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• pattern for the following condition in java

  - by zahir hussain

  hi i want to know how to write pattern.. for example : the word is "AboutGoogle AdWords Drive traffic and customers to your site. Pay through Cheque, Net Banking or Credit Card. Google Toolbar Add a search box to your browser. Google SMS To find out local information simply SMS to 54664. Gmail Free email with 7.2GB storage and less spam. Try Gmail today. Our ProductsHelp Help with Google Search, Services and ProductsGoogle Web Search Features Translation, I'm Feeling Lucky, CachedGoogle Services & Tools Toolbar, Google Web APIs, ButtonsGoogle Labs Ideas, Demos, ExperimentsFor Site OwnersAdvertising AdWords, AdSenseBusiness Solutions Google Search Appliance, Google Mini, WebSearchWebmaster Central One-stop shop for comprehensive info about how Google crawls and indexes websitesSubmit your content to Google Add your site, Google SitemapsOur CompanyPress Center News, Images, ZeitgeistJobs at Google Openings, Perks, CultureCorporate Info Company overview, Philosophy, Diversity, AddressesInvestor Relations Financial info, Corporate governanceMore GoogleContact Us FAQs, Feedback, NewsletterGoogle Logos Official Logos, Holiday Logos, Fan LogosGoogle Blog Insights to Google products and cultureGoogle Store Pens, Shirts, Lava lamps©2010 Google - Privacy Policy - Terms of Service" I have to search some word... for example "google insights" so how to write the code in java... i just write small code... check my code and answer my question... that code only use for find the search word, where is that. but i need to display some words front of search word and display some words rear of search workd... similar to google search... my code is Pattern p = Pattern.compile("(?i)(.*?)"+search+""); Matcher m = p.matcher(full); String title=""; while (m.find() == true) { title=m.group(1); System.out.println(title); } the full is orignal content, search s search word... thanks and advance

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• Getting elements children with certain tag jQuery

  - by johnnyArt

  I'm trying to get all the input elements from a certain form from jQuery by providing only the name of the form and only knowing that those wanted fields are input elements. Let's say: <form action='#' id='formId'> <input id='name' /> <input id='surname'/> </form> How do I access them individually with jQuery? I tried something like $('#formId > input') with no success, in fact an error came back on the console "XML filter is applied to non-XML value (function (a, b) {return new (c.fn.init)(a, b);})" Maybe I have to do it with .children or something like that? I'm pretty new at jQuery and I'm not really liking the Docs. It was much friendlier in Mootools, or maybe I just need to get used to it. Oh and last but not least, I've seen it asked before but no final answer, can I create a new dom element with jQuery and work with it before inserting it (if I ever do) into de code? In mootools, we had something like var myEl = new Element(element[, properties]); and you could then refer to it in further expressions, but I fail to understand how to do that on jQuery Thanks in advance.

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• ASP.NET auto-generate aspx.designer.cs turn off?

  - by Joris

  Hey all, As I'm working on a asp.net/c# project, I'm confronted with the foobar.aspx.designer.cs that auto generates it's content. eg, when I'm changing the code/designer, the designer.cs automatically updates it's content. As I'm bit of a control-dude, I'd like to maintain the code myself. I'm not happy with the overkill of comments I don't need. Like: /// <summary> /// Form1 control. /// </summary> /// <remarks> /// Auto-generated field. /// To modify move field declaration from designer file to code-behind file. /// </remarks> protected global::System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm Form1; While I'd like to see the following: protected global::System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm Form1; protected global::System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button Button3; etc, etc (don't mind the naming, ofcourse I'd give it some distinguishing nameing) How to fix this? I checked google on this one, but couldn't find an answer so quickly...

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• When does an ARM7 processor increase its PC register?

  - by Summer_More_More_Tea

  Hi everyone: I'm thinking about this question for a time: when does an ARM7(with 3 pipelines) processor increase its PC register. I originally thought that after an instruction has been executed, the processor first check is there any exception in the last execution, then increase PC by 2 or 4 depending on current state. If an exception occur, ARM7 will change its running mode, store PC in the LR of current mode and begin to process current exception without modifying the PC register. But it make no sense when analyzing returning instructions. I can not work out why PC will be assigned LR when returning from an undefined-instruction-exception while LR-4 from prefetch-abort-exception, don't both of these exceptions happened at the decoding state? What's more, according to my textbook, PC will always be assigned LR-4 when returning from prefetch-abort-exception no matter what state the processor is(ARM or Thumb) before exception occurs. However, I think PC should be assigned LR-2 if the original state is Thumb, since a Thumb-instruction is 2 bytes long instead of 4 bytes which an ARM-instruction holds, and we just wanna roll-back an instruction in current state. Is there any flaws in my reasoning or something wrong with the textbook. Seems a long question. I really hope anyone can help me get the right answer. Thanks in advance.

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• I'm about to learn x86 assembly on os x 10.6 let me know how compile..plz

  - by kevin choung

  hello~ I'm about to learn x86 assembly language on mac os x... I'm using as instruction to compile assembly file in commend window. but I have several errors.. and I don't know how I can get through.. here is the errors and my assembly code.. which is quite simple. **ung-mi-lims-macbook-pro:pa2 ungmi$ as swap.s swap.s:16:Unknown pseudo-op: .type swap.s:16:Rest of line ignored. 1st junk character valued 115 (s). swap.s:19:suffix or operands invalid for `push' swap.s:46:suffix or operands invalid for `pop' ung-mi-lims-macbook-pro:pa2 ungmi$** and the source is .text .align 4 .globl swap .type swap,@function swap: pushl %ebp movl %esp, %ebp movl %ebp, %esp popl %ebp ret and I searched some solution which is I have to put -arch i386 than **ung-mi-lims-macbook-pro:pa2 ungmi$ as -arch i386 swap.s swap.s:16:Unknown pseudo-op: .type swap.s:16:Rest of line ignored. 1st junk character valued 115 (s). ung-mi-lims-macbook-pro:pa2 ungmi$** could you help me out.. just let me know what I need to compile assembly file.. I have xcode already.. and I'd rather to do this with commend window..and vi editor.. I will be waiting for your answer... plz help me.

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• Protecting an Application's Memory From Tampering

  - by Changeling

  We are adding AES 256 bit encryption to our server and client applications for encrypting the TCP/IP traffic containing sensitive information. We will be rotating the keys daily. Because of that, the keys will be stored in memory with the applications. Key distribution process: Each server and client will have a list of initial Key Encryption Key's (KEK) by day If the client has just started up or the server has just started up, the client will request the daily key from the server using the initial key. The server will respond with the daily key, encrypted with the initial key. The daily key is a randomly generated set of alphanumeric characters. We are using AES 256 bit encryption. All subsequent communications will be encrypted using that daily key. Nightly, the client will request the new daily key from the server using the current daily key as the current KEK. After the client gets the new key, the new daily key will replace the old daily key. Is it possible for another bad application to gain access to this memory illegally or is this protected in Windows? The key will not be written to a file, only stored in a variable in memory. If an application can access the memory illegally, how can you protect the memory from tampering? We are using C++ and XP (Vista/7 may be an option in the future so I don't know if that changes the answer).

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• Modeling objects with multiple table relationships in Zend Framework

  - by andybaird

  I'm toying with Zend Framework and trying to use the "QuickStart" guide against a website I'm making just to see how the process would work. Forgive me if this answer is obvious, hopefully someone experienced can shed some light on this. I have three database tables: CREATE TABLE `users` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, `email` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `username` varchar(255) NOT NULL default '', `first` varchar(128) NOT NULL default '', `last` varchar(128) NOT NULL default '', `gender` enum('M','F') default NULL, `birthyear` year(4) default NULL, `postal` varchar(16) default NULL, `auth_method` enum('Default','OpenID','Facebook','Disabled') NOT NULL default 'Default', PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY `email` (`email`), UNIQUE KEY `username` (`username`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 CREATE TABLE `user_password` ( `user_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `password` varchar(16) NOT NULL default '', PRIMARY KEY (`user_id`), UNIQUE KEY `user_id` (`user_id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 CREATE TABLE `user_metadata` ( `user_id` int(11) NOT NULL default '0', `signup_date` datetime default NULL, `signup_ip` varchar(15) default NULL, `last_login_date` datetime default NULL, `last_login_ip` varchar(15) default NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`user_id`), UNIQUE KEY `user_id` (`user_id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 I want to create a User model that uses all three tables in certain situations. E.g., the metadata table is accessed if/when the meta data is needed. The user_password table is accessed only if the 'Default' auth_method is set. I'll likely be adding a profile table later on that I would like to be able to access from the user model. What is the best way to do this with ZF and why?

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• Webbrowser locks first Excel Instance

  - by figus

  VB.NET 2008 - WinForms Hi Everyone! I've been looking for an answer to my problem but I only find more questions related to my problem... The thing is that I'm using a AxWebBrowser control in VB.NET 2008 to open a excel file in a WindowsForm, it opens succesfully and everything... but the problem is this: If I had a Excel File Open before opening another Excel File in my WebBrowser Control, the window that contains the file that was already open gets locked... (I can't give focus to that Excel window... If I click on it, the focus returns to my application) I tried creating a new excel instance with CreateObject("Excel.Application") just before loading the file, but the WebBrowser locks the first Excel Instance... Is there a way to lock it to the last instance??? I use the WebBrowser1.Navigate(Url) method to load the file... where Url is a String like C:\myExcelFile.xlsm WebBrowser1.Document.Application.UserControl is also True, but it get's locked. Any Suggestion?? Thanks in Advance!!!

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• Best way to randomly select columns from random rows of SQL results.

  - by LesterDove

  A search of SO yields many results describing how to select random rows of data from a database table. My requirement is a bit different, though, in that I'd like to select individual columns from across random rows in the most efficient/random/interesting way possible. To better illustrate: I have a large Customers table, and from that I'd like to generate a bunch of fictitious demo Customer records that aren't real people. I'm thinking of just querying randomly from the Customers table, and then randomly pairing FirstNames with LastNames, Address, City, State, etc. So if this is my real Customer data (simplified): FirstName LastName State ========================== Sally Simpson SD Will Warren WI Mike Malone MN Kelly Kline KS Then I'd generate several records that look like this: FirstName LastName State ========================== Sally Warren MN Kelly Malone SD Etc. My initial approach works, but it lacks the elegance that I'm hoping the final answer will provide. (I'm particularly unhappy with the repetitiveness of the subqueries, and the fact that this solution requires a known/fixed number of fields and therefore isn't reusable.) SELECT FirstName = (SELECT TOP 1 FirstName FROM Customer ORDER BY newid()), LastName= (SELECT TOP 1 LastNameFROM Customer ORDER BY newid()), State = (SELECT TOP 1 State FROM Customer ORDER BY newid()) Thanks!

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• can not override showDialog in Activity tab

  - by hornetbzz

  Trying to downgrade my appl from android 2.2 (API 8) down to android 2.1 (API7), I'm facing some issues with dialog boxes. Based on this thread, I'm trying to catch these exceptions but can't override the showDialog method. I turned the Java compiler from 1.5 to 1.6 according to this answer to a similar issue, but no changes, Eclipse still returns : Cannot override the final method from Activity public class MyActivity extends Activity implements SeekBar.OnSeekBarChangeListener { // ... some stuffs @Override // here is the issue public void showDialog(int dialogId) { try { super.showDialog(dialogId); } catch (IllegalArgumentException e) { Log.e(ACTIVITY_TAG, "Error dialog"); } } @Override protected Dialog onCreateDialog(int id) { switch (id) { case DIALOG_ALERT: // Create out AlertDialog Builder builder = new AlertDialog.Builder(this); builder.setMessage(msg); builder.setCancelable(false); builder.setPositiveButton(GOTO_BOOK, new OkOnClickListener()); builder.setNegativeButton(STAY_HERE, new CancelOnClickListener()); AlertDialog dialog = builder.create(); dialog.show(); break; case DIALOG_ONCREATE: // Create out AlertDialog during the "onCreate" method (only "Ok" // button) Builder builder2 = new AlertDialog.Builder(getParent()); builder2.setMessage(msg); builder2.setCancelable(false); builder2.setPositiveButton(GO_BACK, new OkOnClickListener()); AlertDialog dialog2 = builder2.create(); dialog2.show(); break; } return super.onCreateDialog(id); } // ... some stuffs }

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• Appropriate SQL Server Permissions for Developers

  - by BJ Safdie

  After a couple of Google searches and a quick look at questions here, I cannot seem to find what I thought would be a cookbook answer for SQL Server permissions. As I often see in small shops, most developers here were using an admin account for SQL Server while developing. I want to set up roles and permissions that I can assign to developers so that we can get our jobs done, but also do so with the minimum permissions required. Can anyone offer advice on what SQL Server permissions to assign? Components: SQL Server 2008 SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) 2008 SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) 2008 Platforms: Production Staging/QA Development/Integration We are running "Mixed Mode" security because of some legacy apps and networks, but are moving to Windows Auth. I am not sure if that really affects the role set up. I plan to set up access for Developers to Prod and Staging/QA DBs as Read-Only. However, I still want developers to retain the ability to run Profiling. We need Deployment accounts with higher privilege levels. We are currently trying to figure out exactly what privileges we need for SSIS package deployments. Within the Development Server, Developers need broad privileges. However, I am not sure that just making them all admins is really the best choice. It's hard to believe that no one has published a decent example script that sets up these kinds of roles with a good set of appropriate permissions for developers and deployers. We can probably figure this all out by locking things down and then adding permissions as we discover the need, but that will be way too big a PITA for everyone. Can anyone point me to, or provide, a good exemplar for permissions for these kinds of roles on these kinds of platforms?

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• How to update application files using patching?

  - by Marek

  I am not interested in any auto update solution, such as ClickOnce or the MS Updater Block. For anyone feeling the urge to ask why not: I am already using these and there is nothing wrong with them, I would just like to learn about any efficient alternatives. I would like to publish patches = small differences that will modify existing files of the deployment with the smallest possible delta. Not only code needs to be patched, but also resource files. Patching the running code can be accomplished by maintaining two separate synchronized copies of the deployment (no on the fly changes to the running executable are required). The application itself can be xcopy deployed (to avoid MSI auto-correcting the modified files or breaking ClickOnce signatures). I would like to learn how to handle different versions of patches (e.g. there is a patch issued that fixes one error and later another patch that fixes another error (in the same file) - users may have any combination of these and there comes a third patch - in text files, this may be easy to implement, but how about executable files? (native Win32 code vs. .NET, any difference?) If the first problem is too hard to solve or unsolvable for executables, I would like to at least learn if there is a solution that implements simple patching with serial revisions - in order to install revision 5, user must have all previous revisions installed to ensure validity of the deployment. Are there any existing solutions to accomplish this? NOTE: There are a few questions on SO that may seem like duplicates, but none with a good answer. This question is about the Windows platform, preferably .NET.

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• Using Doctrine to abstract CRUD operations

  - by TomWilsonFL

  This has bothered me for quite a while, but now it is necessity that I find the answer. We are working on quite a large project using CodeIgniter plus Doctrine. Our application has a front end and also an admin area for the company to check/change/delete data. When we designed the front end, we simply consumed most of the Doctrine code right in the controller: //In semi-pseudocode function register() { $data = get_post_data(); if (count($data) && isValid($data)) { $U = new User(); $U->fromArray($data); $U->save(); $C = new Customer(); $C->fromArray($data); $C->user_id = $U->id; $C->save(); redirect_to_next_step(); } } Obviously when we went to do the admin views code duplication began and considering we were in a "get it DONE" mode so it now stinks with code bloat. I have moved a lot of functionality (business logic) into the model using model methods, but the basic CRUD does not fit there. I was going to attempt to place the CRUD into static methods, i.e. Customer::save($array) [would perform both insert and update depending on if prikey is present in array], Customer::delete($id), Customer::getObj($id = false) [if false, get all data]. This is going to become painful though for 32 model objects (and growing). Also, at times models need to interact (as the interaction above between user data and customer data), which can't be done in a static method without breaking encapsulation. I envision adding another layer to this (exposing web services), so knowing there are going to be 3 "controllers" at some point I need to encapsulate this CRUD somewhere (obviously), but are static methods the way to go, or is there another road? Your input is much appreciated.

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• For each <item> in CheckedListBox. <item> returns as Object and not as Control

  - by Tivie

  Hello there. I have a CheckedListBox previously populated. I want to loop with a "for each / next" through all items in the CheckedListBox and do a lot of "stuff" with each iteration element of the checkedlistbox. example code: For Each item In CheckedListBox1.Items If item.Checked = True Then 'do stuff like item.BackColor = Color.Blue Else 'do other stuff item.BackColor = Color.Brown End If Next the problem is that is an 'Object' type and not a 'Control' type. If I force the iteration var As CheckBox, it throws an InvalidCastException saying that type 'System.String' can't be associated with type 'System.Windows.Forms.CheckBox' I know I can easily work around using for i=0 to CheckedListBox.Items.Count - 1 but I want to use a for each /next loop since I have a lot of code in that loop (and With can't be used) and always poiting directly to the object is something I wish to avoid and I really need the code to be as simple as possible. I actually spent one afternoon looking for this but couldn't find any answer. If someone could be kind enough to enlight me in this, it would be extremely appreciated. Best regards

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• What is the best way to use Guice and JMock together?

  - by Yishai

  I have started using Guice to do some dependency injection on a project, primarily because I need to inject mocks (using JMock currently) a layer away from the unit test, which makes manual injection very awkward. My question is what is the best approach for introducing a mock? What I currently have is to make a new module in the unit test that satisfies the dependencies and bind them with a provider that looks like this: public class JMockProvider<T> implements Provider<T> { private T mock; public JMockProvider(T mock) { this.mock = mock; } public T get() { return mock; } } Passing the mock in the constructor, so a JMock setup might look like this: final CommunicationQueue queue = context.mock(CommunicationQueue.class); final TransactionRollBack trans = context.mock(TransactionRollBack.class); Injector injector = Guice.createInjector(new AbstractModule() { @Override protected void configure() { bind(CommunicationQueue.class).toProvider(new JMockProvider<QuickBooksCommunicationQueue>(queue)); bind(TransactionRollBack.class).toProvider(new JMockProvider<TransactionRollBack>(trans)); } }); context.checking(new Expectations() {{ oneOf(queue).retrieve(with(any(int.class))); will(returnValue(null)); never(trans); }}); injector.getInstance(RunResponse.class).processResponseImpl(-1); Is there a better way? I know that AtUnit attempts to address this problem, although I'm missing how it auto-magically injects a mock that was created locally like the above, but I'm looking for either a compelling reason why AtUnit is the right answer here (other than its ability to change DI and mocking frameworks around without changing tests) or if there is a better solution to doing it by hand.

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• Advanced Linq query using into

  - by dilbert789

  I have this query that someone else wrote, it's over my head so I'm looking for some direction. What is happening currently is that it's taking numbers where there is a goal and no history entered, or history and no goal, this screws up the calculations as both goal and history for the same item are required on each. The three tables involved are: KPIType Goal KPIHistory What I need: Need all rows from KPIType. Need all goals where there is a matching KPIHistory row (Goal.KPItypeID == KPIHistory.KPItypeID ) into results 1 Need all kpiHistory’s where there is a matching Goal row (Goal.KPItypeID == KPIHistory.KPItypeID ) into results 2 Current query: var query = from t in dcs.KPIType.Where(k => k.ID <= 23) join g in dcs.Goal.Where(g => g.Dealership.ID == dealershipID && g.YearMonth >= beginDate && g.YearMonth <= endDate ) on t.ID equals g.KPITypeID into results1 join h in dcs.KPIHistory.Where(h => h.Dealership.ID == dealershipID && h.ForDate >= beginDate && h.ForDate <= endDate ) on t.ID equals h.KPIType.ID into results2 orderby t.DisplayOrder select new { t, Goal = results1, KPIHistory = results2 }; query.ToList().ForEach(q => { results.Add(q.t); }); Thanks, I'm happy to answer questions if more info needed.

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• Duplicating custom nodes in JavaFX

  - by Elazar Leibovich

  As far as I understand, duplicating nodes in JavaFX should be done with the Duplicator.duplicate function. It works fine when duplicating nodes whose types are included in JavaFX library, for example def dup = Duplicator.duplicate(Rectangle{x:30 y:30 width:100 height:100}); dup.translateX = 10; insert dup into content; would insert a black rectangle to the scene. However if I define a new class in the following way: class MyRect extends Rectangle {} Or class MyRect extends CustomNode { override function create() {Rectangle{x:30 y:30 width:10 height:10}} } It gives me the following runtime error Type 'javafxapplication1.NumberGrid$MyRect' not found. Where of course javafxapplication1.NumberGrid are the package and file the MyRect class is in. This guy at Sun's forums had the same problem, but I don't see any answer in there. Or maybe I'm doing that the wrong way, and there's a better approach for duplicating custom nodes? update: Trying to duplicate Group worked, but trying to duplicate Stack yields the same error. According to the documentation, it's supposed to support all types supported in FXD including Node, but maybe it supports only some of Node's descendants?

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• How can I get back my privilege to create a new database in MySQL?

  - by Steven

  I can not use MySQL. MySQL is on my local computer. Currently I added skip-grant-tables in My.ini so I can use MySQL. But I have no privilege to create a new database. My problem is tough, although I asked related questions on SO, but no answer can resolve my problem. I almost give up. So I lower my expectation. I am developing a website, so I need to create database, tables and operate tables. You don't have to consider security. Is there a simple solution that can give me privilege to create a new database? Maybe by adding some command in my.ini or something? You won't need to completely resolve my problem. Maybe after the development, I will upload the database and tables to another server(The current database server is my personal computer, windows XP) so I can uninstall and reinstall MySQL. The root of problem is that I lack privileges.

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• When to use certain optimizations such as -fwhole-program and -fprofile-generate with several shared libraries

  - by James

  Probably a simple answer; I get quite confused with the language used in the GCC documentation for some of these flags! Anyway, I have three libraries and a programme which uses all these three. I compile each of my libraries seperately with individual (potentially) different sets of warning flags. However, I compile all three libraries with the same set of optimisation flags. I then compile my main programme linking in these three libraries with its own set of warning flags and the same optimisation flags used during the libraries' compilation. 1) Do I have to compile the libraries with optimisation flags present or can I just use these flags when compiling the final programme and linking to the libraries? If the latter, will it then optimise all or just some (presumably that which is called) of the code in these libraries? 2) I would like to use -fwhole-program -flto -fuse-linker-plugin and the linker plugin gold. At which stage do I compile with these on ... just the final compilation or do these flags need to be present during the compilation of the libraries? 3) Pretty much the same as 2) however with, -fprofile-generate -fprofile-arcs and -fprofile-use. I understand one first runs a programme with generate, and then with use. However, do I have to compile each of the libraries with generate/use etc. or just the final programme? And if it is just the last programme, when I then compeil with -fprofile-use will it also optimise the libraries functionality? Many thanks, James

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• Passing array values in an HTTP request in .NET

  - by Zarjay

  What's the standard way of passing and processing an array in an HTTP request in .NET? I have a solution, but I don't know if it's the best approach. Here's my solution: <form action="myhandler.ashx" method="post"> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Aaron" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Bobby" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Jimmy" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Kelly" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Simon" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="TJ" /> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> The ASHX handler receives the "user" parameter as a comma-delimited string. You can get the values easily by splitting the string: public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { string[] users = context.Request.Form["user"].Split(','); } So, I already have an answer to my problem: assign multiple values to the same parameter name, assume the ASHX handler receives it as a comma-delimited string, and split the string. My question is whether or not this is how it's typically done in .NET. What's the standard practice for this? Is there a simpler way to grab the multiple values than assuming that the value is comma-delimited and calling Split() on it? Is this how arrays are typically passed in .NET, or is XML used instead? Does anyone have any insight on whether or not this is the best approach?

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• AJAX Autosave

  - by antony.trupe

  What's the best javascript library, or plugin or extension to a library, that has implemented autosaving functionality? The specific need is to be able to 'save' a data grid. Think gmail and Google Documents' autosave. I don't want to reinvent the wheel if its already been invented. I'm looking for an existing implementation of the magical autoSave() function. Auto-Saving:pushing to server code that saves to persistent storage, usually a DB. The server code framework is outside the scope of this question. Note that I'm not looking for an Ajax library, but a library/framework a level higher: interacts with the form itself. daemach introduced an implementation on top of jQuery @ http://ideamill.synaptrixgroup.com/?p=3. I'm not convinced it meets the lightweight and well engineered criteria though. Criteria stable, lightweight, well engineered saves onChange and/or onBlur saves no more frequently then a given number of milliseconds handles multiple updates happening at the same time doesn't save if no change has occurred since last save saves to different urls per input class Updates I've stabilized a solution. See my answer below for links.

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• Database and logic layer for ASP.NET MVC application

  - by Ismail

  I'm going to start a new project which is going to be small initially but may grow to big over the years. I'm strongly convinced that I'm going to use ASP.NET MVC with jQuery for UI. I want to go for MySQL as database for some reasons but worried on few things. I've a good years of experience working on SQL Server databases and on one project I've had a bad experience creating and managing stored procedures on MySQL database. I'm totally new to Linq but I see that it is easier to use once you are familiar with it. First thing is that accessing data should be easy. So I thought I should use MySQL to Linq but somewhere I read that it is not directly supported but MySQL .NET connector adds support for EntityFramework. I don't know what are the pros and cons of it. I would love if I can implement repository pattern as it allows to apply filter in logic layer rather than in data access layer. Will it be possible if I use Entity Framework? I'm not clear on how I should go about all this or I should just forget every thing and directly use SQL to Linq on SQL Server. I'm also concerned about the performance. Someone told me that if we use Entity framework it fetches lot of data and then filter it. Is that right? So questions basically are - Is MySQL to Linq possible? If yes where can I get more details on it? Pros and cons of using EntityFramework with MySQL? Will it be easy to access data using EntityFramework with MySQL? Will I be able to implement repository patter which allows applying filter in logic layer rather than data access layer (when I use EntityFramework with MySQL) Does it fetches hell lot of data from database and then apply filter on it? If it sounds too many questions from my side in that case, if you can just let me know what you will do (with a considerable reason) in this situation as an experienced person in this area, that should answer my question.

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• How to Make a DVCS Completely Interoperable with Subversion?

  - by David M

  What architectural changes would a DVCS need to be completely interoperable with Subversion? Many DVCSs have some kind of bidirectional interface with Subversion, but there are limitations and caveats. For instance, git-svn can create a repository that mirrors Subversion, and changes to that repo can be sent back to Subversion via 'dcommit'. But the git-svn manpage explicitly cautions against making clones of that repository, so essentially, it's a Subversion working copy that you can use git commands on. Bazaar has a bidirectional Subversion capability too, but its documentation notes that Subversion properties aren't supported at all. Here's the end that I'm pursuing. I want a Subversion repository and a DVCS repository that, in the steady state, have identical content. When something is changed on one, it's automatically mirrored to the other. Subversion users interact with the Subversion repository normally. DVCS users clone the DVCS repository, pull changes from it, and push changes back to it. Most importantly, they don't need to know that this special DVCS repository is associated with a Subversion repository. It would probably be nifty if any clone of the special repository is itself a special repository and could commit directly to Subversion, but it might be sufficient if only the special repository directly interacts with Subversion. I think that's what mostly needed is to improve the bidirectional capability so that changes to Subversion properties are translated to changes in the DVCS repository. Some changes in the DVCS repository would be translated to changes to Subversion properties. Or is the answer to create a new capability in Subversion that interacts with a DVCS repository, using the DVCS repository as just a special storage layer such as fsfs or bdb? If there's not a direct mapping between the things that Subversion and a DVCS regard as having versions, does that imply that there's always going to be some activity that cannot be recorded properly on one or the other?

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• Java map with values limited by key's type parameter

  - by Ashley Mercer

  Is there a way in Java to have a map where the type parameter of a value is tied to the type parameter of a key? What I want to write is something like the following: public class Foo { // This declaration won't compile - what should it be? private static Map<Class<T>, T> defaultValues; // These two methods are just fine public static <T> void setDefaultValue(Class<T> clazz, T value) { defaultValues.put(clazz, value); } public static <T> T getDefaultValue(Class<T> clazz) { return defaultValues.get(clazz); } } That is, I can store any default value against a Class object, provided the value's type matches that of the Class object. I don't see why this shouldn't be allowed since I can ensure when setting/getting values that the types are correct. EDIT: Thanks to cletus for his answer. I don't actually need the type parameters on the map itself since I can ensure consistency in the methods which get/set values, even if it means using some slightly ugly casts.

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• Compile time float packing/punning

  - by detly

  I'm writing C for the PIC32MX, compiled with Microchip's PIC32 C compiler (based on GCC 3.4). My problem is this: I have some reprogrammable numeric data that is stored either on EEPROM or in the program flash of the chip. This means that when I want to store a float, I have to do some type punning: typedef union { int intval; float floatval; } IntFloat; unsigned int float_as_int(float fval) { IntFloat intf; intf.floatval = fval; return intf.intval; } // Stores an int of data in whatever storage we're using void StoreInt(unsigned int data, unsigned int address); void StoreFPVal(float data, unsigned int address) { StoreInt(float_as_int(data), address); } I also include default values as an array of compile time constants. For (unsigned) integer values this is trivial, I just use the integer literal. For floats, though, I have to use this Python snippet to convert them to their word representation to include them in the array: import struct hex(struct.unpack("I", struct.pack("f", float_value))[0]) ...and so my array of defaults has these indecipherable values like: const unsigned int DEFAULTS[] = { 0x00000001, // Some default integer value, 1 0x3C83126F, // Some default float value, 0.005 } (These actually take the form of X macro constructs, but that doesn't make a difference here.) Commenting is nice, but is there a better way? It's be great to be able to do something like: const unsigned int DEFAULTS[] = { 0x00000001, // Some default integer value, 1 COMPILE_TIME_CONVERT(0.005), // Some default float value, 0.005 } ...but I'm completely at a loss, and I don't even know if such a thing is possible. Notes Obviously "no, it isn't possible" is an acceptable answer if true. I'm not overly concerned about portability, so implementation defined behaviour is fine, undefined behaviour is not (I have the IDB appendix sitting in front of me). As fas as I'm aware, this needs to be a compile time conversion, since DEFAULTS is in the global scope. Please correct me if I'm wrong about this.

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