_ICLASSFACTORY) and then CoRegisterClassObject to register it. All the API calls appear to succeed. And when I create an AtlAxWin window with the CLSID, it also appears to work. But when I try to call Navigate on the AtlAxGetControl it doesn't work - the interface doesn't have Navigate. I would show the code but it's in an obscure language (Suneido) so it wouldn't mean much. An example in C or C++ would be easy for me to translate. Or an example in another dynamic language like Python or Ruby might be helpful. Obviously I'm doing something wrong. Maybe I'm passing the wrong thing to CoRegisterClassObject? The MSDN documentation isn't very clear on what to pass and I haven't found any good examples. Or if there is another approach, I'm ok with that too. Note: I'm using the AtlAxWin window class so I'm not directly creating the control and can't use this approach. Another option is registry free com with a manifest. But again, I couldn't find a good example, especially since I'm not using Visual Studio. I tried to use the MT manifest tool, but couldn't figure it out. I don't think I can use DLL redirection since that doesn't get around the registry issue AFAIK. Another possibility is using WebKit but it seems even harder to use.

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• How can I stop Flash from changing indent when user Clicks on hyperlink in TextField?

  - by Paul Chernoch

  I have a TextField which I initialize by setting htmlText. The text has anchor tags (hyperlinks). When a user clicks on the hyperlink, the indentation of the second and subsequent lines in the paragraph changes. Why? How do I stop it? My html has an image at the beginning of the line, followed by the tag, followed by more text. To style the hyper links to look blue always and underlined when the mouse is over them, I do this: var css:StyleSheet = new StyleSheet(); css.parseCSS("a {color: #0000FF;} a:hover {text-decoration: underline;}"); stepText.styleSheet = css; stepText.htmlText = textToUse; stepText.visible = true; Here is a fragment of the html text (with newlines and exrta whitespace added to improve readability - originally it was one long line): <textformat indent="-37" blockindent="37" > <img src="media/interface/level-1-bullets/solid-circle.png" align="left" hspace="8" vspace="1"/> American Dental Association. (n.d.). <i>Cleaning your teeth and gums (oral hygiene)</i>. Retrieved 11/24/08, from <a href="http://www.ada.org/public/topics/cleaning_faq.asp" target="_blank">http://www.ada.org/public/topics/cleaning_faq.asp </a> </textformat> <br/> As it turns out, the text field is of a width such that it wraps and the second line starts with "Retrieved 11/24/08". Clicking on the hyper link causes this particular line to be indented. Subsequent paragraphs are not affected. ASIDE: The image is a list bullet about 37 pixels wide. (I used images instead of li tags because Flash does not allow nested lists, so I faked it using a series of images with varying amounts of whitespace to simulate three levels of indentation.) IDEA: I was thinking of changing all hyperlinks to use "event:" as the URL protocol, which causes a TextEvent.LINK event to be triggered instead of following the link. Then I would have to open the browser in a second call. I could use this event handler to set the html text to itself, which might clear the problem. (When I switch pages in my application and then come back to the page, everything is OKAY again.) PROBLEM: If I use the "event:" protocol and user tries the right-mouse button click, they will get an error, or so I am told. (See http://www.blog.lessrain.com/as3-texteventlink-and-contextmenu-incompatibilities/ ) I do not like this trade-off.

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• unable to calculate textfield values

  - by user1726508

  i am trying to change the input field when users changes the quantity of items in a text field. Here i am iterating my list from my database. Now i have to make invoice for customer. In my code , if i am changing quantity of a single item, then it is effecting all the other items in the list. I want to change only to the specific items,where its quantity has been change. Below code is giving me error. It is changing all the items value on single change of item quantity. my code; <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $(function() { $('input[name="quantity"]').change(function() { var unitprice = $('input[name^="unitprice"]').val(); $(this).parents('tr').find('input[name^="price"]').val($(this).val() * unitprice); }); }); }); </script> <tr> <td height="65%" valign="top" width="100%"> <table width="100%" height="100%" border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> <s:iterator value="#session.BOK" status="userStatus"> <tr style="height: 10px;"> <td width="65%" align="left"><s:property value="bookTitile"/></td> <td width="10%" align="left"><s:textfield name="unitprice" value="%{price}" size="4"/></td> <td width="10%" align="center"><s:textfield name="quantity" value="%{quantity}" size="2"/></td> <td width="15%" align="center"><s:textfield name="price" size="6"></s:textfield> </td> </tr> </s:iterator> </table> </td> </tr> output looks like this image...

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• drupal (CMS) or codeigniter (MVC) for creating a new web application?

  - by ajsie

  im going to create a new web application that is very customized. it will contain images, that are fully searchable - in a very, very customized way. when you click on the pictures you can add comments and so on. it requires users to be registered, but the registration/login process will be highly customized too. at the moment im using CodeIgniter for this. But i've read a lot of posts about CMS like Drupal and it sounds like i could let it handle basic stuff, maybe design and other front end work. i have no experience with CMS, in fact, i just started to use a MVC framework like CI and was impressed of how much easier it gets to start developing. so i wonder, if i'm going to create this kind of application, could i use drupal and then add the usual stuff, as i was going to do with CodeIgniter, like controllers, views, models, config files, my own libraries and so on? how does it work on a system like Drupal. how do you code PHP with it as with any MVC framework. it sounds like it has a lot of modules, i just wonder, if i can use it as a MVC framework but have the benefit of having all these basic stuff and design ready to use? cause then it sounds like the best "library" to provide for a web application from scratch. or is it difficult to create a customized app with it? i guess it has modules like images and users, but then how could i customize these so that every image has tags on it and country information, or have every user subscribing to changes to an image, that email will be sent to users and so on? cause i guess its easy to install a module. the question is, how do i customize it. maybe i don't need all that table columns. maybe i want to add/remove business logic. what are the pros and cons with using Drupal for this? is it even the right way to go? can you make a Stackoverflow with Drupal? Facebook? Twitter? Youtube? assuming that you know php of course. share your thoughts cause im totally new on creating a web application! thanks

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• No unique bean of type [javax.persistence.EntityManager] is defined

  - by sebajb

  I am using JUnit 4 to test Dao Access with Spring (annotations) and JPA (hibernate). The datasource is configured through JNDI(Weblogic) with an ORacle(Backend). This persistence is configured with just the name and a RESOURCE_LOCAL transaction-type The application context file contains notations for annotations, JPA config, transactions, and default package and configuration for annotation detection. I am using Junit4 like so: ApplicationContext <bean id="entityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="workRequest"/> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> <property name="jpaVendorAdapter"> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.vendor.HibernateJpaVendorAdapter"> <property name="databasePlatform" value="${database.target}"/> <property name="showSql" value="${database.showSql}" /> <property name="generateDdl" value="${database.generateDdl}" /> </bean> </property> </bean> <bean id="dataSource" class="org.springframework.jndi.JndiObjectFactoryBean"> <property name="jndiName"> <value>workRequest</value> </property> <property name="jndiEnvironment"> <props> <prop key="java.naming.factory.initial">weblogic.jndi.WLInitialContextFactory</prop> <prop key="java.naming.provider.url">t3://localhost:7001</prop> </props> </property> </bean> <bean id="txManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.dao.annotation.PersistenceExceptionTranslationPostProcessor"/> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.support.PersistenceAnnotationBeanPostProcessor" /> JUnit TestCase @RunWith(SpringJUnit4ClassRunner.class) @ContextConfiguration(locations = { "classpath:applicationContext.xml" }) public class AssignmentDaoTest { private AssignmentDao assignmentDao; @Test public void readAll() { assertNotNull("assignmentDao cannot be null", assignmentDao); List assignments = assignmentDao.findAll(); assertNotNull("There are no assignments yet", assignments); } } regardless of what changes I make I get: No unique bean of type [javax.persistence.EntityManager] is defined Any hint on what this could be. I am running the tests inside eclipse.

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• SQL Cartesian product joining table to itself and inserting into existing table

  - by Emma

  I am working in phpMyadmin using SQL. I want to take the primary key (EntryID) from TableA and create a cartesian product (if I am using the term correctly) in TableB (empty table already created) for all entries which share the same value for FieldB in TableA, except where TableA.EntryID equals TableA.EntryID So, for example, if the values in TableA were: TableA.EntryID TableA.FieldB 1 23 2 23 3 23 4 25 5 25 6 25 The result in TableB would be: Primary key EntryID1 EntryID2 FieldD (Default or manually entered) 1 1 2 Default value 2 1 3 Default value 3 2 1 Default value 4 2 3 Default value 5 3 1 Default value 6 3 2 Default value 7 4 5 Default value 8 4 6 Default value 9 5 4 Default value 10 5 6 Default value 11 6 4 Default value 12 6 5 Default value I am used to working in Access and this is the first query I have attempted in SQL. I started trying to work out the query and got this far. I know it's not right yet, as I’m still trying to get used to the syntax and pieced this together from various articles I found online. In particular, I wasn’t sure where the INSERT INTO text went (to create what would be an Append Query in Access). SELECT EntryID FROM TableA.EntryID TableA.EntryID WHERE TableA.FieldB=TableA.FieldB TableA.EntryID<>TableA.EntryID INSERT INTO TableB.EntryID1 TableB.EntryID2 After I've got that query right, I need to do a TRIGGER query (I think), so if an entry changes it's value in TableA.FieldB (changing it’s membership of that grouping to another grouping), the cartesian product will be re-run on THAT entry, unless TableB.FieldD = valueA or valueB (manually entered values). I have been using the Designer Tab. Does there have to be a relationship link between TableA and TableB. If so, would it be two links from the EntryID Primary Key in TableA, one to each EntryID in TableB? I assume this would not work because they are numbered EntryID1 and EntryID2 and the name needs to be the same to set up a relationship? If you can offer any suggestions, I would be very grateful. Research: http://www.fluffycat.com/SQL/Cartesian-Joins/ Cartesian Join example two Q: You said you can have a Cartesian join by joining a table to itself. Show that! Select * From Film_Table T1, Film_Table T2;

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• Problem with JQuery swapImage();

  - by VUELA

  Hello!~ On my articles page (http://www.adrtimes.squarespace.com/articles) I have each entry start with an image that changes on rollover. This is working fine. However, on my homepage (http://www.adrtimes.squarespace.com), I am loading in the 2 most recent articles that are not categorized as video, and the 2 most recent articles that are tagged as video. I am using jQuery load() to pull in the content from the articles page. Everything works ok with that except the swapImage rollovers on the homepage. i tried including the swapImage function as callbacks but only one group or the other will rollover properly, not both groups of content. I'm not sure what the problem is!! Here is the code: <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- $(function(){ $.swapImage(".swapImage"); /* Homepage */ // load recent articles $("#LoadRecentArticles").load("/articles/ .list-journal-entry-wrapper .journal-entry-wrapper:not(.category-video)", function(){ //callback... $("#LoadRecentArticles .journal-entry-wrapper").wrapAll('<div class="list-journal-entry-wrapper" />'); $("#LoadRecentArticles .journal-entry-wrapper:gt(1)").remove(); // modify Read More tag $('.journal-read-more-tag a:contains(Click to read more ...)').each(function(){ var str = $(this).html(); $(this).html(str.replace('Click to read more ...','Continue reading—')); }); $.swapImage(".swapImage"); }); // load recent videos $("#LoadRecentVideos").load("/articles/category/video .list-journal-entry-wrapper", function(){ //callback... $("#LoadRecentVideos .journal-entry-wrapper:gt(1)").remove(); $('<div class="VideoTag">—video</div>').insertBefore("#LoadRecentVideos .category-video .body img"); // modify Read More tag $('.journal-read-more-tag a:contains(Click to read more ...)').each(function(){ var str = $(this).html(); $(this).html(str.replace('Click to read more ...','Continue reading—')); }); $.swapImage(".swapImage"); }); }); --> </script> And here is a sample of the html for the images in an article entry: <a href="/articles/2010/5/6/article-title-goes-here.html"><img class="swapImage {src: '/storage/post-images/Sample2_color.jpg'}" src="/storage/post-images/Sample2_bw.jpg" /></a>

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• Resize image on upload php

  - by blasteralfred

  Hi, I have a php script for image upload as below <?php $LibID = $_POST[name]; define ("MAX_SIZE","10000"); function getExtension($str) { $i = strrpos($str,"."); if (!$i) { return ""; } $l = strlen($str) - $i; $ext = substr($str,$i+1,$l); return $ext; } $errors=0; $image=$_FILES['image']['name']; if ($image) { $filename = stripslashes($_FILES['image']['name']); $extension = getExtension($filename); $extension = strtolower($extension); if (($extension != "jpg") && ($extension != "jpeg")) { echo '<h1>Unknown extension!</h1>'; $errors=1; exit(); } else { $size=filesize($_FILES['image']['tmp_name']); if ($size > MAX_SIZE*1024) { echo '<h1>You have exceeded the size limit!</h1>'; $errors=1; exit(); } $image_name=$LibID.'.'.$extension; $newname="uimages/".$image_name; $copied = copy($_FILES['image']['tmp_name'], $newname); if (!$copied) { echo '<h1>image upload unsuccessfull!</h1>'; $errors=1; exit(); }}} ?> which uploads the image file to a folder "uimages" in the root. I have made changes in the html file for the compact display of the image by defining "max-height" and "max-width". But i want to resize the image file on upload. The image file may have a maximum width of 100px and maximum height of 150px. The image proportions must be constrained. That is, the image may be smaller than the above dimensions, but, it should not exceed the limit. How can I make this possible?? Thanks in advance :) blasteralfred..

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• Settings designer file complains when protecting configuration for connectionStrings in App.Config i

  - by Joe

  Hi, I am trying to encrypt Configuration Information Using Protected Configuration in Visual Studio 2010. I have the following info speicifed in the App.Config file: <connectionStrings configProtectionProvider="TheProviderName"> <EncryptedData> <CipherData> <CipherValue>VALUE GOES HERE</CipherValue> </CipherData> </EncryptedData> </connectionStrings> <appSettings configProtectionProvider="TheProviderName"> <EncryptedData> <CipherData> <CipherValue>VALUE GOES HERE</CipherValue> </CipherData> </EncryptedData> </appSettings> However, when I then go to the Settings area of the Projects Properties to view the settings in the Designer, I get prompted with the following error "An error occured while reading the App.config file. The file might be corrupted or contain invalid XML." I understand that my changes are causing the error, however, is there anyway I can bypass that the information is not read into at design view? (Of course the best way would be to make the tags be recognized by the designer, is there any way to do this?) I tried adding <connectionStrings configProtectionProvider="TheProviderName" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/.NetConfiguration/v2.0"> to connectionStrings as well as to the appSettings, but with no luck, the intellisense is bypassed in the config file, but the designer still complains. I would be satisfied if the designer would not complain about this "error", which is not actually an error because Microsoft states here that it should work. ASP.NET 2.0 provides a new feature, called protected configuration, that enables you to encrypt sensitive information in a configuration file. Although primarily designed for ASP.NET, protected configuration can also be used to encrypt configuration file sections in Windows applications. For a detailed description of the new protected configuration capabilities, see Encrypting Configuration Information Using Protected Configuration. And yes, it does work to encrypt it and to decrypt it and use it, it is just very annoying and frustrating that the designer complains about it. Anyone who knows which xsd file that is used (if used) to verify the contents of the App.config file in the design view? Any help appreciated.

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• PHP, MySQL: Display only required parts of my website in sister website

  - by Devner

  Hi all, Now I have my website built on PHP & Mysql. Consider this like a forum. Now when a user posts a reply in my website 1 (ex. www.website1.com), I want to be able to show the starting thread and it's related replies in a sister website of mine. I want to do this in a way that it does not show the rest of the page & other page contents (like logo etc.). I don't think iframe would be a solution because an iframe would embed the whole page and the users visiting my sister website (totally different domain i.e. www.website2.com) would be able to see all the page contents, like logo etc. I want to avoid that. I want to make them see only limited information from website 1 and only the info. that I intend. I hope that makes sense. In a way, you could say that I am trying to replicate my 1 website, and show only a limited part of it. Users browsing 2nd website can post a reply in the 2nd website and it should automatically be posted & visible to the visitors of the website 1. Users of website 1 should not know that a user of website 2 has posted it. They would feel that some user from website 1 has posted it. Do I have to use 2 separate mysql DB or just 1? I think it would be problematic if I am trying to use different DB. I also feel I might have to face DB connectivity issues as I can connect to only 1 DB at a time. It's basically like users of website1.com should feel that they are replying to users of website1.com & users of website2.com should feel that they are replying to users of website2.com. (I need it this way to bridge the gap between them). At the same time I want to make the front end of the websites different so that they don't feel that they are replying to some other users outside the domain. These websites would be under my control and I will have access to the source code at any time. If I need to change the source code, these changes are welcome. Is this really possible? Thank you in advance.

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• Working with Multiple Layers - KineticJS

  - by Bruno Sampaio

  I'm using KineticJS 4.0.5 and I'm currently trying to draw the contents of several layers but only the last one added to stage is drawn... If I understood the documentation correctly this should be possible, otherwise why would we need a layer? I have three different layers: a background layer with just a Kinectic.Rect object; a elements layer with several types of shapes; and a top layer with elements I want to be always on top of everything. I populate those layers inside a draw function I have inside a object I created, this object also has a shape attribute which refers to the background and a contents attribute with the elements to add to the elements layer. My code for the draw function is the following: this.draw = function() { var stage = E.game.stage, layers = E.game.layers; stage.clear(); // Add Background this.shape.setSize(stage.getWidth(), stage.getHeight()); layers.background.add(this.shape); // Iterate over contents for(var i = 0; i < this.contents.length; i++) { layers.elements.add(this.contents[i].shape); } // Draw Everything stage.add(layers.background); stage.add(layers.elements); stage.add(layers.top); // This one is currently empty stage.draw(); } After running this function, only layers.top is drawn in the canvas, and if I comment the line where it is added only layers.elements is drawn. However the stage has 3 childrens (I checked it with inspect element on chrome) and in the documentation it says the draw function draws all layers... Am I doing something wrong here? Or it isn't possible? And if it's not possible why would I need a layer and a stage? Wouldn't one be enough? Thank you in advance. Edit: I was able to solve the problem, I was applying a white background color with css to the canvas element and since each layer creates a new canvas element above the others I could only see the contents for the top most layer (in this case just white). However, I still have a problem related with multiple layers that I didn't have before with just one layer. When I use the clear function on the stage it should clear the layers right? But instead the layers remain exactly the same, even if I try to call clear on each individual layer they won't change... I'm also using the stage draw function after clearing them but still no changes at all... The only solution I found until now was by removing the layer from the stage and adding it again :s Is there a better way to reset the layers contents? Thank you again and sorry for the confusion with the first question.

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• Using Selenium-IDE with a rich Javascript application?

  - by Darien

  Problem At my workplace, we're trying to find the best way to create automated-tests for an almost wholly javascript-driven intranet application. Right now we're stuck trying to find a good tradeoff between: Application code in reusable and nest-able GUI components. Tests which are easily created by the testing team Tests which can be recorded once and then automated Tests which do not break after small cosmetic changes to the site XPath expressions (or other possible expressions, like jQuery selectors) naively generated from Selenium-IDE are often non-repeatable and very fragile. Conversely, having the JS code generate special unique ID values for every important DOM-element on the page... well, that is its own headache, complicated by re-usable GUI components and IDs needing to be consistent when the test is re-run. What successes have other people had with this kind of thing? How do you do automated application-level testing of a rich JS interface? Limitations We are using JavascriptMVC 2.0, hopefully 3.0 soon so that we can upgrade to jQuery 1.4.x. The test-making folks are mostly trained to use Selenium IDE to directly record things. The test leads would prefer a page-unique HTML ID on each clickable element on the page... Training the testers to write or alter special expressions (such as telling them which HTML class-names are important branching points) is a no-go. We try to make re-usable javascript components, but this means very few GUI components can treat themselves (or what they contain) as unique. Some of our components already use HTML ID values in their operation. I'd like to avoid doing this anyway, but it complicates the idea of ID-based testing. It may be possible to add custom facilities (like a locator-builder or new locator method) to the Selenium-IDE installation testers use. Almost everything that goes on occurs within a single "page load" from a conventional browser perspective, even when items are saved Current thoughts I'm considering a system where a custom locator-builder (javascript code) for Selenium-IDE will talk with our application code as the tester is recording. In this way, our application becomes partially responsible for generating a mostly-flexible expression (XPath or jQuery) for any given DOM element. While this can avoid requiring more training for testers, I worry it may be over-thinking things.

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• Wierdness debugging Visual Studio C++ 2008

  - by Jeff Dege

  I have a legacy C++ app, that in its most incarnation we've been building with makefiles and VS2003's command-line tool. I'm trying to get it to build using VS2008 and MsBuild. The build is working OK, but I'm getting errors where I'd never seen errors, before, and stepping through in VS2008's debugger only confuses me. The app links a number of static libraries, which fall into two categories: those that are part of the same application suite, and those that are shared between a number of application suites. Originally, I had a .csproj file for each static library, and two .sln files, one for the application suite (including the suite-specific libraries) and one for the non-suite-specific shared libraries. The shared libraries were included in the link, their projects were not included in the application suite .sln. The application instantiates an object from a class that is defined in one of the shared libraries. The class has a member object of a class that wraps a linked list. The constructor of the linked list class sets its "head" pointer to null. When I run the app, and try to add an element to the linked list, I get an error - the head pointer contains the value 0xCCCCCCCC. So I step through with the debugger. And see weirdness. When the current line in the debugger is in a source file belonging to the static library, the head pointer contains 0x00000000. When I step into the constructor, I can see the pointer being set to that value, and when I'm stepped into any other method of the class, I can see that the head pointer still contains 0x00000000. But when I step out into methods that are defined in the application suite .sln, it contains 0xCCCCCCCC. It's not like it's being overwritten. It changes back and forth depending upon which source file I am currently debugging. So I included the shared library's project in the application suite .sln, and now I see the head pointer containing 0xCCCCCCCC all the time. It looks like the constructor of the linked list class is not being called. So now, I'm entirely confused. Anyone have any ideas?

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• Java exercise - display table with 2d array

  - by TheHacker66

  I'm struggling to finish a java exercise, it involves using 2d arrays to dinamically create and display a table based on a command line parameter. Example: java table 5 +-+-+-+-+-+ |1|2|3|4|5| +-+-+-+-+-+ |2|3|4|5|1| +-+-+-+-+-+ |3|4|5|1|2| +-+-+-+-+-+ |4|5|1|2|3| +-+-+-+-+-+ |5|1|2|3|4| +-+-+-+-+-+ What i have done so far: public static void main(String[] args) { int num = Integer.parseInt(args[0]); String[][] table = new String[num*2+1][num]; int[] numbers = new int[num]; int temp = 0; for(int i=0; i<numbers.length; i++) numbers[i] = i+1; // wrong for(int i=0; i<table.length; i++){ for(int j=0; j<num;j++){ if(i%2!=0){ temp=numbers[0]; for(int k=1; k<numbers.length; k++){ numbers[k-1]=numbers[k]; } numbers[numbers.length-1]=temp; for(int l=0; l<numbers.length; l++){ table[i][j] = "|"+numbers[l]; } } else table[i][j] = "+-"; } } for(int i=0; i<table.length; i++){ for(int j=0; j<num; j++) System.out.print(table[i][j]); if(i%2==0) System.out.print("+"); else System.out.print("|"); System.out.println();} } This doesn't work, since it prints 1|2|3|4 in every row, which isn't what i need. I found the issue, and it's because the first for loop changes the array order more times than needed and basically it returns as it was at the beginning. I know that probably there's a way to achieve this by writing more code, but i always tend to nest as much as possible to "optimize" the code while i write it, so that's why i tried solving this exercise by using less variables and loops as possible. Thanks in advance for your help!

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• Changing RGB color image to Grayscale image using Objective C

  - by user567167

  I was developing a application that changes color image to gray image. However, some how the picture comes out wrong. I dont know what is wrong with the code. maybe the parameter that i put in is wrong please help. UIImage *c = [UIImage imageNamed:@"downRed.png"]; CGImageRef cRef = CGImageRetain(c.CGImage); NSData* pixelData = (NSData*) CGDataProviderCopyData(CGImageGetDataProvider(cRef)); size_t w = CGImageGetWidth(cRef); size_t h = CGImageGetHeight(cRef); unsigned char* pixelBytes = (unsigned char *)[pixelData bytes]; unsigned char* greyPixelData = (unsigned char*) malloc(w*h); for (int y = 0; y < h; y++) { for(int x = 0; x < w; x++){ int iter = 4*(w*y+x); int red = pixe lBytes[iter]; int green = pixelBytes[iter+1]; int blue = pixelBytes[iter+2]; greyPixelData[w*y+x] = (unsigned char)(red*0.3 + green*0.59+ blue*0.11); int value = greyPixelData[w*y+x]; } } CFDataRef imgData = CFDataCreate(NULL, greyPixelData, w*h); CGDataProviderRef imgDataProvider = CGDataProviderCreateWithCFData(imgData); size_t width = CGImageGetWidth(cRef); size_t height = CGImageGetHeight(cRef); size_t bitsPerComponent = 8; size_t bitsPerPixel = 8; size_t bytesPerRow = CGImageGetWidth(cRef); CGColorSpaceRef colorSpace = CGColorSpaceCreateDeviceGray(); CGBitmapInfo info = kCGImageAlphaNone; CGFloat *decode = NULL; BOOL shouldInteroplate = NO; CGColorRenderingIntent intent = kCGRenderingIntentDefault; CGDataProviderRelease(imgDataProvider); CGImageRef throughCGImage = CGImageCreate(width, height, bitsPerComponent, bitsPerPixel, bytesPerRow, colorSpace, info, imgDataProvider, decode, shouldInteroplate, intent); UIImage* newImage = [UIImage imageWithCGImage:throughCGImage]; CGImageRelease(throughCGImage); newImageView.image = newImage;

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• Java replacement for C macros

  - by thkala

  Recently I refactored the code of a 3rd party hash function from C++ to C. The process was relatively painless, with only a few changes of note. Now I want to write the same function in Java and I came upon a slight issue. In the C/C++ code there is a C preprocessor macro that takes a few integer variables names as arguments and performs a bunch of bitwise operations with their contents and a few constants. That macro is used in several different places, therefore its presence avoids a fair bit of code duplication. In Java, however, there is no equivalent for the C preprocessor. There is also no way to affect any basic type passed as an argument to a method - even autoboxing produces immutable objects. Coupled with the fact that Java methods return a single value, I can't seem to find a simple way to rewrite the macro. Avenues that I considered: Expand the macro by hand everywhere: It would work, but the code duplication could make things interesting in the long run. Write a method that returns an array: This would also work, but it would repeatedly result into code like this: long tmp[] = bitops(k, l, m, x, y, z); k = tmp[0]; l = tmp[1]; m = tmp[2]; x = tmp[3]; y = tmp[4]; z = tmp[5]; Write a method that takes an array as an argument: This would mean that all variable names would be reduced to array element references - it would be rather hard to keep track of which index corresponds to which variable. Create a separate class e.g. State with public fields of the appropriate type and use that as an argument to a method: This is my current solution. It allows the method to alter the variables, while still keeping their names. It has the disadvantage, however, that the State class will get more and more complex, as more macros and variables are added, in order to avoid copying values back and forth among different State objects. How would you rewrite such a C macro in Java? Is there a more appropriate way to deal with this, using the facilities provided by the standard Java 6 Development Kit (i.e. without 3rd party libraries or a separate preprocessor)?

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• How to get Augmented Reality: A Practical Guide examples working?

  - by Glen

  I recently bought the book: Augmented Reality: A Practical Guide (http://pragprog.com/titles/cfar/augmented-reality). It has example code that it says runs on Windows, MacOS and Linux. But I can't get the binaries to run. Has anyone got this book and got the binaries to run on ubuntu? I also can't figure out how to compile the examples in Ubuntu. How would I do this? Here is what it says to do: Compiling for Linux Refreshingly, there are no changes required to get the programs in this chapter to compile for Linux, but as with Windows, you’ll first have to find your GL and GLUT files. This may mean you’ll have to download the correct version of GLUT for your machine. You need to link in the GL, GLU, and GLUT libraries and provide a path to the GLUT header file and the files it includes. See whether there is a glut.h file in the /usr/include/GL directory; otherwise, look elsewhere for it—you could use the command find / -name "glut.h" to search your entire machine, or you could use the locate command (locate glut.h). You may need to customize the paths, but here is an example of the compile command: gcc -o opengl_template opengl_template.cpp -I /usr/include/GL -I /usr/include -lGL -lGLU -lglut gcc is a C/C++ compiler that should be present on your Linux or Unix machine. The -I /usr/include/GL command-line argument tells gcc to look in /usr/include/GL for the include files. In this case, you’ll find glut.h and what it includes. When linking in libraries with gcc, you use the -lX switch—where X is the name of your library and there is a correspond- ing libX.a file somewhere in your path. For this example, you want to link in the library files libGL.a, libGLU.a, and libglut.a, so you will use the gcc arguments -lGL -lGLU -lglut. These three files are found in the default directory /usr/lib/, so you don’t need to specify their location as you did with glut.h. If you did need to specify the library path, you would add -L to the path. To run your compiled program, type ./opengl_template or, if the current directory is in your shell’s paths, just opengl_template. When working in Linux, it’s important to know that you may need to keep your texture files to a maximum of 256 by 256 pixels or find the settings in your system to raise this limit. Often an OpenGL program will work in Windows but produce a blank white texture in Linux until the texture size is reduced. The above instructions make no sense to me. Do I have to use gcc to compile or can I use eclipse? If I use either eclipse or gcc what do I need to do to compile and run the program?

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